Orthopedic Board Review: Mock Exam Set 574 - 100 High-Yield MCQs (Foot & Ankle Focus)
14 Apr 2026
102 min read
65 Views

Key Takeaway
This page provides 100 randomized, high-yield orthopedic surgery multiple-choice questions for ABOS, OITE, and FRCS board exam preparation. Surgeons can test their knowledge across various subspecialties with Mock Exam Set 574, designed to reinforce critical concepts and enhance exam readiness for successful certification.
Foot And Ankle Free Review | Dr Hutaif Foot &...
00:00
Start Quiz
Question 1High Yield
A 72-year-old woman has had progressively increasing pain in the right knee for the past 6 months. She denies any trauma and has no pain in any other joints, but she notes occasional swelling in the knee and a catching sensation. Figures 31a and 31b show the plain radiographs and Figure 31c shows the MRI scan. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
Explanation
31b 31c The plain radiographs show a defect in the lateral femoral condyle and narrowing of the lateral joint space. The MRI scan shows a lesion consistent with osteonecrosis of the lateral femoral condyle. The treatment alternatives for this condition are an osteotomy or a total knee replacement, but a total knee replacement is the treatment of choice for a 72-year-old patient. Arthroscopy or an osteochondral bone graft will not address her symptoms. A valgus osteotomy will exacerbate the problem by overloading the lateral joint, which is already diseased. Lotke PA, Ecker ML: Osteonecrosis of the knee. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:470-473.
References:
- Ecker ML, Lotke PA: Osteonecrosis of the medial part of the tibial plateau. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:596-601.
Question 2High Yield
A 10-year-old girl has a right elbow deformity that is the result of trauma 5 years ago. She has no pain despite the arm deformity. The radiographs in Figures 42a and 42b show complete healing. This radiographic appearance demonstrates what complication?



Explanation
Cubitus varus is a common complication of displaced supracondylar humeral fractures that are treated with closed reduction and cast immobilization. Treatment with closed reduction and percutaneous pinning decreases the incidence of this complication. Cubitus varus also can occur in minimally displaced fractures when unrecognized collapse of the medial column of the distal humerus is not corrected with manipulation. This can be detected on physical examination of the carrying angle or on radiographs measuring Baumann's angle, both in comparison to the opposite side. Cubitus varus may result in unacceptable cosmesis and may predispose the patient to fractures of the lateral condyle. The lateral radiograph demonstrates the crescent sign from overlap of the distal humerus with the olecranon seen in patients with cubitus varus. Patients with growth arrest to the medial trochlear physis would have atrophy of the trochlea on radiographs. Flynn JM, Sarwark JF, Waters PM, et al: The surgical management of pediatric fractures of the upper extremity. Instr Course Lect 2003;52:635-45. Papandrea R, Waters PM: Posttraumatic reconstruction of the elbow in the pediatric patient. Clin Orthop 2000;370:115-126.
Question 3High Yield
The photomicrograph seen in Figure 41 shows which of the following conditions?
Explanation
Explanation
The photomicrograph shows a synovial cell sarcoma with a characteristic histology of a biphasic pattern of pleomorphic spindle cells and well-differentiated cuboidal to columnar cells forming gland-like spaces. The glandular zones contain mucous-like material that stains positively with periodic acid Schiff. Microscopic calcifications are usually found. Synovial cell sarcoma has a high rate of local recurrence as well as metastases. It is the most common malignancy found in the foot. Krall RA, Kostianovsky M, Patchefsky AS: Synovial sarcoma: A clinical, pathological and ultrastructural study of 26 cases supporting the recognition of a monophasic variant. Am J Surg Pathol 1981;5:137-151.
References:
- Wright PH, Sim FH, Soule EH, Taylor WF: Synovial sarcoma. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1982;64:112-122.
Question 4High Yield
Figures 11a and 11b show the radiographs of a 50-year-old man who was struck by a car. Treatment should consist of



Explanation
The patient has a displaced femoral neck fracture. Although the treatment remains controversial, most clinicians advocate either a closed or open reduction in younger active patients. Achieving an anatomic reduction is necessary to avoid loss of reduction, nonunion, or osteonecrosis. An acceptable reduction may have up to 15 degrees of valgus angulation and 10 degrees of posterior angulation. Parallel multiple screws or pins are the most common method of internal fixation. Prosthetic replacement is generally reserved for older and less active individuals. Callaghan JJ, Dennis DA, Paprosky WG, et al (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1995, pp 97-108.
Question 5High Yield
A 64-year-old man undergoes a primary total knee arthroplasty. Three months after surgery he reports persistent pain, weakness, and difficulty ambulating. Postoperative radiographs are shown in Figures 6a through 6c. What is the best course of action at this time?





Explanation
The Merchant view reveals subluxation of the patellar component. The etiology of maltracking of the patella includes internal rotation of the femoral component, internal rotation of the tibial component, excessive patellar height, and lateralization of the patella component. The treatment of choice in this patient is revision total knee arthroplasty with external rotation of the femoral component. Preoperatively the patient also may require a lateral release, revision of the tibial component if it is internally rotated, and possibly a soft-tissue realignment. Component malalignment needs to be addressed first. Kelly MA: Extensor mechanism complications in total knee arthroplasty. Instr Course Lect 2004;53:193-199. Malkani AL, Karandikar N: Complications following total knee arthroplasty. Sem Arthroplasty 2003;14:203-214.
Question 6High Yield
Figures 46a through 46e show the radiographs of a 22-year-old man who injured his wrist in a motorcycle accident. He has no other injuries. What is the best course of action?









Explanation
The patient has a fracture-dislocation of the radiocarpal joint. Attached to the large radial styloid fragment are the extrinsic wrist ligaments to the carpus. This injury should be treated with open reduction and internal fixation of the styloid fracture. Radiolunate fusion or extrinsic ligament repair is suggested when the extrinsic ligaments are ruptured, resulting in ulnar translocation of the carpus. Dumontier C, Meyer ZU, Reckendorf G, et al: Radiocarpal dislocations: Classification and proposal for treatment: A review of twenty-seven cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:212.
Question 7High Yield
What tendon has an intra-articular (instrasynovial) location in the knee joint?
Explanation
Explanation
The popliteal tendon arises from the posterior aspect of the tibia and courses through the knee joint through the popliteus hiatus of the lateral meniscus before attaching on the lateral femur anterior to the lateral collateral ligament. It is the only tendon in the knee joint that can be viewed directly on arthroscopy. Kimura M, Shirakura K, Hasegawa A, Kobayashi Y, Udagawa E: Anatomy and pathophysiology of the popliteal tendon area in the lateral meniscus: 1. Arthroscopic and anatomical investigation. Arthroscopy 1992;8:419-423.
References:
- Arnoczky SP, Skyhar MJ, Wickiewicz TL: Basic science of the knee, in McGinty JB (ed): Operative Arthroscopy. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1991, pp 155-182.
Question 8High Yield
Which of the following findings is considered the strongest indication for surgical treatment of a mallet fracture of the distal phalanx?
Explanation
Explanation
The majority of mallet fractures can be treated nonsurgically with a distal interphalangeal joint extension splint. Excellent results can be obtained in most patients with splinting alone. The fragment size, amount of displacement, and degree of articular incongruity usually do not affect final outcome, as long as the joint is reduced. Surgical fixation takes on several forms but is fraught with complications including skin/wound problems, loss of fixation, nonunion, and stiffness of the distal interphalangeal joint. Volar subluxation of the distal phalanx remains the primary indication for surgical treatment. Green DP, Butler TE Jr: Fractures and dislocations in the hand, in Rockwood CA, Green DP, Bucholz RW, Heckman JD (eds): Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adults, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 621-623.
References:
- Light TR (ed): Hand Surgery Update 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 19-28.
Question 9High Yield
A 13-year-old girl has had pain in her ankle and difficulty with sporting activities for the past 6 months. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and use of a short leg cast have provided minimal relief. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 43a and 43b. What is the next most appropriate step in treatment?
Explanation
Explanation
43b The MRI scan shows an obvious talocalcaneal coalition of the medial facet. Because nonsurgical management has failed, surgical resection of the coalition is indicated. Arthrodesis would be indicated only if resection fails to relieve pain or if advanced degeneration of the hindfoot joints is present. McCormack TJ, Olney B, Asher M: Talocalcaneal coalition resection: A 10-year follow-up. J Pediatr Orthop 1997;17:13-15.
References:
- Thometz J: Tarsal coalition. Foot Ankle Clin 2000;5:103-118.
Question 10High Yield
Figure 53 shows a thoracolumbar specimen as viewed from posterior to anterior following removal of all posterior elements. Which of the following structures does the red string pass under?
Explanation
Explanation
The string passes under the ligamentum flavum as it runs from the posterior aspect of the vertebra above to the inferior aspect of the vertebra below in the sagittal midline. This is an important structure in diskectomy and in posterior approaches to the thoracolumbar spine and neural elements. It is rarely visualized in its entirety because typical exposures provide only a limited view.
References:
- Frymoyer JW (ed): The Adult Spine: Principles and Practice. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1991, vol 2, p 1465.
Question 11High Yield
A 10-year-old girl has a midshaft both bone forearm fracture. After attempted closed reduction, alignment consists of bayonet apposition, 10 degrees of malrotation, and 8 degrees of volar angulation. Management should now consist of

