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Orthopedic Anatomy Imag Review | Dr Hutaif Basic Scienc -...

Updated: Feb 2026 50 Views
Master Orthopedic Imaging: Select the Preferred Response Figure

Key Medical Takeaway

This article provides essential research regarding ORTHOPEDIC MCQS ONLINE 014 ANATOMY IMAGING. In orthopedic self-assessment modules, the preferred response figure identifies the correct diagnosis for imaging studies. For instance, ‘1’ may indicate a normal foot, ‘2’ a calcaneonavicular coalition, and ‘3’ a talocalcaneal middle facet coalition. This figure guides learners through accurate identification of conditions presented in the medical imagery questions.

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ORTHOPEDIC MCQS ONLINE 014 ANATOMY IMAGING

QUESTION 1
of 100
Figures 1a through 1c



1
Normal foot
2
Calcaneonavicular (CN) coalition
3
Talocalcaneal (TC) middle facet coalition ![img](/media/upload/4ca6c8ad-46b6-4d98-ad20-c54f238069a8.jpg) ![img](/media/upload/2609897c-ef70-4634-80ec-0c59769042aa.jpg)
4
TC posterior facet coalition ![img](/media/upload/68cab0d9-3ef9-4f78-96de-7f2188c26f6f.jpg) A 1 B C _
QUESTION 2
of 100
Figures 2a through 2h








1
Normal foot
2
Calcaneonavicular (CN) coalition
3
Talocalcaneal (TC) middle facet coalition
4
TC posterior facet coalition ![img](/media/upload/e2234a71-e6e0-4a4a-806d-69c11b5fb6d4.jpg) ![img](/media/upload/770a3402-07b4-40e5-ad8e-9c530c10dcbd.jpg) A B ![img](/media/upload/f1057f32-c965-450f-85c6-83aa3f563149.jpg) ![img](/media/upload/3bcdb6ef-932f-4c61-8551-3eaffbaba376.jpg) C ![img](/media/upload/2b95ab1d-3011-45d7-8015-45a5fecbe2b7.jpg) ![img](/media/upload/ba5cef9c-b628-4236-8cd1-ec0a54a738f9.jpg) 2 ![img](/media/upload/4512ce6c-1451-4f7b-9ca5-a83f9771c704.jpg) D E F G ![img](/media/upload/121378a6-3ed3-49f9-8d41-1dc26feaa6af.jpg) H
QUESTION 3
of 100
Figures 3a through 3h
A B
C
3
D E F
G
H








1
Normal foot
2
Calcaneonavicular (CN) coalition
3
Talocalcaneal (TC) middle facet coalition
4
TC posterior facet coalition
QUESTION 4
of 100
Figures 4a through 4j
A B 4
D C .
E
F G H
5
I J










1
Normal foot
2
Calcaneonavicular (CN) coalition
3
Talocalcaneal (TC) middle facet coalition
4
TC posterior facet coalition
QUESTION 5
of 100
Figures 5a through 5h
A B
C
6
D E F
G
H







1
Normal foot
2
Calcaneonavicular (CN) coalition
3
Talocalcaneal (TC) middle facet coalition
4
TC posterior facet coalition
QUESTION 6
of 100
Figures 6a through 6j
A B 7
C F
D
E
G H








1
Normal foot
2
Calcaneonavicular (CN) coalition
3
Talocalcaneal (TC) middle facet coalition
4
TC posterior facet coalition
QUESTION 7
of 100
Figures 7a through 7h
8
A B D …
C
E F G







1
Normal foot
2
Calcaneonavicular (CN) coalition
3
Talocalcaneal (TC) middle facet coalition
4
TC posterior facet coalition
QUESTION 8
of 100
Video 8 features a total knee arthroplasty while trialing; which structure is too tight?
1
Medial collateral ligament.
2
Posterior cruciate ligament 11
3
Posterior capsule of the knee
4
Patellar tendon
QUESTION 9
of 100
Figures 9a and 9b are the radiographs of a 19-year-old woman with a painful juvenile bunion. The pathologic findings associated with this deformity
include a

