Part of the Master Guide

Orthopedic Surgery MCQs: Arthroplasty, Fracture & Hip Exam Prep | Part 18

Orthopedic MCQ Exam: Fracture, Hip & Knee Practice Questions | Part 76

27 Apr 2026 226 min read 62 Views
OITE & ABOS Orthopedic Board Prep: Practice Exam Part 76

Key Takeaway

This page presents Part 76 of a high-yield MCQ bank for orthopedic surgeons and residents. Designed by Dr. Mohammed Hutaif, it offers 100 verified, exam-formatted questions replicating OITE and AAOS board exams. Master Fracture, Hip, and Knee topics through interactive study and exam modes to ensure successful board certification.

About This Board Review Set

This is Part 76 of the comprehensive OITE and AAOS Orthopedic Surgery Board Review series authored by Dr. Mohammed Hutaif, Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon.

This set has been strictly audited and contains 100 100% verified, high-yield multiple-choice questions (MCQs) modelled on the exact format of the Orthopaedic In-Training Examination (OITE) and the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS) board examinations.

How to Use the Interactive Quiz

Two distinct learning modes are available:

  • Study Mode — After selecting an answer, you immediately see whether you are correct or incorrect, together with a full clinical explanation and literature references.
  • Exam Mode — All feedback is hidden until you click Submit & See Results. A live timer tracks elapsed time. A percentage score and detailed breakdown are displayed upon submission.

Pro Tip: Use keyboard shortcuts A–E to select options, F to flag a question for review, and Enter to jump to the next unanswered question.

Topics Covered in Part 76

This module focuses heavily on: Fracture, Hip, Knee.

Sample Questions from This Set

Sample Question 1: Back pain and ipsilateral knee pain are common long-term sequelae of hip arthrodesis. To limit these problems, what position should be avoided during fusion of the hip?...

Sample Question 2: -Figures a and b are the posteroanterior and lateral radiographs of a 13-year-old girl with a progressive curve despite bracing with a thoracolumbosacral orthosis. Examination reveals no pain or neurologic findings. The lumbar curve measure...

Sample Question 3: Biomechanical in vitro studies of double-row anchor fixation of rotator cuff tears show what initial advantage over single-row anchor fixation? Review Topic...

Sample Question 4: Which of the following factors is associated with improved outcomes following surgery for hip fractures?...

Sample Question 5: Figure 1 is the right hand of a 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and rheumatoid arthritis. He is taking immunosuppressive disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) and is seen in the emergency department with rapid progre...

Why Active MCQ Practice Works

Evidence consistently demonstrates that active recall through spaced MCQ practice yields substantially greater long-term retention than passive reading alone (Roediger & Karpicke, 2006). All questions in this specific module have been algorithmically verified for clinical integrity and complete explanations.

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

Back pain and ipsilateral knee pain are common long-term sequelae of hip arthrodesis. To limit these problems, what position should be avoided during fusion of the hip?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The recommended position for a hip fusion is flexion of 20° to 30°, slight adduction (5°) or neutral, and 10° of external rotation.  In long-term follow-up, patients who underwent fusion in abduction had more ipsilateral knee and low back pain than patients who were positioned in adduction.  Internal rotation should be avoided to prevent interference with the opposite foot during gait.  External rotation facilitates the application of shoe wear.
REFERENCES: Callaghan JJ, Brand RA, Pederson DR: Hip arthrodesis: A long-term follow-up.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:1328-1335.
Callaghan JJ, McBeath AA: Arthrodesis, in Callaghan JJ, Rosenberg AG, Rubash HE (eds): The Adult Hip.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998, pp 749-759.

Question 2

-Figures a and b are the posteroanterior and lateral radiographs of a 13-year-old girl with a progressive curve despite bracing with a thoracolumbosacral orthosis. Examination reveals no pain or neurologic findings. The lumbar curve measures 59 degrees and the thoracic curve measures 52 degrees.The most appropriate treatment is





Explanation

Question 3

Biomechanical in vitro studies of double-row anchor fixation of rotator cuff tears show what initial advantage over single-row anchor fixation? Review Topic





Explanation

Biomechanical in vitro studies of double-row fixation of rotator cuff tears during cyclic loading and tensile loading to failure have demonstrated that double-row fixation results in a higher ultimate tensile load when compared to single-row fixation. Peak-to-peak elongation, stiffness, and conditioning elongation for double-row fixation were all similar to single-row fixation. These initial findings, however, may or may not lead to improved clinical outcomes.

Question 4

Which of the following factors is associated with improved outcomes following surgery for hip fractures?





Explanation

Many studies have looked at patient outcomes following hip fracture surgery. While early surgery in these patients is recommended, medical optimization prior to surgical intervention is warranted in all cases. Anesthetic type and discharge status have not been proven to alter patient outcomes. Total hip arthroplasty has improved function at 1 year compared with hemiarthroplasty; no changes in mortality have been reported.

Question 5

Figure 1 is the right hand of a 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and rheumatoid arthritis. He is taking immunosuppressive disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) and is seen in the emergency department with rapid progression of erythema from his right thumb to his right arm during the last 12 hours. He is confused, lethargic, and has these vital signs: blood pressure 92/40, respiratory rate 45, temperature 39.7°C, pulse 135, and oxygen saturation 90% on 4 liters of oxygen by face mask. An examination of his right upper extremity reveals black bulla extending from the metacarpophalangeal down to the tip and no capillary refill at the pulp. Immediate treatment should consist of




Explanation

EXPLANATION:
This patient has multiple criteria for necrotizing soft-tissue infection (NSTI, also known as necrotizing fasciitis) including rapidly progressive infection, black bulla, hypotension and hypoxia, and a history of immune compromise. Aggressive emergent debridement including the removal of all necrotic tissue and IV antibiotics can decrease morbidity and mortality. Not all patients will have such obvious NSTI findings. In less clear cases, a scoring system using laboratory values (the Laboratory Risk Indicator for Necrotizing Fasciitis) can help clarify the diagnosis. IV antibiotics are key to treatment as well, but any delay in surgical treatment can increase morbidity and mortality. The black bulla and necrotic-appearing thumb indicate that this infection is not confined to the flexor sheath, therefore irrigation of the tendon sheath alone would be insufficient treatment. Although the thumb is dysvascular, this is because of an infection, and revascularization is not indicated.                     

Question 6

A patient sustained a puncture wound to the plantar aspect of his foot. He was wearing shoes and socks at the time of the injury. Systemic antibiotic administration with specific coverage for which bacterial species (in addition to Staphylococcus aureus) should be instituted?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Puncture wounds sustained through a shoe and sock increase risk for Pseudomonas infection. Clostridium are associated with soil-contaminated wounds. Mycobacterium marinum is associated with injuries sustained within water.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
DeCoster TA, Miller RA. Management of Traumatic Foot Wounds. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 1994 Jul;2(4):226-230. PubMed PMID: 10709013. View Abstract at PubMed
Raikin SM. Common infections of the foot. In: Richardson EG, ed. Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL: American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons; 2004:199-205.

Question 7

He is intubated and being resuscitated. The calf is very swollen with compartment pressures: anterior 25 mm Hg, lateral 24 mm Hg, deep posterior 21 mm Hg, and





Explanation

A compartment syndrome is best diagnosed with a "deltaP" (diastolic pressure minus compartment pressure) of less than or equal to 30 mm Hg. This patient is hypotensive and the "deltaPs" are all less than 30 mm Hg. Emergent fasciotomy is the preferred treatment.

Question 8

Which of the following is most important to acheive a good outcome following a Syme amputation?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: A Syme amputation is effectively a tibiotalar disarticulation, which provides an end-bearing stump that could potentially allow ambulation without a prosthesis over short distances. It works better for tumor and trauma, but the heel pad must be viable. The two most common problems are 1) skin sloughing from compromised vascular supply and 2) migration of the heel pad due to instability. A hypermobile heel pad can cause difficulty with prosthesis wear and damage to the soft tissues which can eventually lead to failure. Both malleoli are usually removed in the procedure, except in children or during the first stage procedure of a diabetic or infection case. The tibialis anterior is usually tenodesed to the anterior heel pad along with the EDL tendon to avoid posterior migration of the heel pad.

Question 9

A 2-year-old girl was born with the toe deformity shown in Figure 2. She has difficulty wearing shoes despite having adequate room in the toe box. Management at this time should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a congenital curly toe deformity of the third toe, and tenotomy of the toe flexors is highly effective for this problem.  Stretching and taping are ineffective for this deformity.  The position of the second toe is secondary; therefore, procedures on that toe are unnecessary and ineffective.  The flexor to extensor transfer is a more complicated procedure that produces negligible results, or may even worsen the deformity.  Resection arthroplasty is contraindicated because it causes abnormal growth of the toes.
REFERENCES: Hamer AJ, Stanley D, Smith TW: Surgery for curly toe deformity:  A double-blind, randomized, prospective trial.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1993;75:662-663.
Ross ER, Menelaus MB: Open flexor tenotomy for hammer toes and curly toes in childhood.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1984;66:770-771.
Sullivan JA: The child’s foot, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds):  Lovell & Winter’s Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 4.  Philadelphia, Pa, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 1077-1135.


Question 10

A 5-year-old girl sustains an isolated injury to the right shoulder area after falling off the monkey bars. Examination reveals intact neurovascular function in the extremity distally, but she is quite uncomfortable. An AP radiograph of the proximal humerus is shown in Figure 24. Her parents state that she is a very talented gymnast. Considering her age and potential athletic career, management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In this age group, bayonet apposition can produce very good results.  Healing occurs rapidly, and remodeling usually is complete in less than 1 year.  All of the other methods have significant risks of complications and are unnecessary for this fracture.
REFERENCES: Martin RF: Fractures of the proximal humerus and humeral shaft, in Letts RM (ed): Management of Pediatric Fractures.  New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1994,

pp 144-148.

Sanders JO, Rockwood CA Jr, Curtis RJ: Fractures and dislocation of the humeral shaft and shoulder, in Rockwood CA Jr, Wilkins KE, Beaty JH (eds): Fractures in Children, ed 4.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, vol 3, pp 937-939.

Question 11

A 25-year-old woman returns for her first postoperative visit after arthroscopic thermal capsulorrhaphy for recurrent multidirectional instability. Examination reveals that the portals are healed, there is no swelling; and passive range of motion is within the normal range. However, she is unable to actively raise her arm. Shoulder radiographs are normal. What is the most likely cause of these findings?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Treatment of shoulder instability with thermal devices has lead to numerous complications including recurrent instability, chondrolysis, stiffness, and capsular necrosis.  This patient’s findings are consistent with a heat-induced axillary nerve injury.  Normal radiographs exclude extensive chondrolysis. 
REFERENCES: Levine WN, Bigliani LU, Ahmad CS: Thermal capsulorrhaphy.  Orthopedics 2004;27:823-826.
McCarty EC, Warren RF, Deng XH, et al: Temperature along the axillary nerve during radiofrequency-induced thermal shrinkage.  Am J Sports Med 2004;32:909-914.

Question 12

Figures 9a and 9b show the radiographs of a 4-year-old child who sustained an elbow injury. What is the most likely complication resulting from this fracture if treated in a cast?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show a lateral condyle fracture with 2 mm of displacement.  As opposed to other pediatric elbow fractures, lateral condyle fractures have a higher incidence of nonunion.  This may be due to minimal metaphyseal bone on the distal fragment, the intra-articular nature of the fracture, or from further displacement when treated nonsurgically.  These fractures with 2 mm and greater of displacement should be treated with reduction and stabilization.  Osteonecrosis and fishtail deformity may be seen in very rare cases of lateral condyle fractures.  The incidence is certainly less than the rates of nonunion seen in nonsurgically treated fractures with 2 mm and greater of displacement.  Varus malunion from overgrowth and elbow stiffness are more likely seen in fractures treated surgically.
REFERENCES: Pirker ME, Weinberg AM, Hollwarth ME, et al: Subsequent displacement of initially nondisplaced and minimally displaced fractures of the lateral humeral condyle in children.  J Trauma 2005;58:1202-1207.
Finnbogason T, Karlsson G, Lindberg L, et al: Nondisplaced and minimally displaced fractures of the lateral humeral condyle in children: A prospective radiographic investigation of fracture stability.  J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:422-425.
Flynn JC: Nonunion of slightly displaced fractures of the lateral humeral condyle in children: An update.  J Pediatr Orthop 1989;9:691-696.

Question 13

A patient presenting with scapulothoracic dissocation and ipsilateral extremity neurologic injury is most likely to have which of the following outcomes?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Scapulothoracic dissociation is a high-energy injury resulting from massive traction injury to the shoulder girdle with disruption of the scapulothoracic articulation. The most common long term result from this injury is complete loss of motor and sensory function of the extremity (flail limb), with death in the acute or semi-acute period also common.
The referenced study by Althausen et al found that outcomes from this injury were: a flail extremity in 52%, early amputation in 21%, and death in 10%.
The other referenced study by Ebraheim et al found that 12/15 patients had a complete brachial plexus injury and that none recovered any function (the other 3 patients died in the acute period).