Explanation
Acceptable alignment in both bone forearm fractures is related to age and location. In children younger than age 9 years, angulations of 15 degrees and malrotation of 45 degrees are acceptable. In children older than age 9 years, acceptable alignment is 10 degrees of angulation and 30 degrees of malrotation. Bayonet apposition is acceptable provided that the angular and rotational reductions are held within these guidelines. A long arm cast provides better control of deforming forces than a short arm cast. Do TT, Strub WM, Foad SL, et al: Reduction versus remodeling in pediatric distal forearm fractures: A preliminary cost analysis. J Pediatr Orthop B 2003;12:109-115. Flynn JM: Pediatric forearm fractures: Decision making, surgical techniques, and complications. Instr Course Lect 2002;51:355-360. Ring D, Waters PM, Hotchkiss RN, et al: Pediatric floating elbow. J Pediatr Orthop 2001;21:456-459.
Question 12High Yield
Figure 37 shows the clinical photograph of a 1-day-old infant who weighed 10.25 lb at birth. Examination reveals an absent right Moro reflex and limited active motion of the right shoulder, elbow, and wrist, but flexion of the fingers. Passive range of motion of the shoulder and elbow is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Explanation
The patient's right upper extremity is held in the "head waiter's" posture with the shoulder internally rotated, the elbow extended, and the wrist in flexion. The Erb type of obstetrical brachial plexus palsy involves the C5 and C6 nerve root, and occasionally, as in this child, the C7 nerve root. Obstetrical palsy is a traction injury, and is associated with a high birth weight, shoulder dystocia, cephalopelvic disproportion, or the use of forceps. Erb palsy is four times more common than injury to the entire plexus or injury to the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It results from the shoulder being depressed while the head and neck are laterally rotated, extended, and tilted in the opposite direction. Most patients recover wrist extension and elbow flexion. Patients with residual weakness of shoulder external rotation and abduction will benefit from release of the pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major, with transfer of the latissimus dorsi and the teres major to the posterosuperior aspect of the rotator cuff. Recent studies using arthrograms and CT scans have shown a higher incidence of posterior glenoid deficiency and posterior subluxation than that observed with plain radiographs. The posterior subluxation or dislocation can be effectively reduced by tendon release and transfer procedures. Hoffer MM, Phipps GJ: Closed reduction and tendon transfer for treatment of dislocation of the glenohumeral joint secondary to brachial plexus birth palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:997-1001. Pearl ML, Edgerton BW: Glenoid deformity secondary to brachial plexus birth palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:659-667.
Question 13High Yield
The mother of an otherwise healthy 1-month-old infant reports that he is not moving his left leg after falling from his high chair 2 days ago. He has a temperature of 99.5 degrees F (37.5 degrees C). Examination reveals that the left thigh is moderately tender to palpation. Because the infant is apprehensive, range of motion is difficult to quantify, but appears to be normal at the hips and ankles. Range of motion of the left knee is approximately 25 degrees to 90 degrees. A radiograph of the leg is shown in Figure 27. Management should consist of
Explanation
Explanation
The patient has a bucket-handle fracture of the distal femur with bilateral corner fractures of the distal femur and a transverse fracture of the proximal tibia. These fractures are virtually pathognomonic of child abuse. The infant should be admitted to the hospital, and child protection services should be notified for investigation of possible abuse. A skeletal survey should be obtained, along with laboratory studies that include a CBC, a platelet count, a prothrombin time, a partial thromboplastin time, and a bleeding time. Akbarnia BA: The role of the orthopaedic surgeon in child abuse, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell & Winter's Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 4. Philadelphia, Pa, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 1315-1334.
References:
- Black GB: Child abuse fractures, in Letts RM (ed): Management of Pediatric Fractures. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1994, pp 931-944.
Question 14High Yield
A 24-year-old man is ejected from his motorcycle and sustains a significant hip injury. The fracture shown in Figures 64a through 64e is best described as what type of fracture?
Explanation
Explanation
64b 64c 64d 64e The radiographs and CT scans reveal an anterior column acetabular fracture. The fracture has quadrilateral plate extension but does not exit out the posterior column. The CT scans confirm an intact posterior column and no wall fracture. A transverse fracture is best seen on the CT scan and runs in the sagittal plane, not the coronal plane. Letournel E, Judet R: Fractures of the Acetabulum, ed 2. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1993, pp 115-140.
Question 15High Yield
A 46-year-old man sustains a calcaneal fracture in a fall off a scaffold. During surgical reconstruction using an extended lateral incision, the fracture is reduced and fixed with a plate and screws. One of the posterior facet screws is found to be 5 mm out of the bone on the Harris view. What structure is most likely at risk because of this finding?
Explanation
Explanation
The abductor hallucis muscle is the most medial structure. The posterior tibial tendon and the flexor digitorum longus tendon lie more cephalad to the sustentaculum tali. There is a groove under the sustentaculum for the flexor hallucis longus tendon. Subchondral lag screws placed across the posterior facet exit the medial side of the calcaneus in this groove. Just medial to the flexor hallucis longus tendon is the neurovascular bundle. A screw that is out of the bone a short distance can cause triggering of the flexor hallucis longus tendon. Patients will report loss of great toe excursion in the early postoperative period. Accurate measurement of subchondral lag screw length avoids this complication. Hollinshead WH: Anatomy for Surgeons, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, pp 802-852. Rosenberg AS, Cheung Y: Diagnostic imaging of the ankle and foot, in Jahss MH (ed): Disorders of the Foot and Ankle, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1991, pp 109-154.
References:
- Waggoner AM, Smith JW: Internal fixation of calcaneus fractures: An anatomical study of structures at risk. J Orthop Trauma 1995;9:107-112.
Question 16High Yield
A patient with degenerative osteoarthritis of the sternoclavicular (SC) joint reports constant pain, discomfort, and marked prominence and instability of the SC joint following medial clavicle resection. Which of the following procedures is most likely to produce these signs and symptoms?
Explanation
Medial clavicle excision alone can be associated with postoperative instability of the clavicle. The clavicle should be stabilized to the first rib by reconstructing the costoclavicular ligament if it is torn or if the resection is lateral to its clavicular insertion. Therefore, care must be taken to resect only that part of the clavicle that is medial to the costoclavicular ligament. Adequate protection for vital structures that lie posterior to the medial end of the clavicle must be provided. Bremner RA: Nonarticular noninfected subacute arthritis of the sternoclavicular joint. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1959;41:749-753.
Question 17High Yield
What additional percentage of energy expenditure above baseline is required for ambulation after an above-the-knee amputation?
Explanation
Patients with an above-the-knee amputation have a 65% increase in energy expenditure. A patient with a transtibial amputation requires 25% more energy above baseline values; however, bilateral transtibial amputations are associated with a 40% increase in energy expenditure. Otis JC, Lane JM, Kroll MA: Energy cost during gait in osteosarcoma patients after resection and knee replacement and after above-the-knee amputation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:606-611.
Question 18High Yield
Injury to which of the following structures has been reported following iliac crest bone graft harvest?