1
Laterally deviated distal metatarsal articular surface, a lax or disrupted distal 1-2 transverse intermetatarsal 12 ligament, and a contracted lateral collateral (lateral first metatarsophalangeal) ligament.
2
Laterally deviated distal metatarsal articular surface, a contracted lateral collateral (lateral first metatarsophalangeal) ligament, and a medially deviated or hypermobile first metatarsocuneiform joint.
3
Medially deviated or hypermobile first metatarsocuneiform joint, a lax or disrupted distal 1-2 transverse intermetatarsal ligament, and a contracted lateral collateral (lateral first metatarsophalangeal) ligament.
4
Lax or disrupted distal 1-2 transverse intermetatarsal ligament, laterally deviated distal metatarsal articular surface, and a medially deviated or hypermobile first metatarsocuneiform joint.
QUESTION 10
of 100
13
Figure 10 is an anteroposterior pelvis radiograph of an 82-year-old man who had right hip pain that began 2 weeks ago but has since resolved with use of over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Currently he has no pain. Examination of his hip shows decreased internal rotation and minimal pain at the extremes of motion. What is the most appropriate treatment at this point?

1
Observation and NSAID use as needed
2
MRI scan
3
Bone biopsy
4
Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) and urine protein electrophoresis (UPEP).
QUESTION 11
of 100
What is the most likely explanation for the change between the initial intraoperative radiograph (Figure 11a) and the radiograph taken 4 weeks after surgery (Figure 11b) in an 87-year-old man who underwent primary hip replacement for osteoarthritis?

1
Deep-wound infection.
2
Aseptic loosening
3
Osteoporosis
4
Initial implant stability
QUESTION 12
of 100
Figure 12 shows an arthroscopic view from an inferolateral portal of a right knee. The asterisk indicates which structure?

1
Anterior cruciate ligament, anteromedial bundle
2
Anterior cruciate ligament, anterolateral bundle
3
Anterior cruciate ligament, posteromedial bundle
4
Anterior cruciate ligament, posterolateral bundle
QUESTION 13
of 100
Gerdy tubercle
1
Figure 13a.
2
Figure 13b
3
Figure 13c
4
Figure 13d
5
Figure 13e
QUESTION 14
of 100
Site of tendon insertion that is proximal to its muscular origin
1
Figure 13a.
2
Figure 13b
3
Figure 13c
4
Figure 13d
5
Figure 13e
QUESTION 15
of 100
Stieda fracture
1
Figure 13a.
2
Figure 13b
3
Figure 13c
4
Figure 13d
5
Figure 13e
QUESTION 16
of 100
Structure responsible for the pivot shift phenomenon as it transitions to become a knee flexor from being a knee extensor, thereby causing tibial reduction
1
Figure 13a.
2
Figure 13b
3
Figure 13c
4
Figure 13d
5
Figure 13e
QUESTION 17
of 100
Primary stabilizer of the knee to valgus stress in approximately 30 degrees of flexion 1- Figure 13a.
1
Figure 13b
2
Figure 13c
3
Figure 13d
4
Figure 13e
5
Figure 13f
QUESTION 18
of 100
A 56-year-old woman fell off a stepladder and sustained the injury shown in Figures 18a and 18b. In addition to the pain from her injury, she has numbness and weakness in her foot. Upon examination, the findings most consistent with her radiographs are decreased sensation
21
A B


1
in her first interspace and an inability to dorsiflex her toes.
2
over her lateral forefoot and an inability to evert her foot.
3
over her medial forefoot and an inability to invert her foot.
4
over her lateral forefoot and an inability to plantar flex her first metatarsal.
QUESTION 19
of 100
Figure 19 is an anteroposterior pelvis radiograph of a 60-year-old woman who has a 4-month history of right hip pain. She has a
medical history of lupus and has used
21
prednisone in the past, but not currently.
Her pain is persistent despite use of over-the-counter pain medications and activity modifications. What is the most appropriate treatment at this point?

1
Weight loss and protected weight bearing
2
Bisphosphonate therapy
3
Total hip resurfacing arthroplasty
4
Total hip arthroplasty
QUESTION 20
of 100
22
The lesser or small saphenous vein passes along the sural nerve in the mid calf
1
medially.
2
laterally.
3
anteriorly.
4
posteriorly.
QUESTION 21
of 100
Release of which structure results in the largest hip internal rotation increase in both flexion and extension ?