Question 14

A 10-year-old boy has a painful, swollen knee after falling off his bicycle. Examination reveals that the knee is held in 45 degrees of flexion, and any attempt to actively or passively extend the knee produces pain and muscle spasms. A lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 4. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: This is a typical patellar sleeve fracture.  The patellar tendon avulses a portion of the distal bony patella, along with the retinaculum and articular cartilage from the inferior pole of the patella.  It is common in children between ages 8 and 10 years.  Anatomic reduction and repair of the extensor mechanism are mandatory to reestablish full knee extension.
REFERENCES: Houghton GR, Ackroyd CE: Sleeve fractures of the patella in children: A report of three cases.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1979;61:165-168.
Wu CD, Huang SC, Liu TK: Sleeve fracture of the patella in children: A report of five cases.  Am J Sports Med 1991;19:525-528.

Question 15

The condition seen in Figure 60 is attributable to




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Cephallomedullary implants for treatment of proximal femur fractures have gained in popularity over the last decade. Although these implants have improved outcomes for certain fracture types, multiple complications are associated with this implant. Failure may occur secondary to implant design (for example, mismatch of curvature of the nail to the femur, which can result in distal anterior cortical perforation).
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Bazylewicz DB, Egol KA, Koval KJ. Cortical encroachment after cephalomedullary nailing of the proximal femur: evaluation of a more anatomic radius of curvature. J Orthop Trauma. 2013 Jun;27(6):303-7. doi: 10.1097/BOT.0b013e318283f24f. PubMed PMID: 23287752.
View Abstract at PubMed
Parker MJ, Handoll HH. Gamma and other cephalocondylic intramedullary nails versus extramedullary implants for extracapsular hip fractures in adults. Cochrane Database Syst Rev. 2008 Jul 16;(3):CD000093. doi: 10.1002/14651858.CD000093.pub4. Review. Update
in: Cochrane Database Syst Rev. 2010;(9):CD000093. PubMed PMID: 18646058. View Abstract at PubMed

Question 16

A patient underwent a right hip arthroscopy, CAM resection, and labral repair while positioned supine on a fracture table with a perineal post. The leg was in traction for 4 hours, and no intrasurgical complications were noted. At the 2-week follow-up appointment, the patient was experiencing numbness and tingling in the perineum on the surgical side and noted pain predominantly while sitting. What is the likely cause of these symptoms?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Although all of these responses are known complications related to hip arthroscopy, the symptoms of perineal numbness and pain associated with prolonged traction time indicate a compression injury to the pudendal nerve against the perineal post used to provide counter traction. Perineal numbness usually occurs on the surgical side, with pain in the area of the anus to the penis/clitoris. Pain is predominantly experienced while sitting, but is relieved when sitting on a toilet. Pain can be relieved with a diagnostic pudendal nerve block. This injury is not unique to hip arthroscopy; it also is described in the trauma literature. To prevent compression-type injuries, a well-padded post larger than 9 cm in diameter should be positioned against the medial thigh. Traction force should be kept to a minimum and the
extremity positioned in slight abduction. Continuous traction time should not exceed 2 hours, with intermittent traction used during prolonged procedures.

Question 17

An injury to the axillary nerve would result in deltoid muscle weakness. 5 . An injury to the thoracodorsal nerve would result in latissimus dorsi weakness and would not cause scapular winging.


Explanation

The medial ulnar collateral ligament is subjected to the greatest tensile stress during the late cocking/early acceleration phase of throwing.
The medial ulnar collateral ligament, or medial collateral ligament of the elbow, is composed of three bundles: an anterior bundle, a posterior bundle, and a variable
transverse oblique bundle. During late cocking and early acceleration phases of the overhead throw, the medial UCL is subjected to the greatest amount of valgus stress to the elbow. During this phase, the forearm lags behind the upper arm and generates valgus stress while the elbow is primarily dependent on the anterior band of the UCL for stability. This puts the ligament at greatest risk of injury during this phase.
Fleisig et al. examined the kinetics of baseball pitching and the implications on injury mechanisms. They showed that the UCL contributes to 54% of the varus torque that is generated during the early acceleration of throwing. The position of greatest load occurred when the arm was flexed to 95 +/14 degrees with an applied valgus load.
Illustration A shows a diagram of the medial ulnar collateral ligament ligament bundles. Incorrect Answers:

A 14-year-old elite basketball player develops acute medial elbow pain after a fall. Physical examination reveals medial elbow tenderness over the submlime tubercle, but full range of motion. The provocative tests seen in Figure A exacerbate his elbow pain. Radiographs of the elbow are normal. What would be the next best step in treatment?

Supervised elbow stretching program Therapeutic elbow arthroscopy

Static elbow external fixation for 3 to 6 weeks, then MR arthrography if pain continues Activity avoidance for 6 weeks

Serial inflammatory markers and rheumatology referral
Figure A shows a moving valgus stress, which is a provocative test for ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injury and elbow valgus instability. The initial treatment would be a short period of immobilization, rest and flexor pronator strengthening in this patient population.
Adolescent UCL injuries can be effectively treated with a short period of rest and NSAIDs to control pain. As the acute inflammation resolves, the patient can be started on a supervised therapy program. This should target flexor pronator muscles, as they are important secondary dynamic stabilizers of valgus stress. Once symptoms have improved and the athlete has regained full range of motion and strength, a mediated throwing program may be initiated. Throwing athletes should be educated to avoid provocative activities during this period.
Chen et al. wrote a JAAOS article on shoulder and elbow injuries in the skeletally immature athlete. They state that surgery is reserved for older athletes with persistent valgus instability despite > 6 months of non-surgical management.
Murthi et al. reviewed recurrent elbow instability. They state the anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament complex is the primary valgus stabilizer of the elbow. The anterior band is taut for the first 60° of elbow flexion, and the posterior band is taut from 60° to 120° of flexion. The secondary valgus stabilizers of the elbow joint include the radial head, the anterior and posterior aspects of the capsule, and the muscular forces around the joint.
Figure A is showing a moving valgus stress. Illustration A shows provocative tests for valgus instability of the elbow. The image on the left shows a valgus stress test. This assesses the anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament complex by flexing the elbow to 25-30 degrees and applying a valgus load across the elbow. The image on the right shows milking maneuver. This assesses the posterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament complex by pulling on the

beyond 90°. Incorrect Answers:

A young, healthy male undergoes a distal biceps repair and sustains an iatrogenic nerve injury during the procedure. Which of the following clinical findings are most likely to be seen in this circumstance? Inability to extend the thumb

Lateral volar forearm numbness Inability to flex the middle finger Medial volar forearm numbness Dorsal thumb numbness
The most commonly injured nerve during a distal biceps repair is the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN). Injury to this nerve would result in lateral volar forearm numbness.
Distal biceps avulsions can be partial or complete. Indications for surgical management include young, healthy patients who do not wish to sacrifice function, as well as partial biceps avulsions that do not respond to conservative management. Repair of a distal biceps avulsion can be approached through either an anterior one-incision technique or a two-incision technique (BoydAnderson). The one-incision technique uses the interval between the brachioradialis (radial nerve) and pronator teres (median nerve), while the two-incision technique uses this same interval in addition to a second posterolateral elbow incision. The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve is the most common nerve injured during either approach.
Kelly et al. retrospectively reviewed 74 distal biceps tendon repairs, and found five sensory nerve paresthesias. The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve was most commonly injured, followed by the superficial radial nerve.
Cain et al. retrospectively reviewed 198 distal biceps tendon repairs, and found a 36% complication rate. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve paresthesias were found in 26%, while radial sensory nerve paresthesias were found in 6%, and posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) injury in 4%.
Illustration A shows the close relationship between the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) and the distal biceps. Illustration B shows the sensory nerves of the upper extremity and their respective areas of innervation.
Incorrect Answers:

A 33-year-old female presents with left shoulder weakness. Two weeks prior to presentation, the patient experienced sudden-onset, left shoulder pain, which occurred a few days after receiving the influenza vaccine. The pain subsided over the next day, followed by gradual weakness of her shoulder and eventual general disuse of her left upper extremity. An initial visit to her primary care provider resulted in the recommendation of observation. On physical exam, there is weakness and gross atrophy of the shoulder girdle. Figures A & exhibit T2-weighted MRI images of her left shoulder. To further confirm her suspected diagnosis, she is sent for electromyography.
What is the expected result?

Normal results
Fibrillation potentials consistent with compression at the spinoglenoid notch 3 . Sharp waves and fibrillations potentials associated with the deltoid and biceps

Acute denervation of both peripheral nerve and nerve root distribution with sharp waves and fibrillation potentials

Early reinnervation with polyphasic motor unit potentials
This patient has Parsonage-Turner Syndrome, which, when tested on EMG during the first 3 weeks, exhibits acute denervation of both peripheral nerve and nerve root distributions with positive sharp waves and fibrillation potentials.
Parsonage-Turner Syndrome is an idiopathic disorder with an etiology that is still unknown. Typical antecedent events can involve a viral illness, recent immunization, or elective surgery. Clinical presentation is usually initiated by acute onset shoulder pain, which quickly subsides and is followed by gradual weakness. Early MRI exhibits edema in the effected muscles, and fatty infiltration in later stages. Treatment is typically non-operative, and resolution can be seen as early as 6 weeks from onset.
Tjoumakaris et al. provide a thorough review of the diagnosis and management of ParsonageTurner Syndrome. The authors report the usefulness of MRI, which exhibits early edema and later fatty infiltration in the affected muscles, and urge the use of EMG as a confirmatory diagnostic measure as well as a monitoring tool to track resolution. Early identification and diagnosis may be treated with a short course of steroids, which may help shorten symptoms.
Stutz et al. concisely summarize Parsonage-Turner Syndrome and provide typical presentation, diagnosis and management principles. The authors note the common association with viral illness and/or recent immunization along with the importance of obtaining a baseline chest radiograph to rule out a compressive Pancoast tumor. Management is typically supportive with eventual resolution.
Figures A, B, and C are T2-weighted coronal, sagittal, and axial cuts of the shoulder girdle with associated edema in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus typically seen in Parsonage-Turner Syndrome.
Incorrect answers:
A total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA) would be the most appropriate treatment in which of the following arthritic patients?



Question 18

A 40-year-old woman sustains a flexion injury to her neck. Physical examination is normal. A lateral radiograph of the cervical spine is shown in Figure 57a. MRI scans of the cervical spine are shown in Figures 57b and 57c. Treatment should include





Explanation

DISCUSSION: This is a classic bilateral facet dislocation.  When there is no evidence of a disk herniation, treatment should include careful skeletal traction, closed reduction, and posterior fusion.  There is no role for anterior procedures.  These fractures are unstable and require surgical intervention. 
REFERENCES: Herkowitz HN, Garfin SR, Eismont FJ: Rothman-Simone The Spine, ed 5.  Philadelphia, PA, Saunders Elsevier, 2006, pp 1120-1128.
Coe JD, Warden KE, Sutterlin CE, et al: Biomechanical evaluation of cervical spinal stabilization methods in a human cadaveric model.  Spine 1989;14:1122-1131.

Question 19

Figures 29a and 29b show the radiograph and CT scan of a 48-year-old man who has diffuse spinal pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The studies show marginal syndesmophyte formation characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis.  These patients typically have diffuse ossification of the disk space without large osteophyte formation.  DISH typically presents with large osteophytes, referred to as nonmarginal syndesmophytes.  In this patient, the zygoapophyseal joints are fused rather than degenerative as would be seen in rheumatoid arthritis, and the costovertebral joints are also fused. Osteopetrosis does not normally ankylose the disk space.
REFERENCES: McCullough JA, Transfeldt EE: Macnab’s Backache, ed 3.  Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1997, pp 190-194.
Frymoyer JW, Wiesel SW (eds):  The Adult and Pediatric Spine, ed 3.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, Williams and Wilkins, 2003, pp 141-151.

Question 20

What adaptations occur in the dominant shoulder of throwers compared to their nondominant shoulder? Review Topic





Explanation

Pitchers change rotation during adolescent growth with external rotation of the proximal humerus. The result is increased external rotation and decreased internal rotation, resulting in a normal total arc of motion. External rotation lengthens the arc of acceleration, resulting in increased velocity. The shorter arc of internal rotation, associated with a tight posterior capsule, makes deceleration of the arm more difficult, which may lead to overuse injuries.

Question 21

Compared with surgically treated patients, patients with extra-articular distal third humeral shaft fractures that are treated nonsurgically with functional bracing can be expected to show which of the following findings?





Explanation

In a retrospective review of patients with extra-articular distal humeral shaft fractures treated surgically versus nonsurgically, the authors found that the amount of motion loss was not different between the treatment groups. Of 21 patients in the nonsurgical group, one lost 20 degrees of extension, one lost 30 degrees of extension, and one patient lost 15 degrees of flexion. Of the 19 patients in the surgical group, two patients lost 5 degrees of extension, and one each lost 10, 15, and 20 degrees of extension, respectively. One patient lost 5 degrees of flexion and one lost 15 degrees of flexion. The average loss of motion in the surgical group was 3 degrees, compared with 6 degrees in the nonsurgical group, but this difference was not significant. One hundred percent of the nonsurgically treated fractures healed. Both groups of patients regained shoulder motion within 10 degrees of normal. In the nonsurgically treated group, 10 healed with less than 10 degrees of malalignment, 6 healed with 11 to 20 degrees of malalignment, and three healed with greater than 30 degrees of malalignment, but the authors did not report any functional problems due to these deformities.