Explanation
Injury to the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve and the ilioinguinal nerve have both been described with an anterior iliac crest bone graft harvest. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve may be injured from retraction after elevating the iliacus muscle or from direct injury when the nerve actually courses over the crest. A posterior crest harvest can injure the superior gluteal artery if a surgical instrument violates the sciatic notch. Injury to the inferior gluteal artery has not been described; it leaves the pelvis below the piriformis muscle belly and should not be at risk even with a violation of the sciatic notch. Injury to the ilioinguinal nerve has been reported from vigorous retraction of the iliacus muscle after exposing the inner table of the anterior ilium. Cluneal nerve injury may occur with posterior crest harvest, particularly if the skin incision is horizontal or extends more than 8 cm superolateral from the posterior superior iliac spine. Kurz LT, Garfin SR, Booth RE Jr: Iliac bone grafting: Techniques and complications of harvesting, in Garfin SR (ed): Complications of Spine Surgery. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1989, pp 323-341.
Question 19High Yield
A 25-year-old carpenter falls on his outstretched arm. What physical finding best correlates with the lesion seen on the MRI scan shown in Figure 3?
Explanation
Explanation
The MRI scan shows disruption of the subscapularis muscle. Subscapularis rupture is associated with weakness in internal rotation as shown with a positive lift-off test as described by Gerber and Krushell. The belly press test also has been shown to be a useful clinical test for this problem. Weakness in external rotation and abduction is more consistent with supraspinatus and infraspinatus tears. Deltoid atrophy is associated with an axillary nerve injury. Loss of biceps contour is associated with rupture of the long head of the biceps. Gerber C, Krushell RJ: Isolated rupture of the tendon of the subscapularis muscle: Clinical features in 16 cases. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1991;73:389-394.
References:
- Greis PE, Kuhn JE, Schultheis J, et al: Validation of the lift-off test and analysis of subscapularis activity during maximal internal rotation. Am J Sports Med 1996;24:589-593.
Question 20High Yield
A baseball player has had diffuse scapular soreness for the past 8 weeks. He reports that it began insidiously over several days and gradually has become worse. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals drooping of the shoulder, with lateral winging of the scapula at rest. He is otherwise neurologically intact. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
Lateral scapular winging is characteristic of trapezius palsy, whereas medial scapular winging is characteristic of long thoracic nerve palsy. During sports activity, injury to the spinal accessory nerve is rare but may occur with blunt or stretching trauma. Patients often report an asymmetric neckline, drooping shoulder, winging of the scapula, and weakness of forward elevation. Evaluation should include a complete electrodiagnostic examination. Wiater JM, Bigliani LU: Spinal accessory nerve injury. Clin Orthop 1999;368:5-16. Wiater JM, Flatow EL: Long thoracic nerve injury. Clin Orthop 1999;368:17-27. Mariani PP, Santoriello P, Maresca G: Spontaneous accessory nerve palsy. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1998;7:545-546. Porter P, Fernandez GN: Stretch-induced spinal accessory nerve palsy: A case report. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2001;10:92-94.
Question 21High Yield
Figures 28a and 28b show AP and lateral radiographs of the knee. Based on these findings, which of the following structures has most likely been injured?



Explanation
The radiographs show a posterior knee dislocation. Knee dislocations almost always involve rupture of both the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments. Collateral ligament injuries also are common. Arterial, nerve, and tendon injuries each occur in less than half of knee dislocations. Schenck RC Jr, Hunter RE, Ostrum RF, et al: Knee dislocations. Instr Course Lect 1999;48:515-522.
Question 22High Yield
What is the most significant factor affecting long-term survival for a patient with bone sarcoma?

Explanation
The most significant impact on long-term survival is the presence or absence of identifiable metastatic disease on initial presentation. All of these factors have been shown to be predictive of long-term survival to varying degrees. Enneking WF, Spanier SS, Goodman MA: A system for the surgical staging of musculoskeletal sarcoma. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1980;153:106-120.
Question 23High Yield
A 56-year-old man underwent right total shoulder arthroplasty 2 months ago. Recently while reaching with his shoulder in a flexed and adducted position, he noted shoulder pain and afterwards he could not externally rotate his arm. An axillary radiograph is shown in Figure 30. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Explanation
Explanation
Anteversion of the humeral component may result in anterior instability of the component. Posterior instability after total shoulder arthroplasty is usually the result of some combination of the following factors: untreated anterior soft-tissue contractures, excessive posterior capsular laxity, and excessive retroversion of the humeral and/or glenoid components. Cofield RH, Edgerton BC: Total shoulder arthroplasty: Complications and revision surgery. Instr Course Lect 1990;39:449-462.
References:
- Wirth MA, Rockwood CA Jr: Complications of total shoulder replacement arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:603-616.
Question 24High Yield
A 15-year-old boy reports feeling a pop and notes sudden giving way of the left knee while playing basketball. He has immediate pain and swelling in the knee. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 32. A small avulsion fragment from the lateral tibial margin is the only finding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Explanation
An avulsion fracture from the lateral tibial margin carries the eponym Segond fracture and is pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. The fragment is located posterior to Gerdy's tubercle and is superior and anterior to the fibular head. It represents an avulsion of the lateral capsular ligament of the knee and is caused by the same mechanism that causes the ACL tear. The pes anserinus is the insertion point of the medial hamstrings and would not be affected in a lateral avulsion injury. The posterior cruciate ligament may be seen on a lateral view if associated with an avulsion fragment, but a tear of the PCL generally cannot be diagnosed on an AP view. The insertion of the iliotibial band is broad and is unlikely to produce an avulsion injury such as that seen in the radiograph. This view is not consistent with the appearance of a lateral collateral ligament injury. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 533-557.
References:
- Larson RL, Tailon M: Anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency: Principles of treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:26-35.
Question 25High Yield
What structure is located at the tip of the arrow in Figure 18?
Explanation
Explanation
The structure shown is the exiting nerve root at the L3-4 disk, which is the right L3 root.
References:
- An H: Diagnostic imaging of the spine, in Principles and Techniques of Spine Surgery. Baltimore, MD, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 1998, pp 102-125.
Question 26High Yield
Which of the following is considered the best cementless acetabular reconstruction method when planning for total hip arthroplasty in a patient with developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?

Explanation
Anatomic positioning of the acetabular component has been shown to be the optimal position for reconstruction of the acetabulum in total hip arthroplasty for DDH. The use of medialized component positioning has been shown to be successful at maximizing the host bone coverage and minimizing the use of bone graft to structurally support the acetabular component. A small acetabular component can be used successfully as long as the femoral head is also reduced in size to maintain the thickness of the acetabular polyethylene. High and lateral positioning for the acetabular reconstruction will result in an increase in the joint reaction forces. In addition, a high and lateral placement will not provide adequate bone to stabilize the reconstruction. Numair J, Joshi AB, Murphy JC, Porter ML, Hardinge K: Total hip arthroplasty for congenital dysplasia or dislocation of the hip: Survivorship analysis and long-term results. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:1352-1360. Dorr LD, Tawakkol S, Moorthy M, Long W, Wan Z: Medial protrusio technique for placement of a porous-coated, hemispherical acetabular component without cement in a total hip arthroplasty in patients who have acetabular dysplasia. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:83-92.
Question 27High Yield
A 16-year-old girl has a painful foot mass. A radiograph, MRI scan, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 35a through 35d. What is the most likely diagnosis?







Explanation
Synovial sarcoma should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a foot mass; however, the histopathology shows a typical example of PVNS, with hemosiderin, giant cells, and synovium. Synovial chondromatosis would have metaplastic cartilage in the synovium. The radiograph shows subtle erosion of the lateral cortex of the cuboid, and the MRI scan shows a soft-tissue mass. Ghert MA, Scully SP, Harrelson JM: Pigmented villonodular synovitis of the foot and ankle: A review of six cases. Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:326-330. Jones BC, Sundaram M, Kransdorf MJ: Synovial sarcoma: MR imaging findings in 34 patients. Am J Roentgenol 1993;161:827-830. Sartoris DJ, Resnick D: Magnetic resonance imaging of pediatric foot and ankle disorders. J Foot Surg 1990;29:489-494.
Question 28High Yield
An 18-year-old boy has had pain in the right knee for the past 6 months. Examination reveals some fullness behind the knee but no significant palpable soft-tissue mass. There is no effusion, and he has full knee range of motion. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. A radiograph and MRI scans are shown in Figures 33a through 33c, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 33d and 33e. What is the most likely diagnosis?