1
Medial arm of the iliofemoral ligament.
2
Lateral arm of the iliofemoral ligament
3
Pubofemoral ligament
4
Ischiofemoral ligament
QUESTION 22
of 100
Which relationship is noted for the structure identified by the arrow in Figure 22b? 24
1
The anterolateral and posteromedial bundles are relaxed in mid flexion and tensioned in high flexion.
2
The anterolateral and posteromedial bundles are tensioned in mid flexion and tensioned in high flexion.
3
The anterolateral bundle is tensioned in mid flexion, and the posteromedial bundle is tensioned in both extension and high flexion.
4
The posteromedial bundle is tensioned in mid flexion, and the anterolateral bundle is tensioned in both flexion and extension.
QUESTION 23
of 100
Which relationship is noted for the fibers of the structure injured in Figure 22b?
1
The anterolateral bundle is longer, thicker, and stronger than the posteromedial bundle.
2
The anterolateral bundle is shorter, thicker, and stronger than the posteromedial bundle.
3
The posterolateral bundle is longer, thicker, and stronger than the anterolateral bundle.
4
The posteromedial bundle is shorter, thicker, and stronger than the anterolateral bundle.
QUESTION 24
of 100
When surgical reconstruction is accomplished using a 2-bundled reconstruction technique, recreating the function of the posteromedial bundle contributes uniquely to the recovery of stability against which direction of force?
1
Posterior tibial translation in extension
2
Anterior tibial translation in extension
3
External rotation of the tibia in extension
4
Hyperextension
QUESTION 25
of 100
With respect to the structure identified by the arrow in Figure 22b, the meniscofemoral 25
ligaments are
1
uniformly present, and are positioned posterior to the injured ligament.
2
uniformly present, with one positioned anterior and the other positioned posterior to the injured ligament.
3
variably present, and are positioned posterior to the injured ligament.
4
variably present, with one positioned anterior and the other positioned posterior to the injured ligament.
QUESTION 26
of 100
The injury pattern shown in the CT image in Figure 26 is most commonly associated with which mechanism?

1
Traction injury.
2
Seizures
3
Collision athletic events
4
Postpolio syndrome
QUESTION 27
of 100
Which structure is shown in Video 27? 27


1
Superficial medial collateral ligament
2
Semimembranosus tendon
3
Posterior oblique ligament
4
Medial patellofemoral ligament
QUESTION 28
of 100
Which structure, indicated at the tip of the arrow in Figure 28, is at risk for anterior cortical penetration during placement of C1 lateral mass screws?

1
Hypoglossal nerve.
2
Jugular vein
3
Lingual artery 28
4
Internal carotid artery
QUESTION 29
of 100
Which structure is most at risk when exposing the most lateral aspect of the medial window (identified by the arrows in Figure 30)? 29

1
Corona mortis
2
Tibial division, sciatic nerve
3
Sciatic nerve, peroneal division
4
Fifth lumbar nerve root
5
Kocher-Langenbeck approach
QUESTION 30
of 100
Structures at risk from traction when visualizing the quadrilateral plate from the medial window of the Stoppa approach in this fracture (Figure 31)
1
Corona mortis
2
Tibial division, sciatic nerve
3
Sciatic nerve, peroneal division
4
Fifth lumbar nerve root
5
Kocher-Langenbeck approach
QUESTION 31
of 100
Which surgical approach is most commonly used for this fracture (Figure 32)?
1
Corona mortis
2
Tibial division, sciatic nerve
3
Sciatic nerve, peroneal division
4
Fifth lumbar nerve root
5
Kocher-Langenbeck approach
QUESTION 32
of 100
Which structure is indicated by the arrow in Figure 33?