Question 22

All of the following conditions are associated with the female athlete triad EXCEPT? Review Topic





Explanation

All of the following listed are associated with the female athlete triad except for Low LDL cholesterol levels. In fact, these patients often have elevated levels of LDL due to the hypoestrogenism caused by menstrual dysfunction.
The female athlete triad is an interrelationship of menstrual dysfunction (i.e., amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea), low energy availability (insufficient caloric intake for demand, with or without an eating disorder) and decreased bone mineral density. It is relatively common among young women participating in sports. More recently, it has been suggested that endothelial dysfunction also results, due to an imbalance between vasodilating and vasoconstricting agents triggered from inappropirate levels of nitric oxide on the microscopic level, which predisposes these women to atherosclerotic changes and increases their risk of cardiovascular disease in the future.
Matheson et al. analyzed cases of 320 athletes with bone scan-positive stress fractures (M = 145, F = 175) seen over 3.5 years and assessed the results of conservative management. They found that conservative treatment of stress fractures in athletes is satisfactory in the majority of cases.
Constantini et al. evaluated the prevalence of vitamin D insufficiency and deficiency among young athletes and dancers. They found a higher rate of vitamin D insufficiency among participants who practice indoors, during the winter months, and in the presence of iron depletion.
Nazem et al. reviewed the major components and health consequences of the female athlete triad as well as strategies for diagnosis and treatment of the conditions. They concluded that treatment requires a multidisciplinary approach involving health care professionals as well as coaches and family members.
Yagi et al. followed 230 runners participating in high school running teams for a total of 3 years to report occurrence of medial tibial stress syndrome (MTSS) and stress fracture. Predictors of MTSS and stress fracture were investigated. The authors reported a significant relationship between BMI, internal hip rotation angle and MTSS infemales.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 23

A 12-year-old boy reports limping and chronic knee pain that is now inhibiting his ability to participate in sports. Clinical examination and radiographs of the knee are normal. Additional evaluation should include Review Topic





Explanation

While all of the answers may be appropriate, radiating pain from hip pathology must be excluded. At this age, a slipped capital femoral epiphysis is likely. Therefore, the hip must be examined.

Question 24

Which of the following patient factors is associated with recurrent radicular pain following lumbar diskectomy for sciatica?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: A large annular defect at the site of a lumbar disk herniation is associated with persistent radicular pain postoperatively.  Large sequestered herniations and a positive SLR preoperatively correlate with good outcomes after diskectomy.  Neither symptoms of more than 3 months’ duration nor preoperative epidural steroid injections correlate with postoperative results after diskectomy.
REFERENCES: Carragee EJ, Han MY, Suen PW, et al: Clinical outcomes after lumbar discectomy for sciatica: The effects of fragment type and anular competence.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:102-108.
Fardon DF, Garfin SR, Abitbol J, et al (eds): Orthopedic Knowledge Update Spine 2.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 323-332.

Question 25

A 19-year-old football player is taken off the field because of fatigue. Examination reveals a rash shown in Figure A. Oral examination reveals findings shown in Figure B. Posterior cervical glands are palpable. A mass is palpable in the left upper quadrant. Which of the following is true regarding the most likely diagnosis? Review Topic





Explanation

This patient has infectious mononucleosis (IM). Return to play should occur 3 weeks after symptom resolution.
IM is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Annual incidence is 1-3% in college freshmen. It is characterized by Hoagland's triad (fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy). Some have rash and splenomegaly. Splenic rupture is rare (0.1-0.2% of patients). It is caused by sudden increase in portal venous pressure from a simple Valsalva maneuver or from external trauma. The risk of rupture is highest in the first 3 weeks of illness.
Putukian et al. reviewed IM and athletic participation. They recommend return to LIGHT activity after 3 weeks from symptom onset when the athlete is afebrile, has a good energy level, and does not have any significant associated abnormalities. They recommend returning to CONTACT sports after at least 3 weeks when the athlete has no remaining clinical symptoms, is afebrile, and has a normal energy level.
Jaworski et al. discussed infectious diseases in athletes. They state that splenic rupture occurs because of lymphocytic infiltration that distorts the support structure of the spleen, leading to fragility. They recommend return to light, non-contact activities once the athlete is afebrile and appropriately hydrated, fatigue has improved, and a minimum period of 3 weeks has passed from symptom onset.
Figure A shows a petechial rash, which can be seen in IM. Amoxicillin increases the risk of rash. Figure B shows unilateral exudative pharyngitis. The left tonsil is
covered
by
a
white
exudate/pseudomembrane.
Incorrect

Question 26

It is important to avoid which of the following exercises in the immediate postoperative period after humeral head replacement for an acute four-part fracture?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: It is critical to withhold active range of motion of the shoulder within the first 6 weeks after arthroplasty for acute fracture to prevent tuberosity avulsion.  When radiographic and clinical findings show that the tuberosities are healed, active motion may be instituted, usually at 6 to 8 weeks.  Immediate passive range-of-motion exercises, including external rotation with a stick, pendulum, and passive elevation, should begin within the limits of the repair on the day of surgery to prevent stiffness.
REFERENCES: Hartstock LA, Estes WJ, Murray CA, et al: Shoulder hemiarthroplasty for proximal humerus fractures. Orthop Clin North Am 1998;29:467-475.
Hughes M, Neer CS: Glenohumeral joint replacment and postoperative rehabilitation.  Phys Ther 1975;55:850-858.

Question 27

A 24-year-old dancer reports posterior ankle pain when in the “en pointe” position. Examination reveals posteromedial tenderness, no pain reproduction with passive forced planter flexion, and pain with motion of the hallux. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Flexor hallucis longus tendinitis is a common cause of posterior ankle pain in dancers.  It tends to be more posteromedial and is characterized by a clicking or catching sensation posteromedially with motion of the great toe.  A painful os trigonum typically causes more posterolateral ankle pain and may occur after an ankle sprain or plantar flexion injury where there may be a fracture of the os trigonum.
REFERENCES: Garrick JG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine 3.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 249-261.
Hamilton WG, Geppert MJ, Thompson FM: Pain in the posterior aspect of the ankle in dancers: Differential diagnosis and operative treatment.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1491-1500.

Question 28

One year after undergoing anterior cervical decompression and fusion, what percentage of patients still have dysphagia?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Dysphagia after anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion is a common, usually transient finding after anterior cervical approaches to the spine. While it has been reported to occur in up to 70% of patients 2 weeks following surgery, in most cases the symptoms quickly resolve. There is, however, a small subset of patients for whom symptoms of dysphagia will persist. Lee and associates prospectively studied the rate of dysphagia after anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion, reporting a 15% rate of dysphagia at 12 months, and 12% at 24 months. Phillips and associates analyzed the 2-year data from the PCM FDE clinical trial and found a 12.1% incidence of dysphagia in the ACDF arm.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Lee MJ, Bazaz R, Furey CG, Yoo J. Risk factors for dysphagia after anterior cervical spine surgery: a two-year prospective cohort study. Spine J. 2007 Mar-Apr;7(2):141-7. Epub 2007 Jan 22. PubMed PMID: 17321961. View Abstract at PubMed
Smith-Hammond CA, New KC, Pietrobon R, Curtis DJ, Scharver CH, Turner DA. Prospective analysis of incidence and risk factors of dysphagia in spine surgery patients: comparison of anterior cervical, posterior cervical, and lumbar procedures. Spine (Phila Pa 1976). 2004 Jul 1;29(13):1441-6. PubMed PMID: 15223936. View Abstract at PubMed
Edwards CC 2nd, Karpitskaya Y, Cha C, Heller JG, Lauryssen C, Yoon ST, Riew KD. Accurate identification of adverse outcomes after cervical spine surgery. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2004 Feb;86-A(2):251-6. PubMed PMID: 14960668. View Abstract at PubMed
Phillips FM, Lee JY, Geisler FH, Cappuccino A, Chaput CD, DeVine JG, Reah C, Gilder KM, Howell KM, McAfee PC. A prospective, randomized, controlled clinical investigation comparing PCM cervical disc arthroplasty with anterior cervical discectomy and fusion. 2-year results from the US FDA IDE clinical trial. Spine (Phila Pa 1976). 2013 Jul 1;38(15):E907-18. doi: 10.1097/BRS.0b013e318296232f.
Rihn JA, Kane J, Albert TJ, Vaccaro AR, Hilibrand AS. What is the incidence and severity of dysphagia after anterior cervical surgery? Clin Orthop Relat Res. 2011 Mar;469(3):658-65. PMID: 21140251.View Abstract at PubMed

Question 29

Mechanical reduction of the pain associated with the condition shown in Figure 6 can be accomplished through the use of a cane on the contralateral side. Similarly, if this patient must carry any type of load in his or her arms, it should be carried





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Patients with diseased hips often must carry objects while walking, yet they are rarely instructed on which hand to use.  The patient should be directed to carry the object on the ipsilateral side, just the opposite of the side he or she would use a cane.  The cane pushes up on the weight of the body so that when the patient is carrying a load, the weight in the hand on the same side as the hip pushes up on the weight of the body, but now the patient has the fulcrum of the hip in between.  Tan and associates mathematically determined the hip forces that result when a load is carried in the ipsilateral hand versus the contralateral hand.  Using a free-body diagram of a single-leg supported stance, they found that when a load was carried in the contralateral hand, the resultant forces on the hip were increased considerably.  Conversely, when the weight was carried in the ipsilateral hand, the forces were actually lower than when no weight was carried at all.  Therefore, carrying a weight on the opposite side resulted in hip forces that were substantially greater than when the weight was carried on the same side.
REFERENCE: Tan V, Klotz MJ, Greenwald AS, Steinberg ME: Carry it on the bad side!  Am J Orthop 1998;27:673-677.

Question 30

What is the most common cause for late revision (> 2 years post op) total knee arthroplasty? i. Infection




Explanation

DISCUSSION: There are multiple causes for failure of total knee arthroplasty, and more than one may exist at the same time. Sharkey and associates reviewed a series of revision total knee arthroplasties, and found that polyethylene failure was the most common cause of failure followed closely by component loosening. The most common cause of early failure (< 2 years post op) was infection. Instability and malalignment are both complications of surgical technique, and if these categories are combined, they would be the most common cause of all total knee failures.
REFERENCE: Sharkey PF, Hozack WJ, Rothman RH, et al: Insall Award paper: Why are total knee arthroplasties failing today? Clin Orthop Relat Res 2002;404:7-13.

Figure 59a Figure 59b

Question 31

The initiating cellular event in development of posttraumatic osteoarthritis is attributed to which of the following?




Explanation

A relatively large percentage of patients sustaining intra-articular fractures develop posttraumatic arthritis despite surgical restoration of joint incongruity and alignment. Fracture-related chondrocyte death (apoptosis) concentrated along matrix cracks in the superficial layer of cartilage has been linked to the pathogenesis of posttraumatic osteoarthritis. Apoptosis is accentuated by a series of aspartate-specific cysteine proteases. Inhibition of this cascade is a target of emerging pharmacological treatment options.

Question 32

Familial (Leiden) thrombophilia is of importance in joint arthroplasty because of an abnormality in the clotting cascade. Which of the following statements best describes the condition?





Explanation

Factor V Leiden is a disease caused by an abnormality of factor V in which a single amino acid substitution of glutamine for arginine in the protein C cleavage region leads to decreased inactivation of factor V and thus a greater tendency to form clots. More than half of all individuals with Factor V Leiden will develop deep venous thrombosis in the presence of a single additional risk factor such as long bone fracture or total joint arthroplasty.

Question 33

Figures 1 and 2 show the radiographs obtained from a 68-year-old morbidly obese man who underwent left total hip replacement 7 years ago and did well, with no symptoms prior to the current presentation. He recently rose from a seated position and felt a pop in the hip, with immediate pain and inability to bear weight. Any pressure on the left foot now produces a painful, grinding sensation with loss of left hip stability. What is the best next step?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
The modular femoral stem has fractured. Changing the liner to a constrained design is not warranted at this time based on the information provided. Revision of the acetabular implant is appropriate because of the potential for damage to the existing cup from metal debris and femoral implant contact and to convert from a metal-on-metal articulation. Nonsurgical management would not provide pain relief or improvement; revision of the total hip arthroplasty is recommended. The implant failed in a short time, and retention of the femoral stem is not recommended because of the concern for failure with only a neck exchange. A dual-mobility bearing may be a good option if the surgeon plans to retain the acetabular component. Extended trochanteric osteotomy is a useful technique for the removal of a well-fixed femoral implant. In this patient, femoral stem removal without
osteotomy would be difficult due to the fracture of the implant’s femoral neck and the inability to gain purchase for extraction.

Question 34

A 51-year-old male truck driver has had progressive left hip pain for more than 2 years, and he reports that the pain has become severe in the past 9 months. He is now unable to work because of the pain. Examination reveals that range of motion of the hip is limited to 95 degrees of flexion, 0 degrees of internal rotation, and 20 degrees of external rotation. The plain radiograph, MRI scan, and intraoperative gross photographs are shown in Figures 9a through 9d. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The diagnosis is synovial chondromatosis.  While the plain radiograph fails to show any calcifications, the MRI scan shows an intra-articular mass that involves the capsule.  Grossly multiple granular cartilage nodules are seen.  Management should consist of removing all loose bodies along with the synovial membrane. 
REFERENCE: Milgram JM: Synovial osteochondromatosis: A histopathological study of thirty cases.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1977;59:792-801. 

Question 35

A 25-year-old patient presents with a posterior wall/ posterior column acetabular fracture. She is scheduled for open reduction internal fixation through a posterior approach. What position of the leg exerts the least amount of intraneural pressure on the sciatic nerve?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In the cited study, researchers measured tissue fluid pressure within the sciatic nerve in cadaveric specimens using a pressure transducer. The hip and knee were taken through a combination of ranges and found that the clinically relevant increase in pressure happened with the hip flexed at 90 degrees and the knee fully extended. They concluded that increased intraneural pressure was related to excursion of the nerve as linear distance between the greater sciatic notch and the distal leg increase. Hence, according to the question stem, to avoid traction injury, the reverse position should be implemented (hip extension and knee flexion).

