Updated Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedi -...
30 مارس 2026
16 min read
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Key Takeaway
Discover the latest medical recommendations for UPDATED ORTHOPEDIC MCQS. **Spanning external fixation** is the appropriate initial treatment for significantly displaced, high-energy proximal tibia fractures with intra-articular extension. This approach offers benefits such as a low wound infection rate, improved soft tissue access, prevention of further articular damage, and osseous stabilization. A recognized downside of this device is residual knee stiffness.
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UPDATED ORTHOPEDIC MCQS
A 62-year-old man slips on ice and sustains an elbow dislocation. Post-reduction imaging reveals a highly comminuted radial head fracture and coronoid fracture through its base. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1/. Early passive range-of-motion in a hinged elbow brace
2/. Application of a static spanning external fixator for 6 weeks
1/. Early passive range-of-motion in a hinged elbow brace
2/. Application of a static spanning external fixator for 6 weeks
A 36-year-old male is brought to the trauma center following a motor vehicle accident. Physical exam shows a deformed left lower extremity with a 1-cm open wound over the anterolateral aspect of his leg. Radiographs are provided in Figures A and
A 62-year-old man falls on his porch and sustains an elbow injury. A radiograph is provided in Figure
An 85-year-old woman falls and injures her elbow in her non dominant arm. Radiographs are shown in Figure A and
A 27-year-old woman gives birth by normal spontaneous vaginal delivery. Two weeks after delivery she reports anterior pelvic pain and a radiograph is obtained (Figure A). What is the next step in management?
1/. Pelvic external fixator
2/. Open reduction and reconstruction plating of the symphysis
1/. Pelvic external fixator
2/. Open reduction and reconstruction plating of the symphysis
A 24-year-old man who sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen ten hours earlier was brought to the emergency department. On physical examination he was found to have 4 of 5 weakness in his bilateral lower extremities. Radiographs are shown in Figure
A 25-year-old male is involved in an high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustains a closed femoral shaft fracture. During further evaluation, a CT scan of the chest/abdomen/pelvis reveals a non displaced ipsilateral femoral neck fracture. Which of the following treatment options will most likely achieve anatomic healing of the femoral neck and minimize the risk of complications?
1/. Retrograde femoral nail followed by compression hip screw
1/. Retrograde femoral nail followed by compression hip screw
A 40-year-old male laborer sustained a fall from height and has isolated pelvic pain. He is otherwise hemodynamically stable. A radiograph is shown in Figure
A 40-year-old woman is involved in motorcycle accident 2 hours ago and sustains an isolated right leg injury shown in Figure
A 47-year-old male sustains an isolated posterior wall acetabulum fracture after a motor vehicle collision and undergoes open reduction and internal fixation. Post-operative radiographs are shown in Figure
A 68-year-old male sustains the humeral shaft fracture shown in Figures A and
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Medically Verified Content by
Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon