العربية
Part of the Master Guide

Mastering Humeral Shaft Fractures: Diagnosis & Treatment

Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...

21 مارس 2026 30 min read 50 Views

Key Takeaway

In this comprehensive guide, we discuss everything you need to know about ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 800-850. Articular cartilage primarily features Type II collagen (90-95%), with Type IX forming cross-links and Type XI regulating fibril diameter. Its composition and organization can be affected by various factors, where analysis of specific conditions often describes the inheritance patterns observed in certain chondropathies. Collagen turnover is normally slow, influenced by anabolic factors like TGF-beta.

Score: 0%

ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 800-850

QUESTION 1
Which of the following muscle groups comprises the mobile wad of the forearm:
1
Brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevisq
2
Brachioradialis, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor digitorum communis
3
Brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor pollicis brevis
4
Brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum communis
5
Extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor digitorum communis
QUESTION 2
Which of the following muscles must be detached from the tibia when decompressing the deep posterior compartment of the leg:
1
Posterior tibialis
2
Flexor hallucis longus
3
Medial gastrocnemius
4
Soleus
5
Flexor digitorum longus
QUESTION 3
Which of the following leg muscles often has its own fascial envelope (separate compartment):
1
Anterior tibialis muscle
2
Posterior tibialis muscle
3
Peroneus longus muscle
4
Flexor digitorum longus muscle
5
Flexor hallucis longus muscle
QUESTION 4
In patients with a tibia fracture, which of the following compartments are most prone to develop a compartment syndrome:
1
Anterior and lateral
2
Anterior and deep posterior
3
Lateral and superficial posterior
4
Lateral and deep posterior
5
Superficial and deep posterior
QUESTION 5
The approximate incidence of compartment syndrome following a tibia fracture is:
1
1% to 2%
2
5% to 10%
3
10% to 20%
4
20% to 30%
5
30% to 40%
QUESTION 6
In patients with a closed tibia fracture and suspected compartment syndrome, the region of the leg that will most likely have the highest tissue pressure measurement is:
1
The middle of the leg
2
5 cm proximal to the fracture site
3
At the level of the fracture
4
5 cm distal to the fracture site
5
The proximal one-third of the leg
QUESTION 7
Which of the following may be beneficial in decreasing the deleterious effects of total muscle ischemia in a patient who has a compartment syndrome:
1
Systemic steroids
2
Hypothermia
3
Elevation of the extremity above the heart
4
Antihypertensive therapy
5
Anticoagulant therapy
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the most sensitive finding in patients who are at risk for compartment syndrome before total muscle and nerve ischemia occurs:
1
Paresthesia
2
Loss of peripheral pulses
3
Pain on passive stretch of muscle
4
Delayed capillary refill
5
Loss of motor function
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the normal resting pressure in skeletal muscle:
1
0 mm Hg to 8 mm Hg
2
10 mm Hg to 16 mm Hg
3
18 mm Hg to 24 mm Hg
4
24 mm Hg to 30 mm Hg
5
30 mm Hg to 36 mm Hg
QUESTION 10
In injured tissues, ischemia begins when the tissue pressure within the compartment comes within mm Hg of the diastolic pressure.
1
10
2
20
3
30
4
40
5
50
QUESTION 11
C omplete ischemia of a peripheral nerve results in irreversible damage after hours.
1
1 to 2 hours
2
2 to 4 hours
3
4 to 6 hours
4
6 to 8 hours
5
8 to 10 hours
QUESTION 12
C omplete muscle ischemia that leads to irreversible muscle damage occurs after which of the following time periods:
1
1 to 2 hours
2
2 to 4 hours
3
4 to 6 hours
4
6 to 8 hours
5
8 to 10 hours
QUESTION 13
Skeletal muscle may remain viable (electrically responsive) following a period of total ischemia. Which of the following is the correct time interval for the tolerance to total muscle ischemia (complete recovery can be expected):
1
3 to 4 hours
2
4 to 6 hours
3
6 to 8 hours
4
8 to 10 hours
5
10 to 12 hours
QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements concerning locking plates is true:
1
The pullout strength of a locked unicortical screw is only 30% of a standard bicortical screw.
2
Toggle between the screws and plate is greater than standard plating.
3
Locked bicortical screws have greater toggle than standard bicortical screws.
4
Friction between the plate and cortical bone is greater in locked plating compared to standard plating.
5
Locked plating is biomechanically similar to external fixation with a lower moment arm.
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements concerning locking plates is true:
1
The pullout strength of a locked unicortical screw is only 60% of a standard bicortical screw.
2
Toggle between the screws and plate is greater than standard plating.
3
Locked bicortical screws have greater toggle than standard bicortical screws.
4
Friction between the plate and cortical bone is greater in locked plating compared to standard plating.
5
Locked plating is not biomechanically similar to external fixation with a lower moment arm.
QUESTION 16
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of hemophilia A:
1
Autosomal dominant inheritance
2
Autosomal recessive inheritance
3
Sex-linked dominant
4
Sex-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the most important pathophysiology factor in hemophilic arthropathy:
1
Viral joint infection
2
Bacterial joint infection
3
Hemosiderin depositionq
4
Subchondral bone microfractures