Explanation
The patient has parosteal osteosarcoma. The posterior aspect of the distal femur is the typical location for this variant of osteogenic sarcoma. The imaging studies indicate a surface lesion with no involvement of the adjacent intramedullary canal. The histologic appearance is that of a low-grade fibroblastic osteosarcoma, consisting of relatively mature bone and a bland fibroblastic stroma lacking cytologic atypia and mitotic activity. A cartilaginous component is also frequently seen. Classic osteosarcoma typically has a more aggressive radiologic and histologic appearance. Sessile osteochondromas, while common behind the knee, have a presence of hematopoietic marrow and fat. The cartilage found in the associated cartilaginous cap is oriented. Chondrosarcomas are more typical in an older age group and have a histologic pattern consisting of malignant chondroid. Wold LA, et al: Atlas of Orthopaedic Pathology. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, pp 20-21.
Question 29High Yield
The lateral arm flap is based on what arterial supply?
Explanation
Explanation
The lateral arm flap is based on the posterior radial collateral artery, a branch of the profunda brachial artery. Katsaros J, Tan E, Zoltie N: The use of the lateral arm flap in upper limb surgery. J Hand Surg 1991;16:598-604.
References:
- Katsaros J, Schusterman M, Beppu M, et al: The lateral upper arm flap: Anatomy and clinical applications. Ann Plast Surg 1984;12:489-499.
Question 30High Yield
A 32-year-old woman has an isolated left posterior wall acetabular fracture in which about 25% of the wall surface is involved. Which of the following criteria would indicate the need for surgical reduction and fixation?
Explanation
Fractures with a posterior wall fragment that makes up less than one third of the surface generally are stable. Conversely, fractures with a fragment making up more than 50% of the surface are unstable. Patients with an intermediate fracture fragment should undergo a fluoroscopic examination under sedation or anesthesia to determine if the fragment is truly stable. If so, the patient can be treated nonoperatively and safely mobilized. Tornetta P III: Non-operative management of acetabular fractures: The use of dynamic stress views. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1999;81:67-70.
Question 31High Yield
What is the treatment of choice for the injury shown in Figures 20a through 20c?
Explanation
Explanation
20b 20c The radiographs show multiple carpometacarpal dislocations. Reduction is often obtainable but difficult to maintain. Internal fixation is required to maintain the reduction, preferably with Kirschner wires. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning is preferred by some surgeons. Others recommend open reduction to remove irreconstructable osteochondral fragments from the individual joints and to ensure correct reduction of the carpometacarpal joints. Kirschner wires are removed at 6 to 8 weeks. Prokuski LJ, Eglseder WA Jr: Concurrent dorsal dislocations and fracture-dislocations of the index, long, ring, and small (second to fifth) carpometacarpal joints. J Orthop Trauma 2001;15:549-554.
References:
- Lawlis JF III, Gunther SF: Carpometacarpal dislocations: Long-term follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:52-59.
Question 32High Yield
When using a two-incision approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a Hawkins III talar fracture-dislocation involving the talar neck and body, what anatomic structure must be preserved to optimize outcome?
Explanation
Explanation
A Hawkins III fracture-dislocation generally presents with posteromedial displacement with the deltoid ligament intact. Therefore, the only remaining blood supply is the deltoid branch of the artery of the tarsal canal originating from the posterior tibial artery. Often, the medial malleolus is fractured, assisting in reduction and visualization of fracture reduction. If the medial malleolus is intact, a medial malleolus osteotomy allows visualization of the reduction without compromising the last remaining blood supply to the talus. Mulfinger GL, Trueta J: The blood supply of the talus. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1970;52:160-167.
References:
- Vallier HA, Nork SE, Barei DP, et al: Talar neck fractures: Results and outcomes. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:1616-1624.
Question 33High Yield
It is important to avoid which of the following exercises in the immediate postoperative period after humeral head replacement for an acute four-part fracture?
Explanation
Explanation
It is critical to withhold active range of motion of the shoulder within the first 6 weeks after arthroplasty for acute fracture to prevent tuberosity avulsion. When radiographic and clinical findings show that the tuberosities are healed, active motion may be instituted, usually at 6 to 8 weeks. Immediate passive range-of-motion exercises, including external rotation with a stick, pendulum, and passive elevation, should begin within the limits of the repair on the day of surgery to prevent stiffness. Hartstock LA, Estes WJ, Murray CA, et al: Shoulder hemiarthroplasty for proximal humerus fractures. Orthop Clin North Am 1998;29:467-475.
References:
- Hughes M, Neer CS: Glenohumeral joint replacment and postoperative rehabilitation. Phys Ther 1975;55:850-858.
Question 34High Yield
Figures 40a and 40b show the pre- and postoperative radiographs of an 82-year-old woman with bilateral hip pain who has had staged total hip arthroplasties. To minimize potential injury to the sciatic nerve at the time of surgery, the surgeon should



Explanation
To improve hip biomechanics and secure more suitable bone for acetabular fixation, the true acetabulum is often resurfaced in patients who have developmental dysplasia of the hip, thus lowering the hip center and lengthening the leg. Acute lengthening of more than 3 cm will place excessive tension on the sciatic nerve and require a femoral shortening to avoid sciatic nerve injury. The other maneuvers will not relieve sciatic nerve tension because of limb lengthening. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 430-431.
Question 35High Yield
Which of the following patients with cerebral palsy is considered the ideal candidate for a selective dorsal rhizotomy?
Explanation
The enthusiasm with which dorsal rhizotomy was received led to the broadening of selection criteria with poorer results. The ideal candidate is an ambulatory 4- to 8-year-old child with spastic diplegia who does not use assistive devices or have joint contractures. The child must be old enough to actively participate in the rigorous postoperative physical therapy program. The use of the procedure in an ambulatory 16-year-old patient is less desirable because joint contractures will most likely have developed to a varying degree. The hemiplegic child is best treated by orthopaedic interventions. Oppenheim WL: Selective posterior rhizotomy for spastic cerebral palsy: A review. Clin Orthop 1990;253:20-29. Renshaw TS, Green NE, Griffin PP, Root L: Cerebral palsy: Orthopaedic management. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:1590-1606.
Question 36High Yield
A 75-year-old woman reports foot pain and states that her foot has become progressively "flatter" in the past 3 years. Custom inserts and physical therapy have failed to provide relief. Examination reveals a flexible hindfoot and mild heel cord contracture. The patient is able to perform a single limb heel rise. Weight-bearing radiographs are shown in Figures 21a through 21d. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Explanation
Explanation
21b 21c 21d The patient has end-stage midfoot arthritis, with a secondary flatfoot deformity through the midfoot. The ability to perform a single limb heel rise indicates that the posterior tibial tendon is functioning, and the weight-bearing radiographs show normal calcaneal pitch and talar head coverage, thus confirming that the flatfoot deformity is isolated to the midfoot. Therefore, the most appropriate treatment is medial column arthrodesis and heel cord lengthening. The other listed procedures are not indicated because they are used in the management of adult flatfoot from posterior tibial tendon insufficiency. Toolan BC: Midfoot arthrodesis: Challenges and treatment alternatives. Foot Ankle Clin 2002;7:75-93.
References:
- Horton GA, Olney BW: Deformity correction and arthrodesis of the midfoot with a medial plate. Foot Ankle 1993;14:493-499.
Question 37High Yield
A 12-year-old girl who has a history of frequent tripping and falling also has bilateral symmetric hand weakness, high arched feet, absent patellar and Achilles tendon reflexes, and excessive wear on the lateral border of her shoes. She reports that she has multiple paternal family members with similar deformities. She most likely has a defect of what protein?
Explanation
Explanation
The girl shows clinical features of hereditary motor sensory neuropathy type 1, Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. The most common type of this autosomal-dominant disease is due to an underlying defect in the gene coding for peripheral myelin protein-22 on chromosome 17. Many other less common mutations have been identified in this family of neuropathies. Dystrophin is a protein that is abnormal in Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, which affects males and is diagnosed earlier. Type I collagen is defective in osteogenesis imperfecta. Alpha-L-iduronidase is defective in mucopolysaccharidosis type I, Hurler's syndrome. Defective cartilage oligomeric matrix protein is associated with some forms of multiple epiphyseal dysplasia. Patel PI, Roa BB, Welcher AA, et al: The gene for the peripheral myelin protein PMP-22 is a candidate for Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 1A. Nat Genet 1992;1:159-165.
References:
- Harding AE: From the syndrome of Charcot, Marie and Tooth to disorders of peripheral myelin proteins. Brain 1995;118:809-818.
Question 38High Yield
The patient in Figure 55 is actively attempting to make a fist. This clinical scenario suggests which of the following anatomic lesions?
Explanation
Explanation
The clinical presentation is characteristic of a high median nerve palsy. When trying to make a fist, the patient is unable to flex the thumb and index fingers due to paralysis of flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the thumb and the distal and proximal interphalangel joints of the index finger. This hand attitude differs from the anterior interosseous nerve lesion in which loss of distal interphalangeal joint flexion is seen in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Posterior interosseous nerve syndrome presents with dropped fingers at the metacarpophalangeal joints with wrist extension in radial deviation. Wrist and finger drop is the typical posture of patients with radial nerve lesions.
References:
- Kline DG, Hudson AR: Nerve Injuries: Operative Results for Major Nerve Injuries, Entrapments and Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1995, p 189.
Question 39High Yield
An 18-year-old gymnast has had a 1-year history of foot pain. Examination reveals medial midfoot tenderness without swelling. Non-weight-bearing in a cast for 6 weeks has failed to provide relief. An axial CT scan of the midfoot is shown in Figure 20. What is the optimal treatment for this condition?