1
Corona mortis
2
Tibial division, sciatic nerve
3
Sciatic nerve, peroneal division
4
Fifth lumbar nerve root
5
Kocher-Langenbeck approach
QUESTION 33
of 100
Which nerve root contributes to both the sciatic and femoral nerves?
1
L2
2
L3
3
L4
4
L5
QUESTION 34
of 100
The structure that runs just beneath the peroneal tubercle of the calcaneus is the
1
flexor hallucis longus tendon.
2
peroneus brevis tendon.
3
peroneus longus tendon.
4
calcaneal fibular ligament.
QUESTION 35
of 100
The process at C5-6 shown in Figures 36a and 36b is from radiographs taken in 2006 and 2009, and can occur over time following an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion. At what rate per year is this thought to occur?







1
Less than 1%
2
3%
3
7%
4
15% ![img](/media/upload/cfd21ac3-3a28-4015-a335-b0db6532cc68.jpg) ![img](/media/upload/06c9c83a-4764-4ef0-98ef-8443b0ae966c.jpg) A B
QUESTION 36
of 100
The plain radiographs and MR image shown in Figures 37a through 37c indicate which condition?
1
Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement with disruption of the ligamentum teres.
2
Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement with an acetabular labral tear.
3
Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement with disruption of the ligamentum teres.
4
Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement with an acetabular labral tear.
QUESTION 37
of 100
Which condition would you expect to identify during a hip arthroscopy procedure for this patient based on the radiographic findings in Figures 37a through 37c?
1
Articular cartilage delamination.
2
Ligamentum teres rupture
3
Osteochondral loose body
4
Paralabral cyst
QUESTION 38
of 100
The patient undergoes hip arthroscopy and the image of the right hip is shown in Figure 39. Repair of the injured structure would be expected to improve
1
hip joint survival.
2
hip joint lubrication.
3
hip joint motion. 36
4
hip joint stability.
QUESTION 39
of 100
What condition favors pollicization in hypoplasia of the thumb?


1
Extrinsic tendon abnormalities involving the flexor and extensor
2
Narrowing of the first web space
3
Insufficiency of the ulnar collateral ligament of the metaphalangeal joint
4
Unstable carpometacarpal joint
QUESTION 40
of 100
A 22-year-old man who plays recreational soccer (Figure 41)

1
Ligamentous reconstruction
2
Meniscal repair
3
Meniscectomy
4
Immobilization
QUESTION 41
of 100
A 34-year-old woman who is a professional skier (Figure 42)


1
Ligamentous reconstruction
2
Meniscal repair
3
Meniscectomy
4
Immobilization
QUESTION 42
of 100
A 16-year-old boy who is a competitive basketball player (Figure 43)

1
Ligamentous reconstruction
2
Meniscal repair
3
Meniscectomy 39
4
Immobilization
QUESTION 43
of 100
An 18-year-old woman who plays high school volleyball (Figure 44)
1
Ligamentous reconstruction
2
Meniscal repair
3
Meniscectomy
4
Immobilization
QUESTION 44
of 100
The subcutaneous nerve most at risk for transection during an anterior surgical exposure of the ankle is the
1
dorsal cutaneous branch of the sural nerve.
2
deep peroneal nerve.
3
medial plantar nerve.
4
medial branch of the superficial peroneal nerve.
QUESTION 45
of 100
The cystic lesion shown on the MR images in Figures 46a through 46c should cause denervation changes in which muscle?
A B



1
Subscapularis
2
Teres major
3
Infraspinatus
4
Supraspinatus 42
QUESTION 46
of 100
The middle glenohumeral ligament (MGHL) most commonly arises from the
1
coracoacromial ligament at its insertion to the coracoid.
2
inferior aspect of the glenoid as a continuation of the anterior inferior glenohumeral ligament.
3
posterior aspect of the glenoid as a continuation of the posterior superior labrum.
4
labrum and glenoid immediately below the superior glenohumeral ligament.
QUESTION 47
of 100
Figures 48a and 48b are the axial and sagittal T1-weighted MR images of the L4-5 disc level of a 38-year-old man. He is symptomatic from the pathology shown. A surgeon would expect the neurological findings to include

1
Right extensor hallucis longus (EHL) weakness, anterior shin numbness, and diminished patella reflex
2
Right quadriceps weakness, anterior shin pain, and diminished patella reflex
3
Right dorsal foot first web numbness, EHL weakness, and normal reflexes
4
Left quadriceps weakness, anterior shin pain, and diminished patella reflex
QUESTION 48
of 100
Figure 49 is the chest radiograph of a 47-year-old man who underwent right shoulder arthroscopy under general anesthesia and regional blockade (interscalene). The finding in the radiographic image likely is attributable to which mechanism?

