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Question 1421

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

Following a primary total hip arthroplasty via a direct anterior approach, the patient complains of numbness over the anterolateral aspect of the thigh. Motor function of the lower extremity is intact. Which nerve is most likely affected?

. Femoral nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The direct anterior approach utilizes the internervous plane between the tensor fasciae latae and sartorius. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is at highest risk, leading to meralgia paresthetica if injured.

Question 1422

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

The direct anterior approach for total hip arthroplasty utilizes an internervous plane between which two muscles?

. Tensor fasciae latae and gluteus medius
. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae
. Gluteus medius and piriformis
. Rectus femoris and vastus lateralis
. Adductor longus and gracilis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae


Explanation

The direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach uses a superficial internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve).

Question 1423

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty via the direct anterior approach. Postoperatively, she reports numbness and dysesthesia over the anterolateral aspect of her thigh. Which nerve was most likely injured, and what is its anatomic course relative to the surgical interval?

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, which courses superficial to the sartorius muscle
. Femoral nerve, which lies lateral to the psoas muscle
. Obturator nerve, which passes through the obturator foramen
. Sciatic nerve, which exits below the piriformis
. Ilioinguinal nerve, which passes through the inguinal canal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, which courses superficial to the sartorius muscle


Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is frequently injured during the direct anterior approach as it courses superficial to the sartorius muscle. The inter-nervous plane is between the tensor fascia latae (superior gluteal nerve) and the sartorius (femoral nerve).

Question 1424

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a direct anterior approach for THA, the surgeon develops the superficial internervous plane. Between which two muscles is this superficial dissection performed?

. Tensor fasciae latae and gluteus medius
. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae
. Rectus femoris and gluteus minimus
. Adductor longus and gracilis
. Pectineus and iliopsoas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae


Explanation

The superficial interval in the direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach is between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The deep interval is between the rectus femoris and gluteus medius.

Question 1425

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a posterior approach to the hip, retractors are placed to expose the posterior column and acetabulum. The patient subsequently develops a dense foot drop postoperatively. Which portion of the affected nerve is most vulnerable to stretch injury in this location and why?

. Tibial division; it lies more lateral and has less perineurial connective tissue.
. Peroneal division; it lies more lateral, is tethered at the fibular head, and has less supportive connective tissue.
. Tibial division; it lies more medial and is tightly bound by the piriformis.
. Peroneal division; it lies more medial and directly contacts the posterior acetabular rim.
. Sciatic nerve trunk; the blood supply is tenuous at the level of the greater sciatic notch.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneal division; it lies more lateral, is tethered at the fibular head, and has less supportive connective tissue.


Explanation

The sciatic nerve is at risk during the posterior approach. The common peroneal division is more susceptible to stretch injury because it is located laterally, has fewer supportive connective tissue fascicles, and is anatomically tethered at the fibular head.

Question 1426

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A direct anterior approach to the hip utilizes the internervous plane between the sartorius and the tensor fasciae latae (TFL). Proximal extension of this superficial dissection places which of the following nerves at greatest risk of injury?

. Femoral nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Inferior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is highly vulnerable during the superficial dissection of the direct anterior approach. It courses over the sartorius and can be injured with aggressive medial retraction or errant fascial incisions.

Question 1427

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During open reduction and internal fixation of a transverse posterior wall acetabular fracture utilizing the Kocher-Langenbeck approach, the knee is maintained in flexion and the hip in extension. This positioning is primarily utilized to protect which of the following structures?

. Superior gluteal nerve
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Sciatic nerve
. Pudendal nerve
. Femoral nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve


Explanation

Maintaining the hip in extension and the knee in flexion during the Kocher-Langenbeck approach relaxes the sciatic nerve. This minimizes tension and reduces the risk of iatrogenic sciatic nerve palsy during retraction.

Question 1428

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 72-year-old woman sustains a displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Examination reveals loss of sensation over the lateral deltoid. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve provides sensation to the skin overlying the lateral deltoid (Sergeant's patch) and motor innervation to the deltoid and teres minor. It is the most commonly injured nerve in proximal humerus fractures and shoulder dislocations.

Question 1429

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an anterior intrapelvic (modified Stoppa) approach for an acetabular fracture, significant hemorrhage is encountered over the superior pubic ramus. Which of the following vascular structures is most likely injured?

. Internal pudendal artery
. Superior gluteal artery
. Anastomosis between the external iliac and obturator vessels
. Inferior epigastric artery
. External pudendal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anastomosis between the external iliac and obturator vessels


Explanation

The corona mortis is a vascular anastomosis between the obturator and external iliac (or inferior epigastric) systems, located over the superior pubic ramus. It is at high risk of injury during anterior approaches to the pelvis and acetabulum.

Question 1430

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 21-year-old motorcyclist is thrown from his bike and presents with a massively swollen shoulder and a pulseless upper extremity. Radiographs show lateral displacement of the scapula and a widely displaced clavicle fracture. Which of the following is the most likely neurologic injury associated with this condition?

. Axillary nerve palsy
. Complete brachial plexus avulsion
. Isolated radial nerve palsy
. Musculocutaneous nerve transection
. Spinal accessory nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Complete brachial plexus avulsion


Explanation

Scapulothoracic dissociation is characterized by lateral displacement of the scapula, clavicle fracture, and severe neurovascular injury. It is frequently associated with subclavian artery disruption and complete brachial plexus avulsion.

Question 1431

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During the ilioinguinal approach for a transverse acetabular fracture, massive hemorrhage is encountered while dissecting near the superior pubic ramus. This bleeding is most likely due to injury of an anastomosis between which two vascular structures?