Question 36

Figures 21a through 21c show the MRI scans of a 21-year-old football player who sustained a valgus knee injury while changing direction. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness along the medial aspect of the knee. There is a positive Lachman test, 3+ valgus laxity at 30 degrees, and 1+ valgus laxity at 0 degrees extension. The anterior drawer test is increased with the tibia in external rotation. The increase in the anterior drawer test with the tibia in external rotation is most likely the result of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The injury mechanism involves a valgus load applied to the knee with the foot in external rotation.  The primary stabilizer to valgus laxity is the medial collateral ligament.  The secondary restraints to valgus rotation are the cruciate ligaments.  Examination indicates disruption of the medial collateral and anterior cruciate ligaments.  Valgus opening in extension should also arouse suspicion for an injury to the posterior cruciate ligament; however, in this patient, the valgus opening in extension is mild.  The slight opening in extension and the increased anterior drawer, especially with external rotation, indicates disruption of the posteromedial capsule and posterior oblique ligament.  Figure 21a shows complete disruption of the superficial and deep medial collateral ligaments involving the meniscofemoral ligament.  Figure 21b shows a more posterior coronal section with a torn posterior oblique ligament.  Figure 21c shows disruption of the anterior cruciate ligament, while the posterior cruciate ligament at the tibial insertion appears with a homogenous normal signal.
REFERENCES: Warren LA, Marshall JL, Girgis F: The prime static stabilizer of the medial side of the knee.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1974;56:665-674.
Indelicato PA: Injury to the medial capsuloligamentous complex of the knee, in Feagin J (ed): The Crucial Ligaments, ed 2. 1994, pp 351-360.

Question 37

A 68-year-old male presents with gait instability, clumsiness of the hands, and the MRI images shown in Figure A. You decide to proceed with surgical decompression. When planning your surgical treatment, it is important to note that compared to a posterior approach, the anterior procedure has: Review Topic





Explanation

Surgical decompression of cervical myelopathy via an anterior procedure has lower reported blood loss compared to a posterior procedure.
Cervical myelopathy has a progressive course and therefore if there is evidence of functional impairment surgical decompression is indicated. Either an anterior decompression or posterior decompression can be used depending on a variety of factors including number of levels involved and sagittal alignment of the cervical spine. In general, a posterior approach is used when three or more levels are involved and the spine is in neutral or lordotic alignment.
Fehlings et al. did a prospective study on the risks of complications associated with surgical treatment of cervical myelopathy. They found that combined anterior and posterior procedures had a significantly higher rate of complication than either anterior-only or posterior-only procedures. Posterior procedures had a higher rate of wound infections compared to anterior. They found no statistical difference in the over-all complication rate, incidence of C5 radiculopathy, or dysphagia between an anterior-only or posterior-only procedure.
Fehlings et al. did a prospective study on outcomes following surgical treatment of cervical myelopathy. At one year follow-up they found a significant improvement in mJOA score, Nurick grade, NDI score, and all SF-36v2 dimensions. With the exception of mJOA scores, these improvements were not statistically related to severity of disease.
Liu et al. performed a meta-analysis of outcomes following surgical decompression of cervical myelopathy. They found outcomes following anterior procedures were better than those for posterior procedures when there were less than 3 affected levels. With 3 or greater levels, no statistical difference in outcomes could be found between the two approaches. They note none of their reviewed publications represent high-quality prospective randomized trials.
Figure A is a sagittal MR image of the cervical spine showing multi-level degenerative disease with cord compression consistent with cervical myelopathy.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 38

Figures 45a through 45c show the radiograph, CT scan, and MRI scan of a 15-year-old boy who has lateral ankle pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The elongated anterior process of the calcaneus reaching distally toward the navicular is an abnormal finding.  Instead of viewing the rounded, blunt distal anterior process of the calcaneus, a bridge extends to the navicular, albeit incomplete.  These findings are consistent with a fibrous coalition.  CT can reveal a stress fracture of the calcaneus, arthritis of the subtalar joint with subchondral cysts, or an os peroneal bone disruption in the peroneus longus, but those entities are not shown here.  The plantar fascia is intact.
REFERENCES: Richardson EG: Sesamoids and accessory bones of the foot, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7.  St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 702-732.
Oestreich AE, Mize WA, Crawford AH, et al: The “anteater nose”: A direct sign of calcaneonavicular coalition on the lateral radiograph.  J Pediatr Orthop 1987;7:709-711.

Question 39

What is the most frequent late complication of cementless fixation in total knee arthroplasty?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The incidence of osteolysis, particularly around fixation screws in the tibia, can be as high as 30%.  Stable femoral component fixation is generally maintained.  Infection, subluxation of the patella, and stiffness can occur with either cemented or cementless fixation.
REFERENCES: Peters PC, Engh GA, Dwyer KA, Vinh TN: Osteolysis after total knee arthroplasty without cement. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:864-876.
Parks NL, Engh GA, Topoleski LDT, Emperado J: Modular tibial insert micromotion: A concern with contemporary knee implants. Clin Orthop 1998;356:10-15.

Question 40

A 30-year-old accountant and recreational softball player, who is seen at the end of his baseball season, reports a several month history of pain along the medial side of his dominant elbow. He cannot identify a specific injury and notes it only hurts when he throws the ball in from the outfield. Besides the pain, he remarks that his speed and distance while throwing have diminished considerably. Examination reveals tenderness along the medial elbow but no weakness or gross instability is found. Radiographs are normal. Based on the history, what is the most likely diagnosis? Review Topic





Explanation

Throwing athletes frequently develop medial collateral ligament sprain related to the repeated valgus stress that occurs on the medial elbow during the acceleration phase of throwing. This has the effect of not only causing pain, but also resulting in loss of velocity and distance during the throwing activity. The injury is generally well tolerated in most activities of daily living and only becomes problematic during the vigorous, stressful act of throwing. Absence of neurologic signs or symptoms makes ulnar nerve pathology unlikely. Pronator syndrome causes pain on the volar aspect of
the forearm during resisted forearm pronation and is not associated with the throwing motion in particular. Valgus extension overload may mimic medial collateral ligament injury, not varus extension injuries. Medial epicondylitis may be confused with ligament insufficiency but the examination and a history of pain only while throwing make this an unlikely diagnosis.

Question 41

Which of the following is considered a contraindication to functional bracing for the treatment of humeral shaft fractures?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Most closed humeral shaft fractures and fractures caused by a low-velocity hand gun can be managed nonsurgically with closed reduction and application of a coaptation splint followed by a functional brace.  Contraindications to use of the functional brace include:

1) massive soft-tissue or bone loss; 2) an unreliable or noncompliant patient; and 3) an inability to maintain acceptable fracture alignment of up to 20 degrees of anterior or posterior angulation, 30 degrees of varus or valgus angulation, and greater than 3 cm of shortening.

REFERENCES: Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 271-286.
Pollock FH, Drake D, Bovill EG, Day L, Trafton PG: Treatment of radial neuropathy associated with fractures of the humerus.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1981;63:239-243.
Sarmiento A. Zagorski JB, Zych GA, et al: Functional bracing for the treatment of fractures of the humeral diaphysis.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:478-486.

Question 42

Figure 44 shows the radiograph of a 65-year-old man who underwent a revision arthroplasty to remove a loose, cemented femoral stem. When planning the postoperative restrictions, the surgeon should be aware that





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The transfemoral approach, also known as the extended trochanteric osteotomy, is an important technique to master for revision hip surgery.  When performed correctly, it allows excellent exposure of the femoral canal and aids in exposure of the acetabulum.  As demonstrated in the study cited, however, it markedly reduces the torque that the composite can withstand without failure.  This type of basic science study is important to guide postoperative rehabilitation. 
REFERENCE: Noble AR, Branham D, Willis M, et al: Mechanical effects of the extended trochanteric osteotomy.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:521-529.

Question 43

A 32-year-old woman has had progressive left foot pain over the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. Footwear is becoming problematic. There is full range of motion of the first MTP with medial eminence pain. Her weightbearing radiograph reveals a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 35 degrees and a 1-2 intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 10 degrees. What is the best next step?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Patients with painful progressive hallux valgus are surgical candidates. Presurgical evaluation includes radiographic examination. The IMA between the first and second metatarsals as well as the HVA must be measured. If the IMA is smaller than 15 degrees and the HVA is smaller than 35 degrees, a distal osteotomy is preferred. Distal soft-tissue reconstruction is only useful for IMAs smaller than 11 degrees and HVAs smaller than 25 degrees. Proximal osteotomies and the Lapidus bunionectomy are reserved for larger hallux valgus deformities with IMAs exceeding 15 degrees and HVAs exceeding 35 degrees.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Pentikainen I, Ojala R, Ohtonen P, Piippo J, Leppilahti J. Distal Chevron Osteotomy: Preoperative Radiological Factors Contributing to Long-Term Radiological Recurrence of Hallux
Valgus. Foot Ankle Int. 2014 Sep 5. pii: 1071100714548703. [Epub ahead of print] PubMed PMID: 25192724. View Abstract at PubMed
Fakoor M, Sarafan N, Mohammadhoseini P, Khorami M, Arti H, Mosavi S, Aghaeeaghdam A. Comparison of Clinical Outcomes of Scarf and Chevron Osteotomies and the McBride Procedure in the Treatment of Hallux Valgus Deformity. Arch Bone Jt Surg. 2014 Mar;2(1):31-

Question 44

Figures 10a and 10b show the radiographs of a 47-year-old man who reports pain in both shoulders. He has a history of leukemia that was treated with chemotherapy and high-dose cortisone. What is the most reliable treatment option for pain relief in this patient?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs reveal osteonecrosis with collapse.  The most reliable and durable treatment for osteonecrosis of the humeral head remains prosthetic shoulder arthroplasty.  Osteonecrosis of the humeral head may be seen after the use of steroids, and there is an increasing demand for shoulder arthroplasty in young people because of the use of high-dose steroids in chemotherapy regimes for the treatment of malignant tumors.  The indications for most shoulder arthrodeses today include posttraumatic brachial plexus injury, paralytic disorders in infancy, insufficiency of the deltoid muscle and rotator cuff, chronic infection, failed revision arthroplasty, severe refractory instability, and bone deficiency following resection of a tumor in the proximal aspect of the humerus.  Clearly, the role of arthroscopy and related minimally invasive techniques in the treatment of humeral head osteonecrosis remains unknown. 
REFERENCES: Hasan SS, Romeo AA: Nontraumatic osteonecrosis of the humeral head. 

J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2002;11:281-298.

Hattrup SJ: Indications, technique, and results of shoulder arthroplasty in osteonecrosis.  Orthop Clin North Am 1998;29:445-451.
Loebenberg MI, Plate AM, Zuckerman JD: Osteonecrosis of the humeral head.  Instr Course Lect 1999;48:349-357.

Question 45

The most common reason for proximal femur fracture fixation failure (Figure 15) is secondary to which common deformity?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Malposition of a proximal lag screw may result in cut-out similar to that seen with a sliding hip screw. Varus malreduction also can result in implant failure. Studies have shown no difference in complication or healing rates when comparing short and long cephallomedullary nails.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Kleweno C, Morgan J, Redshaw J, Harris M, Rodriguez E, Zurakowski D, Vrahas M, Appleton
P. Short versus Long Cephalomedullary Nails for the Treatment of Intertrochanteric Hip Fractures in Patients over 65 Years. J Orthop Trauma. 2013 Nov 13. [Epub ahead of print] PubMed PMID: 24231580.View Abstract at PubMed
Haidukewych GJ. Intertrochanteric fractures: ten tips to improve results. Instr Course Lect. 2010;59:503-9. Review. PubMed PMID: 20415401. View Abstract at PubMed
CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 16 THROUGH 20
A 23-year-old man sustains multiple injuries in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Among his injuries are a right transverse-posterior wall acetabular fracture, a left open tibia fracture with compartment syndrome, and a right calcaneus fracture.

Question 46

Compared with retention of the native patella in primary total knee arthroplasty, routine patellar resurfacing is associated with




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
Despite concerns regarding fracture, osteonecrosis, and patellar clunk, the routine retention of the native patella during primary total knee replacement is associated with a 20% to 30% increased revision risk in
large joint registries. In addition, the retention of the native patella results in a 5.7% revision surgery rate
in patients with anterior knee pain.

Question 47

Figure 7 shows the CT scan of a 22-year-old professional baseball pitcher who has had elbow pain for the past 6 months despite rest from throwing. Management should consist of Review Topic





Explanation

The CT scan shows a stress fracture of the olecranon. This injury is the result of repetitive abutment of the olecranon into the olecranon fossa, traction from triceps activity during the deceleration phase of the throwing motion, and impaction of the medial olecranon onto the olecranon fossa from valgus forces. Fractures may be either transverse or oblique in orientation. Initial treatment consists of rest and temporary splinting. Electrical bone stimulation may also be considered. Open fixation with a large compression screw is recommended when nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief.