5
Neuropathic damage
QUESTION 18
The âbystander effectâ in cancer gene therapy is:
1
Resistance to gene therapy by neighbor tumor cells after irradiation.
2
The secretion of tumor suppressor cytokines by neighbor cells.
3
The death of neighbor untargeted tumor cells during cell-targeted suicide.
4
Anaphylaxis-like side effects seen during tumor gene therapy.
5
None of the above.
QUESTION 19
Which of the following is associated with cleidocranial dysplasia:
1
Type X collagen
2
C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump
3
C artilage oligomeric protein
4
Fibrillin
5
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1)
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is associated with achondroplasia:
1
Type X collagen
2
Sulfate transporter gene
3
Fibrillin
4
Fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF-3) (receptor)
5
Type I collagen (C ol 1A1, 1A2)
QUESTION 21
Which of the following defects occurs in Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (pseudohypoparathyroidism):
1
Type X collagen
2
Sulfate transporter gene
3
Beta glucosidase
4
Galpha S (GNAS1)
5
C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is associated with Marfan's syndrome:
1
Sulfate transporter gene
2
Fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF-3) (receptor)
3
C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump
4
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1)
5
Fibrillin
QUESTION 23
Which of the following proteins binds to osteoclast precursor cells and positively effects their final differentiation into osteoclasts:
1
Receptor activator of nuclear factor-kB (RANK)
2
Osteoprotegerin
3
Bone morphogenetic protein-7
4
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1)
5
Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
QUESTION 24
Which of the following proteins negatively affects osteoclast precursor cells:
1
Receptor activator of nuclear factor-kB (RANK)
2
Osteoprotegerin
3
Bone morphogenetic protein-7
4
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1)
5
Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
QUESTION 25
Which of the following proteins or genes is necessary for bone formation and induces osteocalcin:
1
Sox-9 gene
2
Receptor activator of nuclear factor-kB protein
3
Tumor necrosis factor-related activation induced cytokine
4
Osteoprotegerin
5
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (Cbfa1) gene
QUESTION 26
The human genome is comprised of approximately how many genes:
1
1,000
2
5,000
3
10,000
4
30,000
5
100,000
QUESTION 27
Which of the following portions of a gene directly codes for the messenger RNA for eventual translation into proteins on the ribosome:
1
Promoter region
2
Intron
3
Exon
4
C oding region
5
Activator or repressor binding site
QUESTION 28
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of achondroplasia:
1
X-linked recessive
2
Sporadic
3
Autosomal dominant
4
Autosomal recessive
5
X-linked dominant
QUESTION 29
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Marfanâs syndrome:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 30
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 31
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of multiple hereditary exostoses:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 32
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of polydactyly:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 33
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of hypophosphatasia:
1
Austosomal dominant
2
Austosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 34
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of sickle cell disease:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 35
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Gaucher's disease:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 36
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of homocystinuria:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 37
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern for hypophosphatemic rickets:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 38
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern for hemophilia A:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 39
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Duchennes muscular dystrophy:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 40
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Becker's muscular dystrophy:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 41
Which of the following conditions is transmitted by an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern:
1
Hemophilia A
2
Hypophosphatemic rickets
3
Duchennes muscular dystrophy
4
Achondroplasia
5
Hypophosphatasia
QUESTION 42
Which of the following conditions is transmitted by an autosomal-dominant pattern:
1
Hemophilia A
2
Achondroplasia
3
Hypophosphatemic rickets
4
Duchennes muscular dystrophy
5
Hypophosphatasia
QUESTION 43
A man with an autosomal-dominant condition married a woman without the condition. What is the probability that one of the offspring will be affected:
1
0%
2
25%
3
50%
4
75%
5
100%
QUESTION 44
A man with a single autosomal-recessive gene marries a woman who does not carry the recessive gene. The chance of one of the children expressing the phenotype of the recessive gene is:
1
0%
2
25%
3
50%
4
75%
5
100%
QUESTION 45
A man with a single autosomal-recessive gene marries a woman who does not carry the recessive gene. The chance of one of the children carrying the recessive gene is:
1
0%
2
25%
3
50%
4
75%
5
100%
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Medically Verified Content by
Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
Chapter Index