1
Positive end-pressure ventilation
2
Iatrogenic nerve injury during the surgical approach
3
Nerve palsy related to regional anesthetic block
4
Traction injury to the brachial plexus at the time of surgery 45
QUESTION 49
of 100
Figure 50 is the radiograph of a 68-year-old man who has anterior knee pain 6 months after total knee arthroplasty. His knee is flexed 45 degrees. Anteroposterior and lateral radiographs show satisfactory size and alignment of the components. This patient has knee range of motion from 0 to 75 degrees. What is the most appropriate next step in his evaluation?







1
MR images with metal artifact reduction
2
Dynamic fluoroscopy
3
CT images of the femoral and tibial components
4
30-degree, 60-degree, and 90-degree patellar radiographs 46
QUESTION 50
of 100
Radiograph of a man with knee pain, thyroid abnormalities, and marked decreased hip internal rotation with flexion at 90 degrees
1
Figure 51a
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 51
of 100
Cross-over sign
1
Figure 51a
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 52
of 100
Posterior wall
1
Figure 51a 49
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 53
of 100
History of high-dose steroid treatment after renal transplantation
1
Figure 51a
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 54
of 100
Before proceeding with total hip replacement, consideration should be given to imaging the cervical spine with flexion/extension films
1
Figure 51a
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 55
of 100
A 73-year-old man presents to your clinic many years after undergoing total shoulder arthroplasty with pain and the radiographic findings demonstrated in Figure 56. The most likely cause of this patient’s pain is

1
stress shielding.
2
humeral osteolysis.
3
glenoid loosening. 51
4
progressive glenoid arthritis.
QUESTION 56
of 100
Which nerve is most commonly injured after total knee arthroplasty?
1
Tibial nerve
2
Superficial peroneal nerve
3
Infrapatellar branch of the saphenous nerve 52
4
Sartorial branch of the saphenous nerve
QUESTION 57
of 100
During an anterior approach to the bicipital 53
tuberosity, you encounter a nerve overlying the brachioradialis fascia (Figure 58). It provides innervation to the





1
flexor pollicis longus.
2
skin on the anteromedial forearm.
3
skin on the anterolateral forearm.
4
extensor indicis proprius.
QUESTION 58
of 100
What degenerative process most often is associated with an intact rotator cuff?
1
Figure 59a is the CT image of an 86-year-old woman with acromiohumeral distance of less than 2 mm, night pain, and an inability to actively raise the affected arm above shoulder level. 55
2
Figure 59b is the radiograph of a 45-year-old man with acromiohumeral distance equal to 7 mm. He is able to actively raise his arm above shoulder level, has lateral arm pain, and abduction and external rotation weakness.
3
Figures 59c and 59d are the radiographs of a 72-year-old man with night pain and reduced range of motion.
QUESTION 59
of 100
The magnitude of this deformity is directly affected by rotator cuff tear size.
1
Figure 59a is the CT image of an 86-year-old woman with acromiohumeral distance of less than 2 mm, night pain, and an inability to actively raise the affected arm above shoulder level.
2
Figure 59b is the radiograph of a 45-year-old man with acromiohumeral distance equal to 7 mm. He is able to actively raise his arm above shoulder level, has lateral arm pain, and abduction and external rotation weakness.
3
Figures 59c and 59d are the radiographs of a 72-year-old man with night pain and reduced range of motion.
QUESTION 60
of 100
This image represents the end stage of an uncompensated rotator cuff tear.
1
Figure 59a is the CT image of an 86-year-old woman with acromiohumeral distance of less than 2 mm, night pain, and an inability to actively raise the affected arm above shoulder level.
2
Figure 59b is the radiograph of a 45-year-old man with acromiohumeral distance equal to 7 mm. He is able to actively raise his arm above shoulder level, has lateral arm pain, and abduction and external rotation weakness. 56
3
Figures 59c and 59d are the radiographs of a 72-year-old man with night pain and reduced range of motion.
QUESTION 61
of 100
A 35-year-old man who is involved in an improvised explosive device attack is hit by a piece 57 of shrapnel. He has a solitary penetrating wound in his left tibia. Radiographs show no fracture. He has significant pain and his calf is grossly swollen. He has good sensation and palpable dorsalis pedis and tibialis posterior pulses. He has elevated pressure in all 4 compartments. When performing a 4-compartment fasciotomy using the 2-incision technique, which structure is at risk when opening the deep posterior compartment?
1
Anterior tibial artery
2
Posterior tibial artery
3
Superficial peroneal nerve
4
Saphenous nerve
QUESTION 62
of 100
Figure 63 is the radiograph of a 48-year-old woman with a long history of left forefoot pain and deformity. She says she had surgery as a teenager and that her foot has slowly gotten worse over the years. She recently reached the point at
which she cannot find comfortable shoes. What does the double density at the arrow signify?
58