Question 48

A 14-year-old boy has had a 3-month history of low back pain with no known trauma. The pain is worse with activity and relieved by rest, although he does report difficulty with prolonged sitting in school. The patient was on the football team but stopped participating because of the back pain during football practice. He reports no history of radicular pain and denies any numbness, tingling, or weakness in the legs. Neurologic examination is normal. Back examination reveals slight tenderness over the lower back area but no swelling or skin defects. Strength testing is 5 over 5 in the lower extremities and the straight leg raise test is negative. Back range of motion is nearly full, but back extension is painful. The hamstrings are slightly tight. Initial radiographs, including AP, lateral and oblique views, are negative. What is the best test to determine the patient's diagnosis? Review Topic





Explanation

A bone scan with SPECT is very sensitive and specific for spondylolysis not seen on initial radiographs. MRI can sometimes visualize spondylolysis, but it is not as sensitive nor as specific as a bone scan with SPECT. Flexion and extension views
have no role in the evaluation of the patient who presents with classic spondylolysis-type symptoms. The most sensitive physical examination finding is pain with back extension. Oblique radiographs can be obtained, but they are not as sensitive or specific as a bone scan with SPECT. The patient does not have any signs of a disk problem; therefore, an evaluation of the disk is not helpful.
(SBQ13PE.79) A 17-year-old male American football lineman presents with low back pain of insidious onset that is somewhat worse with activity. He has no neurologic complaints, night pain or fevers. His symptoms have been present for a few years but this is the first time he has sought medical attention. What physical examination finding is most likely to be found in this clinical scenario? Review Topic
Popliteal angle of 5 degrees
Heel cord tightness
Increased femoral anteversion
Pain with lumbar extension in single leg stance
Numbness of the skin of the anterolateral calf and dorsum of the foot
The patient demographics and clinical presentation are consistent with lumbar spondylolysis. Pain with lumbar extension is the most common physical exam finding.
Office assessment of the patient with spondylolysis should note pertinent negatives that would signify other causes of back pain. The history is most commonly negative for neurologic symptoms such as weakness or numbness, although patients will occasionally have radicular pain. On exam, patients may have localized spasm or tenderness, step off (if there is spondylolisthesis), hamstring tightness. The most common finding is pain with lumbar extension.
McCleary et al. review the diagnosis and treatment of spondylolysis in athletes. They identify three types of patients with spondylolysis: (1) female dancer or gymnast who is hyperlordotic, with increased motion and flexibility, (2) male weightlifter or football player undergoing a growth spurt, with decreased motion and flexiblity, especially of the spinal erectors, and (3) a novice athlete undergoing vigorous preparation for a new sport, with poor core strength and flexibility.
Incorrect

Question 49

A large circumferential proximal femoral allograft is to be used in the reconstruction of a failed femoral component in a total hip arthroplasty. To enhance fixation of the graft to the implant, which of the following strategies should be used?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The optimum treatment is cementing the implant to the allograft.  Press-fit stability is unreliable. Wires and screws may be used for an incomplete proximal femoral allograft but cannot be used to anchor a complete proximal femoral allograft.
REFERENCES: Allan DG, Lavoie GJ, Rudan JF, et al: The use of allograft bone in revision total hip arthroplasty, in Friedlaender GE, Goldberg VM (eds): Bone and Cartilage Allografts: Biology and Clinical Applications. Park Ridge, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1991, pp 263-264.
Gross AE, Lavoie MV, McDermott P, Marks P: The use of allograft bone in revision of total hip arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1985;197:115-122.
Head WC, Berklacich FM, Malinin TI, Emerson RH Jr: Proximal femoral allografts in revision total hip arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1987;225:22-36.

Question 50

Sacral fractures are most likely to be associated with neurologic deficits when they involve what portion of the sacrum?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Denis divided the sacrum into three zones:  zone 1 represents the lateral ala, zone 2 represents the foramina, and zone 3 represents the central canal.  A fracture is classified according to its most medial extension.  Those in zone 3 are typically bursting-type fractures or fracture-dislocations and are most prone to neurologic sequelae.
REFERENCES: Denis F, Davis S, Comfort T: Sacral fractures: An important problem.  

A retrospective analysis of 236 cases.  Clin Orthop Relat Res 1988;227:67-81.

Wood KB, Denis F: Fractures of the sacrum and coccyx, in Vacarro AR (ed): Fractures of the Cervical, Thoracic and Lumbar Spine.  New York, NY, Marcel Dekker, 2003, pp 473-488.

Question 51

A 12-year-old girl has back pain after falling 20 feet and landing in the sitting position. She has no fractures or other injuries, and her neurologic examination is normal. A lateral radiograph, transverse CT scan, and reformatted sagittal CT scan are shown in Figures 25a through 25c. Which of the following methods is associated with the best long-term outcome? Review Topic





Explanation

The patient has a displaced burst fracture. Fusion with instrumentation has shown better results than casting alone. Posterior fusion with instrumentation, with sagittal plane correction, yields the best results. Decompression occurs indirectly with correction of the kyphosis. Anterior decompression is unnecessary.

Question 52

  • Radiographs of the cervical spine of a 73-year-old man who fell down stairs reveal cervical spondylosis without evidence of fracture or dislocation. MRI and CT scans are consistent with the plain radiographs. After 72 hours, neurologic evaluation reveals intact sensation; however, weakness of the upper extremities is greater than that of the lower extremities. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Central cord syndrome is the correct answer. Common in the older patient, sacral sparing, upper extremity involvement greater than the lower extremity. Functional recovery expected in 75% of patients. 2-Anterior cord syndrome complete motor deficit; trunk and lower
extremity deep pressure and proprioceptive preserved. 3-Posterior cord syndrome is rare with loss of deep pressure, deep pain, and proprioception. 4-Brown-Sequard syndrome-Uncommon-Ipsilateral motor deficit, contralateral pain and temperature deficit. 5-Cervical nerve root injury- functional impairment of the cervical spine. Symptoms are often acute and severe, dependent on the level of the lesion. An infraforaminal protrusion may compress only the spinal root ganglion resulting in severe brachialgia with paresthesia and numbness but with little or no motor involvement.

Question 53

A 25-year-old man is unresponsive at the scene of a high-speed motor vehicle accident and remains obtunded. Initial evaluation in the emergency department reveals a left-sided femoral shaft fracture and a right-sided humeral shaft fracture. The cervical spine remains immobilized in a semi-rigid cervical collar, and the initial AP and lateral radiographs obtained in the emergency department are unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management at this time?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Clearance of the cervical spine can be difficult in the obtunded or unresponsive patient.  Various trauma series have been reported to detect up to 95% of cervical fractures but only when ideal imaging views have been obtained, which is not often possible in the unresponsive or uncooperative patient.  Passively performed cervical flexion-extension under live fluoroscopy has been suggested but is not without inherent risk in the potentially unstable cervical spine.  CT of the cervical spine has gained acceptance for the evaluation of these patients given the excellent evaluation of the osseous anatomy and for the common availability in most emergency departments.  Sanchez and associates, using a protocol to evaluate for cervical spine injuries after blunt trauma, were able to detect 99% of cervical fractures with 100% specificity.
REFERENCES: Chiu WC, Haan JM, Cushing BM, et al: Ligamentous injuries of the cervical spine in unreliable blunt trauma patients: Incidence, evaluation, and outcome.  J Trauma 2001;50:457-463.
Sanchez B, Waxman K, Jones T, et al: Cervical spine clearance in blunt trauma: Evaluation of a computed tomography-based protocol.  J Trauma 2005;59:179-183.
Nunez D Jr: Value of complete cervical helical computed tomographic scanning in identifying cervical spine injury in the unevaluable blunt trauma patient with multiple injuries:

A prospective study.  J Trauma 2000;48:988-989.

Question 54

A patient with a documented allergy to nickel requires a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following prostheses is most likely to provide long-term success in this individual?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Nickel allergy is not an infrequent preoperative finding.  The ramifications of such allergies in arthroplasty patients are poorly understood at this time.  Stainless steel and cobalt-chromium alloys contain relatively high concentrations of nickel.  Titanium, oxidized zirconium, and polyethylene do not contain significant amounts of nickel.  Titanium is not a good surface for the articulating portion of the femoral component because of its propensity for metallosis.  Oxidized zirconium is the only suitable femoral component for patients allergic to nickel.  A modular titanium tibial component or an all-polyethylene tibial component would be satisfactory for these patients.
REFERENCES: Laskin RS: An oxidized Zr ceramic surfaced femoral component for total knee arthroplasty.  Clin Orthop 2003;416:191-196.
Nasser S, Campbell PA, Kilgus D, et al: Cementless total joint arthroplasty prostheses with titanium-alloy articular surfaces: A human retrieval analysis.  Clin Orthop 1990;261:171-185.

Question 55

Figure 7 shows a sagittal T1-weighted MRI scan. What muscle/tendon is identified by the arrow? Review Topic





Explanation

The sagittal T1-weighted MRI scan is useful for interpreting the quality of muscle. The arrow is pointing to the teres minor.

Question 56

Figures 41a and 41b show the radiographs of a 22-year-old woman who has a bunion on her left foot. She denies pain in the foot, but she reports increasing difficulty with shoe wear. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Surgery is not indicated in a patient who has a mild deformity and no pain.  Shoe wear modifications should be recommended.
REFERENCE: Mann RA, Coughlin MJ: Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7.  St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, p 174.

Question 57

Figures 85a through 85c are the sagittal and axial CT scans and sagittal T2 MR image of a 21-year-old man who was thrown from his motocross bike earlier in the day. He now has significant low-back pain; however, he is neurologically intact and has no trouble voiding urine. A standing plain radiograph obtained the next day is shown in Figure 85d. Treatment should involve A B C D




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex is an important determinant of the stability of a burst fracture. This patient is neurologically intact and his MR images do not reveal posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) disruption. The standing radiograph confirms that overall alignment is acceptably and relatively preserved. Nonsurgical treatment with or without a brace is acceptable in this scenario; however, the patient should not be cleared to resume full activity until fracture healing, which may be as long as 3 months after the date of injury. Anterior or posterior surgery should be reserved for patients with PLC disruption, neurological injury, or, in some cases, multiple trauma.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Wood K, Buttermann G, Mehbod A, Garvey T, Jhanjee R, Sechriest V. Operative compared with nonoperative treatment of a thoracolumbar burst fracture without neurological deficit. A prospective, randomized study. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2003 May;85-A(5):773-81. Erratum in: J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2004 Jun;86-A(6):1283. Butterman, G [corrected to Buttermann, G]. PubMed PMID: 12728024. View Abstract at PubMed
Vaccaro AR, Lehman RA Jr, Hurlbert RJ, Anderson PA, Harris M, Hedlund R, Harrop J, Dvorak M, Wood K, Fehlings MG, Fisher C, Zeiller SC, Anderson DG, Bono CM, Stock GH, Brown AK, Kuklo T, Oner FC. A new classification of thoracolumbar injuries: the importance of injury morphology, the integrity of the posterior ligamentous complex, and neurologic status. Spine (Phila Pa 1976). 2005 Oct 15;30(20):2325-33. PubMed PMID: 16227897. View Abstract at PubMed
Vaccaro AR, Zeiller SC, Hulbert RJ, Anderson PA, Harris M, Hedlund R, Harrop J, Dvorak M, Wood K, Fehlings MG, Fisher C, Lehman RA Jr, Anderson DG, Bono CM, Kuklo T, Oner FC. The thoracolumbar injury severity score: a proposed treatment algorithm. J Spinal Disord Tech. 2005 Jun;18(3):209-15. PubMed PMID: 15905761.View Abstract at PubMed
RESPONSES FOR QUESTIONS 86 THROUGH 89
Proximal junctional kyphosis (PJK)
Adjacent segment degeneration
Intraoperative neurological injury
Postsurgical wound infection
Please select the complication listed above that most commonly is associated with a clinical scenario described below.

Question 58

A 9-year-old boy sustained a traumatic brain injury and right lower extremity trauma in an accident involving a motor vehicle and a pedestrian. Initial evaluation in the emergency department reveals an obtunded patient who is breathing spontaneously and withdraws appropriately to painful stimuli. After initial resuscitation and stabilization, a CT scan reveals a right parietal intracranial hemorrhage. Radiographs of the swollen right thigh are shown in Figures 32a and 32b. Management of the fractured femur should ultimately consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: A child with a traumatic brain injury generally achieves significant neurologic recovery and has a more favorable prognosis than an adult.  Early stabilization of fractures facilitates transportation of the child for diagnostic tests and decreases the incidence of shortening and malunion. Surgical treatment of the fracture is indicated when cerebral perfusion pressure has stabilized.  Casting or traction is not the most appropriate treatment of a femoral fracture in a child of this age with a brain injury.  Fracture reduction is difficult to maintain if the brain injury leads to spasticity, and transportation within the hospital for tests is more difficult.   Insertion of a reamed antegrade intramedullary nail inserted at the piriformis fossa is associated with a small risk of osteonecrosis of the femoral head.  The transverse femoral fracture in this patient is ideally suited for stabilization with flexible intramedullary nails.  Ligier and associates treated 123 femoral shaft fractures in children with flexible intramedullary nails, including

35 patients with head injury.  In one patient with hemiplegia and a urinary tract infection, a deep wound infection developed, necessitating nail removal.  The remaining patients all healed without major complications.  Heinrich and associates treated 78 diaphyseal femoral fractures with flexible intramedullary nails, including 14 with head injury.  No major complications were reported and all fractures healed.

REFERENCES: Tolo VT: Management of the multiply injured child, in Rockwood CA, Wilkins KE, Beaty JH (eds):  Fractures in Children, ed 4.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996,

pp 83-95.

