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Pathologic Fractures: Understand Causes, Identify Risks & Get Care

Clinical Case Study: Pathological Proximal Femur Fracture in Metastatic Prostate Adenocarcinoma

20 Jun 2026 25 min read 75 Views
Orthopedic Oncology cases blastic metastases

Key Takeaway

A 70-year-old male with metastatic prostate adenocarcinoma presented with a pathological proximal femur fracture following a low-energy fall, experiencing acute left hip pain. This case study details the patient's history, physical examination revealing classic hip fracture signs, and the critical consideration of underlying malignancy, particularly blastic metastases, in elderly patients with atypical fractures.

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FRCS Masterclass: Clinical Viva

Interactive Examiner Scenario • Test your knowledge before revealing the answers.

👨‍⚕️ Examiner Scenario

A 70-year-old male presents with acute left hip pain after a fall. You review his initial imaging. Describe the key radiographic findings and outline your immediate interpretation in the context of his history.

Clinical Image
Figure/Radiograph of the Left Femur

Candidate: The radiograph shows a comminuted, transverse subtrochanteric fracture. There is significant cortical thickening and sclerosis—a "blastic" appearance—extending down the femoral shaft. Given his history of prostate cancer, this is almost certainly a pathological fracture secondary to metastatic disease.

❌ Common Pitfall (Poor Answer)

Candidates often focus solely on the fracture morphology (describing it as an AO type 32-A3.3) without addressing the pathology. Failing to mention the sclerotic nature of the bone or neglecting to correlate the imaging with the oncological history in an elderly patient is a major oversight that suggests a lack of clinical integration.

⭐ The Gold Standard (Perfect Answer)

The candidate should immediately identify this as a pathological fracture. They must: 1) Describe the fracture (displaced, comminuted, subtrochanteric). 2) Highlight the abnormal bone architecture (diffuse sclerosis, endosteal scalloping, >50% cortical involvement). 3) Link these findings to the patient's history of prostate cancer, confirming the "blastic" metastatic etiology. 4) State that they would calculate a Mirels' Score to quantify risk and guide urgent stabilization.

👨‍⚕️ Examiner Scenario

The patient is booked for surgery. How do you plan your surgical fixation to optimize outcome and prevent future complications?

Candidate: I would use a long cephalomedullary nail. It is the gold standard for subtrochanteric fractures, especially pathological ones. I would make sure the nail is long enough to bypass the entire segment of metastatic disease, extending down to the distal femoral metaphysis, and perform an intraoperative biopsy.

❌ Common Pitfall (Poor Answer)

Candidates often forget the importance of "bypassing the disease" or neglect to mention the intraoperative biopsy. They may also fail to specify the need for post-operative radiation or adjuvant medical management, treating the fracture as a standard trauma case rather than an oncological challenge.

⭐ The Gold Standard (Perfect Answer)

A structured answer is essential: 1) Implant Choice: Long cephalomedullary nail to provide load-sharing stability. 2) Bypass Principle: Confirming the nail spans the entire diseased segment to prevent iatrogenic fracture at the tip. 3) Surgical Logistics: Intraoperative biopsy for histopathological confirmation. 4) Multidisciplinary Care: Coordinating post-operative radiotherapy and systemic therapy (e.g., ADT adjustment, bone-modifying agents). 5) Rehab: Early protected weight-bearing to minimize systemic complications of immobility.

Dr. Mohammed Hutaif Clinic
Medically Verified Content by
Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif Clinic
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
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