1
An impaction fracture of the metatarsal head
2
A growth disturbance secondary to surgery as a teenager
3
A dislocation of the second metatarsophalangeal joint
4
Chondrocalcinosis or pseudogout
QUESTION 63
of 100
Figure 64 is the radiograph of a 42-year-old woman who has severe left hip pain and a limp. What procedure may help avoid the postoperative complication of sciatic nerve palsy?
59





1
Acetabular osteotomy.
2
Femoral shortening osteotomy.
3
Extended trochanteric osteotomy.
4
Distal femoral rotational osteotomy
QUESTION 64
of 100
Regarding the anteromedial and posterolateral bundles of the injured structure, which relationship is the most accurate?
1
Parallel in extension and externally rotated in flexion 61
2
Parallel in extension and internally rotated in flexion
3
Externally rotated in extension and parallel in flexion
4
Internally rotated in extension and parallel in flexion
QUESTION 65
of 100
What kinematic relationship occurs between the anteromedial and posterolateral bundles of the injured structure identified in these images?
1
Both are tight in extension and in flexion.
2
Both are tight in extension and loose in flexion.
3
The anteromedial bundles are tight in extension and loose in flexion, and the posterolateral bundle is tight in both flexion and extension.
4
The posterolateral bundle is tight in extension and loose in flexion, and the anteromedial bundle is tight in both flexion and extension.
QUESTION 66
of 100
At the time of disruption of the structure identified in Figures 65a and 65b which structure is most commonly injured?
1
Anterior meniscofemoral ligament
2
Intermeniscal ligament
3
Medial meniscus
4
Lateral meniscus
QUESTION 67
of 100
Which statement best characterizes the injured structure in Figures 65a through 65d?
1
The structure is extrasynovial, contains significant innervation, and is highly 62 vascularized.
2
The structure is extrasynovial, does not contain significant innervation, and is not highly vascularized.
3
The structure is intrasynovial, contains significant innervation, and is not highly vascularized.
4
The structure is intrasynovial, does not contain significant innervation, and is not highly vascularized.
QUESTION 68
of 100
Reconstruction of the structure injured in Figures 65a and 65b is important to limit which pattern of instability?
1
Anterior translation only
2
Anterior translation and internal rotation
3
Anterior translation and external rotation
4
Anterior translation and varus-valgus angulation
QUESTION 69
of 100
Reconstruction of the injured structure is performed. After surgery, the patient initially notes limitation in motion, and later develops recurrent instability of the knee. Which factor most likely contributed to the development of instability?
1
Inadequate graft strength
2
Failure to restore graft length
3
Malposition of the femoral tunnel
4
Malposition of the tibial tunnel
QUESTION 70
of 100
64
What is the optimal biomechanical screw placement position to treat a waist-level scaphoid fracture?