Ligier JN, Metaizeau JP, Prevot J, et al: Elastic stable intramedullary nailing of femoral shaft fractures in children.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1988;70:74-77.
Heinrich MS, Drvaric DM, Darr K, et al: The operative stabilization of pediatric diaphyseal femur fractures with flexible intramedullary nails: A prospective analysis.  J Pediatric Orthop 1994;14:501-507.
Canale ST, Tolo VT: Fractures of the femur in children.  Instr Course Lect 1995;44:255-273.

Question 59

A 75-year-old woman notes a slowly enlarging mass in the right anterior thigh. Her medical history is significant only for hypertension. An MRI scan of her thigh is shown in Figures 60a through 60d. Which of the following surgical margins is the most appropriate for removal of this lesion?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a large deep anterior thigh mass that has imaging characteristics of mature fat.  Intramuscular lipomas are effectively treated with marginal resections with very low recurrence rates.  Large lipomas often have small amounts of intralesional signal changes frequently representing trapped muscle fibers and do not necessitate more extensive margins.
REFERENCES: Gaskin CM, Helms CA: Lipomas, lipoma variants, and well-differentiated liposarcomas (atypical lipomas): Results of MRI evaluations of 126 consecutive fatty masses.  Am J Roentgenol 2004;182:733-739.
Rozental TD, Khoury LD, Donthineni-Rao R, et al: Atypical lipomatous masses of the extremities: Outcome of surgical treatment.  Clin Orthop Relat Res 2002;398:203-211.

Question 60

below shows the radiograph obtained from a year-old woman who has sharp pain in her groin, thigh, and buttocks that worsens with activity. She has been dealing with this pain for more than a year but is otherwise healthy. Recently, she has begun to notice night pain. The pain no longer responds to NSAIDs. She would like to be able to dance at her daughter's wedding in 4 months and wonders how best to proceed. What is the best next step?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
The  next  best  course  of  action  is  total  hip  arthroplasty.  The  patient  is  an  otherwise  healthy  woman requesting pain relief and expresses a desire to be dancing in 4 months. She has had more than 6 months of  symptoms  that  are  classic  hip  osteoarthritis  symptoms,  with  pain  in  the  groin  and  thigh.  Severe osteoarthritis  is  seen  in  the  radiograph  as  well.  NSAIDs  are  no  longer  working.  Given  the  objective findings, the subjective reports, and the duration of symptoms, this patient merits surgery. Consideration for steroid injection is reasonable, but given her desire to be dancing in 4 months, an injection would increase  her  risk  of  infection  if  total  hip  arthroplasty  were  to  be  performed  within  3  months  of  the
injection.

Question 61

What is the main mechanism for nutrition of the adult disk?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Disk nutrition occurs via diffusion through pores in the end plates.  The disk has no direct blood supply, and the anulus is not porous to allow diffusion.  The dorsal root ganglion does not provide blood supply to the disc.
REFERENCES: Biyani A, Andersson GB: Low back pain: Pathophysiology and management.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2004;12:106-115.
Urban JG, Holm S, Maroudas A, et al: Nutrition of the intervertebral disc: Effect of fluid flow on solute transport.  Clin Orthop 1982;170:296-302.
Park AE, Boden SD: Intervertebral disk: Form and function, in Einhorn TA, O’Keefe RJ, Buckwalter JA (eds): Orthopaedic Basic Science: Foundations of Clinical Practice, ed 3.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, in press.

Question 62

A 63-year-old woman is seen 10 weeks after sustaining a closed minimally displaced distal radius fracture. She has been in a short-arm cast and reports minimal pain but notes that she is having difficulty using her thumb. An extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon rupture is suspected. Which examination finding would confirm lack of EPL function?




Explanation

EXPLANATION:
As many as to 5% of patients with a nondisplaced distal radius fracture experience EPL rupture. The extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) tendon often attaches to the extensor hood and sometimes continues more distally, providing weak metacarpophalangeal extension even in the setting of EPL disruption. However, because of the vector of its pull, the EPB cannot extend the thumb dorsal to the plane of the palm. A positive Froment sign is noted when flexion of the thumb interphalangeal joint with an attempted key pinch is caused by adductor pollicis weakness from ulnar nerve dysfunction. Compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel affects the recurrent motor branch of the abductor pollicis brevis, leading to thenar atrophy. The flexor pollicis longus tendon (FPL) is intact so the patient would not have difficulty flexing the thumb with the palm flat.

Question 63

In the injury shown in Figures 1 and 2, what ligament remains intact?




Explanation

EXPLANATION:
Perilunate dislocations result from high-energy injuries to the extended wrist. The injury shown is a lunate dislocation. Two classification systems have been described, the Mayfield system and the Herzberg system. Mayfield described the four stages of progressive ligamentous instability following injury. In stage I, the radioscaphocapitate and scapholunate ligaments fail. Stage II involves dislocation of the lunocapitate joint, usually a dorsal dislocation of the capitate. In stage III, the lunotriquetral ligament fails. In stage IV, the dorsal radiocarpal ligament is torn, and the lunate dislocates volarly. The short radiolunate ligament is the only ligament that remains intact, resulting in rotation of the lunate volarly. Herzberg and associates further classified perilunate dislocations as stage I injuries and lunate dislocations as stage II injuries. Lunate dislocations were further classified into stage IIA, in which the lunate exhibits rotation less than 90°, and stage IIB, in which the lunate exhibits rotation greater than 90°. The radiographs represent a Mayfield stage IV, Herzberg stage IIA injury.                  

Question 64

A 21-year-old football player reports increasing pain and a deformity involving his chest after colliding with another player during a scrimmage. Imaging studies confirm an anterior sternoclavicular dislocation. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: For the patient with an anterior sternoclavicular dislocation, the most appropriate initial treatment should be symptomatic.  Surgical options are usually contraindicated because the incidence of intraoperative and postoperative complications is high.  A deformity from an anterior sternoclavicular dislocation is usually well tolerated.  Return to play is allowed when symptoms resolve.
REFERENCES: Rockwood CA Jr: Disorders of the sternoclavicular joint, in Rockwood CA Jr, Matsen FA III (eds): The Shoulder.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, vol 1, pp 477-525.
Rockwood CA Jr, Odor JM: Spontaneous atraumatic anterior subluxation of the sternoclavicular joint.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:1280-1288.

Question 65

Which of the following types of exercise used to increase flexibility is considered most beneficial in increasing joint range of motion?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Evidence has shown that PNF is the treatment of choice to increase joint range of motion and flexibility.  PNF has the advantage of pushing the patient to stretch a little further when the muscle tendon unit is relaxed by a partner.  While isokinetic and eccentric exercises can improve flexibility, and therefore increase range of motion, their main purpose is to increase strength and endurance.  Ballistic stretching involves a large load applied rapidly; however, evidence has shown that static stretching, where a low load is applied for a long duration, offers a more significant benefit.
REFERENCES: Sady SP, Wortman M, Blanke D: Flexibility training: Ballistic, static or proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation?  Arch Phys Med Rehabil 1982;63:261-263.
Tanigawa MC: Comparison of the hold-relax procedure and passive mobilization on increasing muscle length.  Phys Ther 1972;52:725-735.
Wallin D, Ekblom B, Grahn R, Nordenberg T: Improvement of muscle flexibility: A comparison between two techniques.  Am J Sports Med 1985;13:263-268.

Question 66

The preferred surgical approach to the elbow of a child with an irreducible type III supracondylar distal humerus fracture and pulseless extremity is through which of the following muscle intervals?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a type III supracondylar distal humerus fracture of the elbow, the brachial artery can become incarcerated, yielding a pulseless extremity.  In this situation, closed reduction may not be effective; therefore, open management is often necessary.  The preferred surgical approach to the brachial artery and to this fracture is the anterior approach to the cubital fossa.  The lacertus fibrosis is incised, and the dissection is carried out between the brachialis (musculocutaneous nerve) and the pronator teres (median nerve), mobilizing the brachial artery.  Once the brachial artery is mobilized, the anterior elbow joint capsule may be exposed.  The interval between the brachialis and the biceps describes the anterolateral approach to the elbow more commonly used for exposure of the proximal aspect of the posterior interosseous nerve.  The dissection interval between the brachioradialis and the pronator teres describes the proximal extent of the anterior approach to the radius.
REFERENCES: Tubiana R, McCullough CJ, Masquelet AC: An Atlas of Surgical Exposures of the Upper Extremity.  Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1990, p 115.
Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach, ed 2.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1992, p 119.

Question 67

Figures 38a and 38b show the CT scans of a 64-year-old woman. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The CT scans show large cystic lesions in the talus and calcaneus with complete subluxation of the subtalar joint, allowing the calcaneus to slide laterally until it becomes blocked by the fibula.  The cause of this subluxation is severe posterior tibial tendon dysfunction.  Although no fibular fracture has yet appeared, it can occur with continued stress from the calcaneus.  There is, however, a pathologic fracture in the medial calcaneus through a medial degenerative cyst. The joint space is irregular and not symmetrical as would be seen in an inflammatory arthropathy.  Cystic lesions are not present in the tibia.  No stress fracture is seen in the talus. 
REFERENCES: Coughlin MJ: Sesamoids and accessory bones of the foot, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7.  St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 437-499.
Anderson RB, Davis WH: Management of the adult flatfoot deformity, in Myerson M (ed):

Foot and Ankle Disorders.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, pp 1017-1039.

Question 68

..Figures 78a and 78b are the radiographs of a 47-year-old right-hand-dominant woman who has a 3-month history of gradually progressive right shoulder pain. She reports no previous trauma, but does report pain at night and with activity such as weight training. Examination demonstrates active and passive range of motion to be 110 degrees forward elevation, external rotation to 20 degrees, and internal rotation to the sacrum. The next treatment step should include




Explanation

RESPONSES FOR QUESTIONS 79 THROUGH 82
Rotator cuff and scapular stabilizer strengthening exercises
Diagnostic and therapeutic corticosteroid injection
Arthroscopic debridement
Completion of rotator cuff tear, repair, and biceps tenotomy
Acromioplasty
Repair of rotator cuff and superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) repair

Repair of subscapularis tendon and biceps tenodesis


Question 69

Of all the pelvic ring injury types, anteroposterior compression type III pelvic ring injuries have the highest rate of which of the following?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Of the pelvic ring injuries, APC type III have the highest rate of mortality, blood loss, and need for transfusion. They also have a high rate of urogenital injury and abdominal organ injury. Lateral compression injuries (especially type III) have the highest rate of head injury. Vertical shear and combined injuries also have significant rates of concomitant injuries. The referenced article by Dalal et al is a review of Shock Trauma's pelvic ring injuries; they found significant increases in associated injuries as the grade of pelvic ring injury increased, regardless of mechanism/pattern. The aforementioned information was also found to be true with their patient review.

Question 70

Tension force in the anterior cruciate ligament during passive range of motion is highest at





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Tension forces in the healthy, as well as the reconstructed, anterior cruciate ligament were measured and found to be highest with the knee in full extension and decreased as the flexion increased.
REFERENCES: Markolf KL, Burchfield DM, Shapiro MM, et al: Biomechanical consequences of replacement of the anterior cruciate ligament with a patellar ligament allograft.  Part II: Forces in the graft compared with forces in the intact ligament.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1728-1734.
Beynnon BD, Johnson RJ, Fleming BC, et al: The measurement of elongation of anterior cruciate-ligament grafts in vivo.  J Bone Joint Surg Am  1994;76:520-531.

Question 71

Figure 16 shows an axial MRI scan through the knee joint. What structure is identified by the arrow?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The anterior cruciate ligament can be visualized on an axial MRI scan as a low-signal structure lying in the lateral aspect of the intercondylar notch.  Visualization in multiple planes increases the accuracy of MRI to view the anterior cruciate ligament.  The posterior cruciate ligament and ligament of Wrisberg are located on the medial wall of the notch.  The ligamentum mucosum is anterior to the notch, and the popliteus tendon is posterior to the lateral femoral condyle.
REFERENCES: Resnick D, Kang HS (eds): Internal Derangements of Joints: Emphasis on MR Imaging.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1997, pp 675-699.
Fitzgerald SW, Remer EM, Friedman H, Rogers LF, Hendrix RW, Schafer MF: MR evaluation of the anterior cruciate ligament: Value of supplementing sagittal images with coronal and axial images.  Am J Roentgenol 1993;160:1233-1237.

Question 72

Figure 53 shows the pedigree of a family with an unusual type of muscular dystrophy. This pedigree is most consistent with what type of inheritance pattern?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The pedigree documents involvement of male offspring only, and it also shows transmission through an uninvolved female carrier.  This inheritance pattern is most consistent with a x-linked recessive inheritance.  It would be inconsistent with a dominant inheritance pattern unless there was incomplete penetrance.  Autosomal-recessive inheritance would be possible only if the family member labeled II.F was also a carrier of the same gene; however, this is unlikely.  Mitochondrial inheritance is possible, but as with autosomal patterns, mitochondrial inheritance normally affects both male and female offspring.  It is transmitted only through the maternal line.  
REFERENCE: Gelehrter TD, Collins FS: Principles of Medical Genetics.  Baltimore, Md, Williams & Wilkins, 1990, pp 27-45.

Question 73

A 20-year-old college soccer player comes for an evaluation 6 months after an injury during which he landed awkwardly from a jump. Although physical therapy, ice, and activity modification have helped him return to baseline motion, strength, and swelling, he continues to have lateral knee pain. He also notes a popping sensation on the lateral side of his knee with activity. A Lachman test, anterior and posterior drawer tests, a pivot shift test, and McMurray test findings are all negative. MR images reveal a 12-mm x 15-mm osteochondral defect in the lateral femoral condyle with full-thickness cartilage loss and approximately 4 mm of subchondral bone loss.