. Internal iliac and external iliac arteries
. Obturator and external iliac systems
. Superior gluteal and internal pudendal arteries
. Inferior epigastric and internal pudendal systems
. Femoral and external pudendal arteries

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obturator and external iliac systems


Explanation

The corona mortis is an anatomical vascular anastomosis between the obturator and external iliac (or inferior epigastric) systems located over the superior pubic ramus. It is highly susceptible to injury during the ilioinguinal approach to the pelvis.

Question 1432

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 22-year-old male presents with a closed, distal-third humeral shaft fracture. He is neurologically intact on initial evaluation in the emergency department. Following closed reduction and placement of a coaptation splint, he exhibits a complete wrist drop and inability to extend his metacarpophalangeal joints. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Observation and obtaining baseline electromyography (EMG) at 3 weeks
. Immediate surgical exploration of the radial nerve
. Removal of the splint and re-reduction in the emergency department
. Administration of high-dose systemic corticosteroids
. Application of a dynamic extension splint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate surgical exploration of the radial nerve


Explanation

While a primary radial nerve palsy associated with a closed humeral shaft fracture is typically observed, a secondary palsy occurring after a reduction maneuver is a strong indication for immediate surgical exploration. This secondary deficit suggests possible entrapment or laceration of the nerve in the fracture site.

Question 1433

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 48-year-old male sustains a posterior hip dislocation in a motor vehicle collision. The dislocation is successfully reduced closed in the emergency department within 2 hours of the injury. What is the most significant long-term complication associated with this injury?

. Sciatic nerve palsy
. Femoral nerve palsy
. Osteonecrosis of the femoral head
. Heterotopic ossification
. Acetabular labral tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteonecrosis of the femoral head


Explanation

Osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis) of the femoral head is a major long-term complication of posterior hip dislocations. The risk is minimized by urgent reduction within 6 hours, but remains a significant potential complication even with prompt treatment.

Question 1434

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old male undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a transverse posterior wall acetabular fracture via a Kocher-Langenbeck approach. Postoperatively, the patient demonstrates weak ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, but normal plantarflexion. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve


Explanation

The peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is uniquely susceptible to iatrogenic injury during a Kocher-Langenbeck approach due to its lateral and superficial position and tethering at the sciatic notch. Injury results in foot drop and weak eversion.

Question 1435

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a posterior hip dislocation and an associated posterior wall acetabular fracture following a dashboard injury. Which nerve is most commonly injured in this specific clinical scenario?

. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Pudendal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve


Explanation

The sciatic nerve, particularly its peroneal division, is the most commonly injured nerve in posterior hip dislocations and posterior wall acetabular fractures due to its anatomic proximity to the posterior acetabulum.

Question 1436

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old man sustains an acetabular fracture as seen in the representative imaging

. CT reveals a fracture involving the anterior column and posterior hemitransverse with the "gull sign" present on the anteroposterior view. Which surgical approach is most appropriate?

. Kocher-Langenbeck
. Ilioinguinal or Modified Stoppa
. Extended iliofemoral
. Smith-Petersen
. Posterior approach with trochanteric osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ilioinguinal or Modified Stoppa


Explanation

An anterior column and posterior hemitransverse fracture is best approached anteriorly (Ilioinguinal or modified Stoppa) to directly reduce the anterior column. The "gull sign" indicates superomedial dome impaction, which must be addressed through an anterior approach.

Question 1437

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 25-year-old male sustains a closed transverse midshaft humerus fracture. He is neurologically intact on initial presentation and placed in a coaptation splint. Two weeks later at follow-up, he exhibits a complete radial nerve palsy. What is the most appropriate management?

. Immediate surgical exploration and nerve repair
. Immediate EMG/NCS
. Observation and continued functional bracing
. MRI of the humerus
. Conversion to an external fixator

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and continued functional bracing


Explanation

Secondary radial nerve palsies developing after closed reduction or bracing of a closed humeral shaft fracture are typically neuropraxias. They have a high rate of spontaneous recovery, making observation the most appropriate initial management.

Question 1438

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 32-year-old woman is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and suffers a posterior hip dislocation. Closed reduction in the emergency department is unsuccessful. A CT scan reveals an intra-articular osteochondral fragment physically blocking the reduction. Which surgical approach is most appropriate to extract the fragment and reduce the hip?

. Smith-Petersen (anterior) approach
. Kocher-Langenbeck (posterior) approach
. Watson-Jones (anterolateral) approach
. Ilioinguinal approach
. Direct superior approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kocher-Langenbeck (posterior) approach


Explanation

For an irreducible posterior hip dislocation with posterior wall/acetabular fragments blocking reduction, the Kocher-Langenbeck (posterior) approach allows direct visualization, extraction of incarcerated fragments, and repair of the posterior column/wall.

Question 1439

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches



A 45-year-old manual laborer undergoes an open subpectoral biceps tenodesis. In the recovery room, the patient complains of numbness over the lateral aspect of his forearm and profound weakness in elbow flexion. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the procedure?

. Axillary nerve
. Median nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve is at risk during a subpectoral biceps tenodesis, particularly if retractors are placed too medially under the conjoined tendon. Injury results in biceps/brachialis weakness and numbness in the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve distribution.

Question 1440

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old man sustained a highly comminuted proximal humerus fracture and is scheduled for operative fixation. Postoperatively, he is noted to have a sensory deficit over the lateral aspect of his shoulder and weakness in external rotation.

Which space did the likely injured nerve pass through to innervate the affected muscle?

. Triangular space
. Triangular interval
. Quadrilateral space
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Suprascapular notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadrilateral space


Explanation

The patient has an axillary nerve injury, causing lateral shoulder numbness and weakness of the teres minor (external rotation) and deltoid. The axillary nerve passes through the quadrilateral space along with the posterior circumflex humeral artery.