1
Dorsal one-third of the distal and proximal fragments
2
Dorsal half of the distal and proximal fragments
3
Central axis of the distal and proximal fragments
4
Volar half of the distal and proximal fragments
QUESTION 71
of 100
A 45-year-old man has motor weakness of the quadriceps and tibialis anterior, sensory loss of the medial calf, and loss of the knee jerk reflex on his left.
1
Figure 72a Figure 72b
2
Figure 72c Figure 72d
3
Figure 72e Figure 72f
4
Figure 72g Figure 72h
QUESTION 72
of 100
This finding has been shown to be variably present in asymptomatic patients, and its incidence increases with age.
1
Figure 72a Figure 72b
2
Figure 72c Figure 72d
3
Figure 72e Figure 72f
4
Figure 72g Figure 72h
QUESTION 73
of 100
This pathology most likely causes mechanical low-back pain.
1
Figure 72a Figure 72b
2
Figure 72c Figure 72d
3
Figure 72e Figure 72f
4
Figure 72g Figure 72h 67
QUESTION 74
of 100
A 47-year-old man has left-sided motor weakness in the extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus, sensory loss in the lateral calf and dorsal foot, and no discernible reflex loss.

1
Figure 72a Figure 72b
2
Figure 72c Figure 72d
3
Figure 72e Figure 72f
4
Figure 72g Figure 72h
QUESTION 75
of 100
Figure 76

1
Anterior cruciate ligament
2
Biceps femoris tendon
3
Iliotibial band
4
Lateral collateral ligament
5
Ligament of Wrisberg
QUESTION 76
of 100
Figure 77

1
Anterior cruciate ligament
2
Biceps femoris tendon
3
Iliotibial band
4
Lateral collateral ligament
5
Ligament of Wrisberg
QUESTION 77
of 100
Figure 78

1
Anterior cruciate ligament
2
Biceps femoris tendon
3
Iliotibial band
4
Lateral collateral ligament 69
5
Ligament of Wrisberg
QUESTION 78
of 100
Figure 79

1
Anterior cruciate ligament
2
Biceps femoris tendon
3
Iliotibial band
4
Lateral collateral ligament
5
Ligament of Wrisberg
QUESTION 79
of 100
Figure 80

1
Anterior cruciate ligament
2
Biceps femoris tendon
3
Iliotibial band
4
Lateral collateral ligament
5
Ligament of Wrisberg
QUESTION 80
of 100
Figure 81

1
Anterior cruciate ligament
2
Biceps femoris tendon
3
Iliotibial band
4
Lateral collateral ligament 71
5
Ligament of Wrisberg
QUESTION 81
of 100
Figure 82
1
Anterior cruciate ligament
2
Biceps femoris tendon
3
Iliotibial band
4
Lateral collateral ligament
5
Ligament of Wrisberg
QUESTION 82
of 100
As a surgeon approaches the medial midfoot to harvest the flexor digitorum longus tendon for a transfer, two muscles are reflected plantarly off of the first metatarsal: the medial cuneiform and the navicular, as shown in Figure 83 as A and B. Muscle A is short and broad and muscle B is long and tendinous.
Which nerve is at risk during this approach?

1
Deep peroneal nerve
2
Lateral plantar nerve
3
Saphenous nerve
4
Medial plantar nerve
QUESTION 83
of 100
Posterior approach
1
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
2
Inferior gluteal nerve
3
Superior gluteal nerve
4
Sciatic nerve
QUESTION 84
of 100
Direct lateral approach
1
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
2
Inferior gluteal nerve
3
Superior gluteal nerve
4
Sciatic nerve
QUESTION 85
of 100
Anterior approach


1
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
2
Inferior gluteal nerve
3
Superior gluteal nerve
4
Sciatic nerve
QUESTION 86
of 100
Figure 88a is an anteroposterior pelvis radiograph of a 50-year-old obese man who has right groin pain. He is a former college athlete. Examination reproduces pain with right hip flexion and internal rotation and adduction, and his Stinchfield test result is positive. Figure 88b is a lateral view of his right hip. What is the most likely cause of his hip pain?
A B
75


1
Osteonecrosis
2
Obesity
3
Femoroacetabular impingement, Cam type
4
Femoroacetabular impingement, pincer type
QUESTION 87
of 100
Among the ankle arthroscopy portals described below, which portal is at highest risk for serious complications?


1
Posterolateral: lateral to the Achilles tendon
2
Anterolateral: lateral to the peroneus tertius tendon
3
Anteromedial: medial to the tibialis anterior tendon
4
Posteromedial: medial to the Achilles tendon
QUESTION 88
of 100
From which artery does the princeps pollicis artery branch?