Explanation

DISCUSSION
Patellofemoral pain in a young athlete without patellar instability or a chondral or osteochondral defect often can be managed with nonsurgical treatment such as physical therapy and a home exercise program. Microfracture surgery is associated with good short-term results for younger athletes. Patients with no history of prior surgery, primary chondral rather than osteochondral lesions, and lesions smaller than 2 cm have experienced the best results. Microfracture surgery performed for chondral lesions of the central aspect of the medial femoral condyle is associated with worse results. Decreased activity levels over time of patients who undergo microfracture surgery are a concern. OAT provides good outcomes and return-to-sports rates for athletic people who are younger and have lesions smaller than 2 cm. Patients with lesions on the lateral femoral condyle have better success rates. Both microfracture surgery and OAT provide better results for chondral defects than osteochondral defects. OAT is associated with better results than microfracture for medium-sized lesions between 2 cm and 4 cm, while autologous chondrocyte implantation yields better improvement for patients with defects larger than 4 cm. All of the surgical techniques listed for articular cartilage repair are associated with better outcomes for patients younger than age 30.

Question 74

Figures 20a and 20b are the radiographs of a 19-year-old woman who was involved in a motor vehicle accident. What mechanism of injury is most consistent with the injury?





Explanation

The radiographs show a lateral compression pelvic ring injury with a displaced superior ramus fracture, or tilt fracture. Tilt fractures are most commonly caused by a lateral compression mechanism. These injuries are often seen in female patients and careful examination, including vaginal examination, is required to rule out open fractures. Lateral compression results in internal rotation, not external rotation, of the pelvic ring. Tilt fractures are not commonly seen with anterior-posterior compression injuries or vertical shear injuries. Sagittal translation is not a term used to describe pelvic ring injuries.

Question 75

A 35-year-old woman reports worsening pain after undergoing a neurectomy in the third interspace for a Morton’s neuroma 12 months ago. She states that the pain is sharp and electrical, worse than before her surgery, and prevents her from participating in her usual work and exercise activities. Use of wider shoes and pads used before her surgery have failed to provide relief. Examination does not reveal any deformity or inflammation. Tenderness along with neuritic pain occurs with compression of the plantar aspect of the foot between the third and fourth metatarsal head area. To most reliably alleviate her pain, management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Most patients with a significant recurrent neuroma will not obtain relief with conservative methods.  Pain results from a stump neuroma at the weight-bearing area from too short of a resection of the nerve or from regrowth of the remaining nerve end.  Although steroid injection may be helpful in localizing symptoms or providing temporary relief, it rarely cures a stump neuroma.  Orthotics with a metatarsal pad will likely increase pressure and pain at the neuroma site.  Physical therapy could temporize the symptoms but will not address the underlying problem.  Similarly, bone decompression alone will not alter the location of the neuroma stump.  Revision of the nerve to a more proximal level off of the weight-bearing area is the most likely method to succeed.  A plantar approach facilitates identification and ability to revise the nerve to a more proximal level.
REFERENCES: Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 101-111.
Johnson JE, Johnson KA, Unni KK: Persistent pain after excision of an interdigital neuroma: Results of reoperation.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:651-657.
Beskin JL, Baxter DE: Recurrent pain following interdigital neurectomy: A plantar approach.  Foot Ankle 1988;9:34-39.
Amis JA, Siverhus SW, Liwnicz BH: An anatomic basis for recurrence after Morton’s neuroma excision.  Foot Ankle 1992;13:153-156.

Question 76

What spinal nerves in the cauda equina are primarily responsible for innervation of the bladder?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The spinal nerves primarily responsible for bladder function are the S2, S3, and S4 nerve roots.  With significant compression of the cauda equina by either disk herniation, tumor, or degenerative stenosis, bladder dysfunction may result.
REFERENCES: Hoppenfeld S: Physical Examination of the Spine and Extremities.  Norwalk, CT, Appleton-Century-Crofts, 1976, p 254.
Pick TP, Howden R (edS): Gray’s Anatomy.  New York, NY, Bounty Books, 1977, p 1004.

Question 77

Compared with retention of the native patella in primary total knee arthroplasty, routine patellar resurfacing is associated with




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
Despite concerns regarding fracture, osteonecrosis, and patellar clunk, the routine retention of the native patella during primary total knee replacement is associated with a 20% to 30% increased revision risk in
large joint registries. In addition, the retention of the native patella results in a 5.7% revision surgery rate in patients with anterior knee pain.

Question 78

If the structure marked by the tip of the probe in Figure 94 is repaired to the bony glenoid with suture anchors during an arthroscopic stabilization procedure, what is the most likely result? Review Topic





Explanation

The probe is on the middle glenohumeral ligament (MGHL), which, in this case, is a cord-like and robust structure, commonly known as a Buford complex. The space between the bony glenoid and the MGHL (in this case, a cord-like Buford complex) is a normal variant and should not be repaired or tightened to the bony glenoid with a soft-tissue anchor or other repair. If this structure is inadvertently repaired, the most common scenario is loss of external rotation with the arm at the side, as the MGHL/Buford complex becomes tight with the arm in this position. The loss of external rotation is more pronounced with the arm at the side than abducted at 90 degrees as the MGHL/Buford complex becomes tighter with the arm at the side than abducted.

Question 79

A 55-year-old man reports increasing weakness in his arms that has progressed to his lower limbs, resulting in frequent tripping and falling. Examination reveals weakness in shoulder abduction and external and internal rotation bilaterally. Fasciculation is noted. He also has weakness in elbow flexion and extension bilaterally, and his grip strength is diminished. An electromyogram and nerve conduction velocity studies show decreased amplitude of compound motor action potential, slightly slowed motor conduction velocity, and denervation signs with decreased recruitment in all extremities. The sensory study is normal. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The major determinant of ALS (Lou Gehrig disease) is progressive loss of motor neurons.  The loss usually begins in one area, is asymmetrical, and later becomes evident in other areas.  The first signs of ALS may include either upper or lower motor neuron loss.  Recognition of upper motor neuron involvement depends on clinical signs, but electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies can help identify lower motor neuron involvement.  Electrodiagnostic abnormalities in three or more areas are required to make a definitive diagnosis.  The motor unit potentials (MUPs) changes in ALS include impaired MUPs recruitment, unstable MUPs, and abnormal MUPs size and configuration.  A number of abnormal spontaneous discharges can occur with ALS, especially fibrillation potentials and fasciculation potentials.  In ALS, the motor nerve conduction study will be abnormal, but a co-existing normal sensory study is definitive for this disease.
REFERENCES: de Carvalho M, Johnsen B, Fuglsang-Frederiksen A: Medical technology assessment: Electrodiagnosis in motor neuron diseases and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.  Neurophysiol Clin 2001;31:341-348.
Daube JR: Electrodiagnostic studies in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and other motor neuron disorders.  Muscle Nerve 2000;23:1488-1502.
Troger M, Dengler R: The role of electromyography (EMG) in the diagnosis of ALS.  Amyotroph Lateral Scler Other Motor Neuron Disord 2000;1:S33-S40.

Question 80

What is the maximum acceptable amount of divergence of the interference screw in the femoral tunnel from the bone plug of a bone-patellar tendon-bone graft in anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction before pull-out strength is statistically decreased?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In the early 1990s, a transition was made from a two-incision ACL reconstruction to a single-incision ACL reconstruction, and there was concern over divergence of the femoral screws.  It was shown radiographically that approximately 5% of the time, divergence of the screw was greater than 15 degrees from the bone plug.  In a bovine model, there was significant loss of pull-out strength with an increase in divergence from 15 degrees to 30 degrees.  Therefore, attempts should be made to minimize divergence to 15 degrees or less.
REFERENCES: Lemos MJ, Jackson DW, Lee TO, et al: Assessment of initial fixation of endoscopic interference femoral screws with divergent and parallel placement.  Arthroscopy 1995;11:37-41. 
Lemos MJ, Albert J, Simon T, et al: Radiographic analysis of femoral interference screw placement during ACL reconstruction: Endoscopic versus open technique.  Arthroscopy 1993;9:154-158.

Question 81

A 14-year-old boy has medial ankle pain, progressive unilateral flatfoot deformity, and pain with most activities of daily living. He denies any recent injury. His parents recall that at age 7 years he sustained an injury that was treated as a sprain. Examination reveals valgus deformity with painless, unrestricted passive motion of the ankle. He has grossly equal limb lengths. A radiograph of the affected ankle is shown in Figure 48a, and the contralateral ankle is shown in Figure 48b. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Angular deformities of the ankle can occur following physeal injury.  While an orthosis may be beneficial, the deformity is at the level of the ankle rather than the hindfoot.  An epiphysiodesis or physeal bar resection would not be indicated as the growth plates are closed.  Correction of the angular deformity should level the ankle joint and normalize the weight-bearing stresses on the ankle.  This is most easily achieved with a closing wedge distal tibial osteotomy with or without concomitant osteotomy of the fibula.
REFERENCES: Thompson DM, Calhoun JH: Advanced techniques in foot and ankle reconstruction.  Foot Ankle Clin 2000;5:417-442.
Ting AJ, Tarr RR, Sarmiento A, Wagner K, Resnick C: The role of subtalar motion and ankle contact pressure changes from angular deformities of the tibia.  Foot Ankle 1987;7:290-299.
Tarr RR, Resnick CT, Wagner KS, Sarmiento A: Changes in tibiotalar joint contact areas following experimentally induced tibial angular deformities.  Clin Orthop 1985;199:72-80.

Question 82

A 65-year-old woman fell onto her outstretched right arm and immediately had pain. She has a history of osteoporosis. Examination of the right arm reveals lateral arm swelling, ecchymosis, and she is unable to move the elbow due to pain. Her neurovascular status is intact. Radiographs are shown in Figures 14a and 14b. Appropriate treatment should include





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Comminuted, displaced radial head fractures (Hotchkiss type 3) require anatomic metallic radial head arthroplasty to regain function.  Radial head excision has led to catastrophic sequelae including chronic wrist pain, elbow instability, and proximal radius migration.  Immobilization, internal fixation, or anconeus arthroplasty are not recommended at this time because of the potentially poorer outcomes.
REFERENCES: Hotchkiss RN: Displaced fractures of the radial head: Internal fixation or excision?  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:1-10.
Beredjiklian PK, Nalbantoglu U, Potter HG, et al: Prosthetic radial head components and proximal radial morphology: A mismatch.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1999;8:471-475.

Question 83

A 38-year-old woman has persistent elbow pain but is unable to recall a specific traumatic event. Examination reveals that the patient exhibits apprehension when the elbow is placed in valgus with forearm supination and axial loading. Because of chronicity and failure to respond to nonsurgical management, what is the most appropriate treatment? Review Topic





Explanation

The maneuver described is the lateral pivot-shift test, where valgus and axial loads are applied to the extended and supinated forearm while the elbow is gradually flexed. The presence of apprehension in an awake patient suggests posterolateral rotatory instability, indicating insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament. Treatment for chronic cases involves reconstruction using a palmaris longus tendon graft combined with plication of the lateral capsuloligamentous structures. Direct ligament repair and isolated plication are less reliable. The long-term effects of thermal shrinkage are still unclear. Because of the failure to respond to nonsurgical management, continued bracing is unlikely to resolve the patient's symptoms.

Question 84

Figure 33 shows the oblique radiograph of an 11-year-old boy who has a mild left flatfoot deformity. Examination reveals that subtalar motion is limited and painful. Despite casting for 6 weeks, the patient reports foot pain that limits participation in sport activities. A CT scan shows no subtalar joint abnormalities. Management should now include





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows an incompletely ossified calcaneonavicular coalition.  When symptomatic, a trial of cast immobilization is reasonable.  If this fails to provide relief, the preferred treatment is resection of the coalition. Before attempting surgery, a CT scan should be obtained to rule out ipsilateral subtalar coalition.  Recurrence of the coalition is usually prevented with interposition of autogenous fat graft or with local interposition of the extensor digitorum brevis muscle.  Approximately 80% of patients treated in this manner have decreased pain and improved subtalar motion.  When the flatfoot deformity is mild, calcaneal lengthening or medial translation osteotomy is unnecessary.  Primary triple arthrodesis may be indicated if degenerative changes are present in the subtalar or midfoot joints.  Peroneal lengthening

has been described for treatment of the peroneal spastic flatfoot without demonstrable

tarsal coalition.

REFERENCES: Gonzalez P, Kumar SJ: Calcaneonavicular coalition treated by resection and interposition of the extensor digitorum brevis muscle.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:71-77.
Vincent KA: Tarsal coalition and painful flatfoot.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1998;6:274-281.
Luhmann SJ, Rich MM, Schoenecker PL: Painful idiopathic rigid flatfoot in children and adolescents.  Foot Ankle Int 2000;21:59-66.

Question 85

Where is the most common site for tuberculosis (TB) spondylitis in children?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In children, the main route of infection in skeletal TB is through hematogenous spread from a primary source.  The mycobacterium is deposited in the end arterials in the vertebral body adjacent to the anterior aspect of the vertebral end plate.  Thus, the anterior portion of the vertebral body is most commonly involved.  The lower thoracic region is the most common segment; next in decreasing order of frequency are the lumbar, upper thoracic, cervical, and sacral regions.
REFERENCES: Teo HE, Peh WC: Skeletal tuberculosis in children.  Pediatric Radiol 2004;34:853-860.
Herring JA: Tachdjian’s Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 3.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, vol 1, pp 1831-1835.

Question 86

A 60-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer has progressive paraparesis. The MRI scan is shown in Figure 28. What form of management is most likely to restore or maintain ambulation?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Surgical decompression and stabilization have been shown to be the most effective means of improving neurologic function.  Decompression is most reliably done from the side of the compression, which is anterior in this patient.
REFERENCES: Harrington KD: Metastatic tumors of the spine: Diagnosis and treatment.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1993;1:76-86.
Siegal T, Siegal T: Current considerations in the management of neoplastic spinal cord compression.  Spine 1989;14:223-228.

Question 87

CLINICAL SITUATION Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 19-year-old man with a closed right humeral shaft fracture as well as a right femoral shaft fracture and a left ankle fracture-dislocation after a motor vehicle collision. On initial examination, he is noted to have a complete radial nerve palsy of his right upper extremity. Postoperative radiographs are shown in Figures 3 and 4. How does the plate function?




Explanation

Discussion: The patient sustained a comminuted extra-articular distal humeral diaphyseal fracture. In isolation, this fracture would still be amenable to an attempt at closed treatment. His radial nerve palsy alone does not warrant open management, as early exploration has not shown a significant benefit in a closed fracture. In addition, despite the comminution and distal extent of the fracture, it is still amenable to closed treatment, though it may be at higher risk for malunion. However, in this patient with multiple lower extremity injuries, fixation of the humerus can facilitate early mobilization and weight-bearing with his right upper extremity, representing a relative indication for surgical management.
The posterior triceps-reflecting approach described can be extended proximally to the level of the axillary nerve. The radial nerve must be found and protected, but the dissection can be carried well proximal to it and the medial triceps origin. The anatomic neck of the humerus cannot be visualized through this approach.
The plate functions as a neutralization plate, as multiple lag screws are seen placed outside of the plate, suggesting anatomic reduction and fixation of the fracture prior to applying the plate.
The working length of the plate is the distance between the proximal and distal screws closest to the fracture. The length of screw purchase in bone represents the working length of the screw, not the plate. The other answer choices describe dimensions of the plate and the fixation construct, not its working length.

Question 88

Radiating pain associated with a posterolateral thoracic disk herniation typically follows what pattern? Review Topic





Explanation

Although symptomatic thoracic disk herniations can affect more caudal structures, even to the point of paralysis, the pattern of radiating pain has been described as either following the dermatomal band around the chest or feeling to the patient as if the pain passes straight anteriorly to the chest wall.

Question 89

Which of the following clinical tests is used to diagnose medial instability of the elbow? Review Topic





Explanation

The moving valgus stress test is used in the diagnosis of medial collateral ligament instability of the elbow. The other tests apply a varus force to the elbow and are used to diagnose lateral ulnar collateral insufficiency.

Question 90

Kyphosis from a vertebral osteoporotic compression fracture often results in progressive kyphosis due to Review Topic





Explanation

Kayanja and associates, in a number of biomechanical studies, showed that in a kyphotic spine the strain is located at the apex of the deformity, the force is transmitted to the superior adjacent vertebrae, and that realignment and cement augmentation effectively normalize the load transfer.

Question 91

A 6-year-old girl sustains an ankle injury after falling on roller blades. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 68. Treatment should consist of which of the following?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The child has a Salter-Harris type IV injury involving both the growth plate and the articular surface of the ankle. This injury pattern has a high risk of physeal arrest; open reduction and internal fixation is indicated to realign the physis and joint surface. The best method of fixation to avoid growth arrest is one that does not cross the physis. This is usually achieved by an epiphyseal screw or pins parallel to the physis. If the metaphyseal fragment were large enough, a transverse metaphyseal screw could be used. The incidence of growth arrest following physeal ankle injuries is high and longterm follow- up is indicated.
REFERENCES: Cass JR, Peterson HA: Salter-Harris type-IV injuries of the distal tibial epiphyseal growth plate, with emphasis on those involving the medial malleolus. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1983;65:1059-1070. Barmada A, Gaynor T, Mubarak SJ: Premature physeal closure following distal tibia physeal fractures: A new radiographic predictor. J Pediatr Orthop 2003;23:733-739.

Question 92

A 30-year-old patient underwent open reduction internal fixation of a talar neck fracture 8 weeks ago. His current radiographs demonstrate a subchondral radiolucency of the dome of the talus. What is the next most appropriate course of action?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: A subchondral radiolucency of the talar dome after a talar neck fracture is known as the "Hawkins sign" and is a well-described radiographic indication of viability of the talar body. Rockwood and Green state "by the 6th-8th week, if the patient has been non-weight-bearing, diffuse atrophy is evident by radiographs. An AP radiograph of the ankle reveals the presence or absence of subchondral atrophy in the dome of the talus. Subchondral atrophy excludes the diagnosis of avascular necrosis." Tezval et al in a retrospective review showed that a subchondral lucency seen on the AP radiograph was a good indicator of talus vascularity following fracture. They state it is unlikely that AVN will develop at a later stage after injury if a Hawkins sign was present. Illustration A shows the characteristic appearance of a Hawkins sign and subchondral sclerosis.

Question 93

The patient is given a blood transfusion. After starting the transfusion, nurses note that her temperature is 38.8°C and she has shaking and chills. What is the most likely cause of this problem?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Blood management and venous thromboembolism prevention are important considerations in the perioperative management of THA. Recommendations now focus on presurgical optimization of hemoglobin, use of antifibrinolytics intrasurgically, and minimized use of transfusions. Current recommendations do not favor autologous blood donation for patients with hemoglobin levels higher than 13 g/dL. There is a move toward increased use of aspirin for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis, but this modality can cause GI bleeding that may necessitate blood transfusion. Transfusion reactions are rare, and the most common cause is administration of an incompatible unit because of clerical error.

Question 94

Figure 43 shows an arthroscopic view of the posteromedial compartment of a patient’s left knee using a 70-degree arthroscope placed through the intercondylar notch. The arrow is pointing to what structure?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Passing the 70-degree arthroscope through the intercondylar notch provides excellent visualization of the posteromedial corner of the knee.  This view should be part of every knee arthroscopy because these structures are often not well visualized from the anterior portals.  If this view is omitted, tears of the peripheral posterior horn of the medial meniscus can be overlooked.  The arrow points to the peripheral aspect of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus.  With an intact medial meniscus, the medial tibial plateau should not be seen from this view.  The semimembranosus and gastrocnemius tendons are extra-articular and not visualized.
REFERENCES: Miller MD: Basic arthroscopic principles, in DeLee JC, Drez D Jr, Miller MD (eds): Orthopaedic Sports Medicine, ed 2.  Philadelphia, PA, Saunders, 2003, pp 224-237.
Gold DI, Schaner PJ, Sapega AA: The posteromedial portal in knee arthroscopy: An analysis of diagnostic and surgical utility.  Arthoscopy 1995;11:139-145.  

Question 95

Which of the following activities can improve posterior capsular contractures?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Posterior capsule stretching is performed in the cross-chest and behind the back positions.  Stretching in internal rotation in the abducted shoulder will further stretch the posterior capsule.  Wide grip stretch, and anterior capsule and strengthening exercises will not necessarily stretch the capsule.
REFERENCES: Ellenbacher TS: Shoulder internal and external rotation strength and range of motion of highly-skilled junior tennis players.  Isokinetic Exercise Sci 1992;2:1-8.
Kibler WB, McMullen J, Uhl J: Shoulder rehabilitation strategies, guidelines, and practice.  Op Tech Sports Med 2000;8:258-267.

Question 96

A soccer player who sustained a twisting injury to the right ankle while making a cut is unable to bear weight and has diffuse tenderness over the anterior and lateral aspects of the ankle. Examination also shows a positive squeeze test. Plain radiographs and a stress radiograph are shown in Figures 26a through 26c. Radiographs of the leg and knee are normal. What is the most appropriate management?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The mechanism of injury, physical examination, and radiographs indicate a “high” ankle sprain with disruption of the distal tibiofibular ligaments and interosseous membrane.  These injuries typically involve pronation and external rotation forces.  In addition, recovery is significantly delayed, often requiring 6 to 8 weeks to heal.  Radiographs obtained months after recovery often show calcification within the distal syndesmosis, which is not typically symptomatic.  This patient has gross instability, resulting in a high incidence of chronic diastasis and subluxation leading to impaired function.  Treatment should consist of reduction and stabilization with a transsyndesmotic screw because this injury demonstrates a widened syndesmosis.
REFERENCES: Boytim MJ, Fisher DA, Neumann L: Syndesmotic ankle sprains.  Am J Sports Med 1991;19:294-298.
Miller CD, Shelton WR, Barrett GR, et al: Deltoid and syndesmosis ligament injury of the ankle without fracture.  Am J Sports Med 1995;23:746-750.

Question 97

What is the most common cause for poor outcomes in patients who undergo total shoulder arthroplasty?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In an article in the Journal of Shoulder and Elbow, 431 total shoulder arthroplasties were performed with a cemented all-polyethylene glenoid component between 1990 and 2000.  Follow-up averaged 4.2 years.  In total, 53 surgical complications occurred in 53 patients (12%).  Of these, 32 were major complications (7.4%), with 17 of these requiring reoperation.  Index complications in order of frequency included rotator cuff tearing, postoperative glenohumeral instability, and periprosthetic humeral fracture.  Notably, glenoid and humeral component loosening requiring reoperation occurred in only one shoulder.  Data from the contemporary patient group suggest that there are fewer complications of shoulder arthroplasty and less need for reoperation.  Especially striking is the near absence of component revision because of loosening or other mechanical factors.  Complications involving the brachial plexus have been reported following total shoulder arthroplasty but are not as common of a cause for failure.
REFERENCES: Chin PY, Sperling JW, Cofield RH, et al: Complications of total shoulder arthroplasty: Are they fewer or different?  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2006;15:19-22.
Hasan SS, Leith JM, Campbell B, et al: Characteristics of unsatisfactory shoulder arthroplasties.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2002;11:431-441.

Question 98

The space available for the cord is an important determinant in neurologic recovery. Recent analysis suggests that the most reliable radiographic predictor for neurologic recovery after surgery in patients with rheumatoid arthritis and paralysis is a preoperative





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Boden and associates’ recent article presents significant evidence that patients with rheumatoid arthritis, neurologic deterioration, and C1-2 instability are more likely to improve after surgery if the posterior alanto-odontoid interval is greater than 10 mm preoperatively.  The accepted safe range for the posterior atlanto-odontoid interval is 14 mm.  This measurement is believed to better represent the space available for the cord than the anterior alanto-odontoid interval.
REFERENCES: Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 273-279.
Boden SD, Dodge LD, Bohlman HH, Rechtine GR: Rheumatoid arthritis of the cervical spine: A long-term analysis with predictors of paralysis and recovery.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1282-1297.
Wattenmaker I, Concepcion M, Hibberd P, Lipson S: Upper airway obstruction and perioperative management of the airway in patients managed with posterior operations on the cervical spine for rheumatoid arthritis.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:360-365.

Question 99

A 72-year-old man sustains a displaced four-part fracture of the proximal humerus with head split component following a fall. A primary shoulder arthroplasty has been recommended for acute management. In counseling the patient on pros and cons of hemiarthroplasty versus reverse arthroplasty, what statement can be made based on the available literature?




Explanation

As the indications for reverse shoulder arthroplasty have expanded, the role for shoulder hemiarthroplasty appears to be narrowing. Several recent systematic reviews have evaluated outcomes of shoulder hemiarthroplasty and reverse shoulder arthroplasty for acute proximal humerus fractures. Their results suggest that reverse arthroplasty results in superior functional results and comparable elevation, at the expense of increased  complication  rates  and  decreased  shoulder  rotation.  One  of  the  benefits  of  reverse shoulder
arthroplasty in the setting of fracture is that forward elevation is independent of tuberosity healing and relies mainly on the deltoid muscle. Active external rotation following a reverse total shoulder for fracture, however, does appear to depend on successful union of the greater tuberosity. In a randomized controlled trial, the incidence of tuberosity healing was higher and the incidence of tuberosity resorption was lower in reverse arthroplasty compared with hemiarthroplasty. Forward elevation following a hemiarthroplasty for fracture generally follows a bimodal distribution, whereas outcomes following a reverse total shoulder have been more
 consistent.

Question 100

Following ankle arthroscopy performed through a posterolateral portal, a patient notes numbness on the lateral half of the heel pad of the foot. What is the most likely injured structure?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The lateral calcaneal nerve is a branch of the sural nerve that runs along the lateral border of the Achilles tendon to innervate the lateral heel pad. Ankle arthroscopy involves posterior portals that hug the Achilles tendon to avoid the main trunks of the sural nerve and tibial nerve; however, the lateral calcaneal branch remains potentially vulnerable.  The first branch of the lateral plantar nerve is actually a medial structure that partially innervates the plantar fascia and the abductor digiti quinti.  The deep peroneal nerve is anterior to the ankle.
REFERENCES: Sitler DF, Amendola A, Bailey CS, et al: Posterior ankle arthroscopy:

An anatomic study.  J Bone Joint Surg Am  2002;84:763-769.

Sarrafian SK: Anatomy of the Foot and Ankle, Descriptive, Topographic, Functional, ed 2.  Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1993, p 361.

Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
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Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
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