1
Dorsal radial carpal artery
2
Dorsal ulnar carpal artery
3
Ulnar artery
4
Radial artery
QUESTION 89
of 100
Which 2 tendons are identified in the dissection shown in Video 92?
1
Semitendinosus and gracilis
2
Semitendinosus and semimembranosus
3
Semimembranosus and gracilis
4
Semimembranosus and sartorius
QUESTION 90
of 100
A 17-year-old high school athlete comes in with a 6-month history of right midfoot pain. She has been treated with cast immobilization, crutches, and physical therapy. She still has significant pain with activities and cannot participate in sports. Her radiograph is shown in
Figure 93a, and MR images are shown in Figures 93b and 93c. What is the most appropriate 79
next step?
A B
C



1
Repeat treatment with a nonweight-bearing cast
2
Percutaneous lag screw fixation
3
Addition of a bone stimulator
4
Injection of bone morphogenic protein
QUESTION 91
of 100
81
Figures 94a and 94b show T1 sagittal and coronal MR images of the right shoulder of a 45-year-old woman. She has insidious onset of dull, aching right shoulder pain localized at the superior aspect of her shoulder. The nerve that supplies the atrophied muscle arises from the upper trunk from contributions of which nerve roots?
A
B


1
C4 and C5 with occasional contribution from C3
2
C4 and C5 with occasional contribution from C6
3
C5 and C6 with occasional contribution from C4
4
C5 and C6 with occasional contribution from C7
QUESTION 92
of 100
Which osseous landmark indicates the proximal border of the femoral insertion of the posterior cruciate ligament?
1
Medial intercondylar ridge
2
Medial interfemoral ridge
3
Medial interfascicular ridge
4
Medial bifurcate ridge
QUESTION 93
of 100
A 15-year-old girl is thrown from a snowmobile and has severe left foot and ankle pain. Her CT image is shown in Figure 96a, and a lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 96b. The arrow in Figure 96a points to which structure?
A
B
1
Base of the fourth metatarsal
2
Base of the fifth metatarsal
3
Cuboid
4
Anterior process of the calcaneus
QUESTION 94
of 100
Figure 97 is the clinical photograph of a 74-year-old man 6 months after undergoing an acute anterior inferior shoulder dislocation. The patient notes weakness in shoulder flexion, abduction, and extension. This clinical picture represents damage to a nerve that courses

1
through the suprascapular notch underneath the transverse scapular ligament to enter the supraspinatus fossa, exiting the fossa through the spinoglenoid notch to terminate in the infraspinatus fossa.
2
through the sternocleidomastoid muscle and continuing inferiorly to terminate within the trapezius.
3
Anterior to the scalenus posterior muscle, coursing distal and laterally deep to the clavicle and superficial to the first and second rib, then running inferiorly on the chest wall in the mid axillary line to terminate within the serratus anterior.
4
on the anterior surface of the subscapularis and then traveling inferior to the glenohumeral joint capsule and coursing from posterior to anterior on the deep surface of the deltoid muscle.
QUESTION 95
of 100
The asterisks on Figures 98a through 98c represent which anatomic structure?
A
B
C



1
Medial head of the gastrocnemius
2
Lateral head of the gastrocnemius
3
Semimembranosus
4
Popliteus
QUESTION 96
of 100
Figure 99 shows a dorsal approach for a midfoot arthrodesis following a Lisfranc injury in a 43-year-old woman. The base of the second metatarsal is labeled with the letter B. The interval used to create this exposure is

1
an internervous plane between muscles innervated by the deep and superficial peroneal nerves.
2
an internervous plane between muscles innervated by the deep peroneal and the medial plantar nerves.
3
an interval between the extensor digitorum longus and the extensor digitorum brevis.
4
not an internervous plane.
QUESTION 97
of 100
Rupture of the structure shown in the axial cross and the sagittal sections in Figures 100a and 100b causes weakness in

1
extension and supination.
2
pronation.
3
flexion and pronation.
4
flexion and supination.
Table of Contents
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
Keywords
Prof. Mohammed Hutaif Orthopedic Surgeon Yemen abstract at pubmed pmid view abstract pubmed pmid view review pubmed pmid
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