Explanation
Stress fractures of the navicular are often seen in running and jumping sports. Whereas most individuals heal with nonsurgical management consisting of 6 weeks of casting, this gymnast has had pain for 1 year and nonsurgical management has failed. Open reduction with bone grafting is the preferred treatment. Quirk RM: Stress fractures of the navicular. Foot Ankle Int 1998;19:494-496.
Question 40High Yield
Which of the following tissues used for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction has the highest maximum load to failure?
Explanation
Explanation
While the patellar tendon ligament is considered by many to be the tissue of choice for ACL reconstruction, more recent studies have shown that the quadruple semitendinosus and gracilis tendon graft has the greatest stiffness and offers the highest maximum load to failure. Hamner DL, Brown CH Jr, Steiner ME, Hecker AT, Hayes WC: Hamstring tendon grafts for reconstruction of the anterior cruciate ligament: Biomechanical evaluation of the use of multiple strands and tensioning techniques. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:549-557. Cooper DE, Deng XH, Burstein AL, Warren RF: The strength of the central third patellar tendon graft: A biomechanical study. Am J Sports Med 1993;21:8l8-823. Brown CH Jr, Steiner ME, Carson EW: The use of hamstring tendons for anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction: Technique and results. Clin Sports Med 1993;12:723-756.
References:
- Engebretsen L, Lewis JL: Graft selection and biomechanical considerations in ACL reconstruction. Sports Med Arthroscopy Rev 1996;4:336-341.
Question 41High Yield
The use of a screw between the clavicle and the coracoid process to maintain the clavicle and acromioclavicular (AC) joint in a reduced position is a treatment option for AC joint separations. Screw removal is generally recommended after soft-tissue healing. What effect does this rigid coracoclavicular fixation have on shoulder kinematics?
Explanation
This issue has been debated since Inman published his classic study on clavicular rotation in 1944. Subsequently, it has been shown by several authors that the clinical evaluation of patients with either coracoclavicular screws in place or with arthrodesis of the coracoclavicular reveals little to no loss of shoulder motion. This is most likely the result of synchronous motion of the scapula and clavicle in shoulder movements. Flatow EL: The biomechanics of the acromioclavicular, sternoclavicular, and scapulothoracic joints. Instr Course Lect 1993;42:237-245. Kenedy JC, Cameron H: Complete dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1954;36:202-208. Rockwood CA Jr, Williams GR, Young CD: Disorders of the acromioclavicular joint, in Rockwood CA Jr, Matsen FA III (eds): The Shoulder. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, vol 1, pp 483-553.
Question 42High Yield
A sagittal T1-weighted MRI scan of the knee joint is shown in Figure 23. What structure is identified by the arrow?

Explanation
On T1-weighted images, the posterior cruciate ligament is a low-signal (black) structure that courses from the posterior aspect of the tibia to the medial femoral condyle. The posterior cruciate ligament can appear as arcuate, U-shaped, or kinked. The other structures have similar signal but different anatomic locations. Gross ML, Grover JS, Bassett LW, Seeger LL, Finerman GA: Magnetic resonance imaging of the posterior cruciate ligament: Clinical use to improve diagnostic accuracy. Am J Sports Med 1992;20:732-737.
Question 43High Yield
Figure 40 shows the AP radiograph of a 55-year-old man who reports left knee pain. Which of the following conditions is least likely to produce this radiographic presentation?

Explanation
The radiograph reveals densities within the articular cartilage of the knee commonly referred to as chondrocalcinosis. The term chondrocalcinosis refers to the presence of calcium-containing crystals detected as radiodensities in cartilage. Calcium-containing crystals other than calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate may also deposit in articular cartilage and menisci, producing both radiographically detectable densities in cartilage and joint inflammation or degeneration. Hemochromatosis, alkaptonuria (ochronosis), and Wilson's disease are characterized by cellular deposition of iron, calcium, and copper ions, respectively, into various tissues including articular cartilage and can give this appearance. Septic arthritis does not usually cause chondrocalcinosis. Klippel JH (ed): Primer on the Rheumatic Diseases, ed 11. Atlanta, GA, Arthritis Foundation, 1997, pp 226-229 and 328-331.
Question 44High Yield
After making a tackle, a football player is found prone and unconscious without spontaneous respirations. Initial management should consist of

Explanation
The on-field evaluation and management of a seriously injured athlete requires that health care teams have a game plan in place and proper equipment that is readily available. The initial step, which consists of stabilizing the head and neck by manually holding them in a neutral position, is then followed by assessment of breathing, pulses, and level of consciousness. If the athlete is breathing, management should consist of mouth guard removal and airway maintenance. If the athlete is not breathing, the face mask should be removed, with the chin strap left in place. The airway must be established, followed by initiation of assisted breathing. CPR is instituted only when breathing and circulation are compromised. In the unconscious athlete or if a cervical spine injury is suspected, the helmet must not be removed until the athlete has been transported to an appropriate facility and the cervical spine has been completely evaluated. McSwain NE, Garnelli, RL: Helmet removal from injured patients. Bull of Am Coll Surg 1997;82:42-44.
Question 45High Yield
A 40-year-old man reports an enlarging soft-tissue mass in his right shoulder. Based on the MRI scan and biopsy specimens shown in Figures 40a through 40c, what is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation
Nodular fasciitis is a pseudosarcomatous, self-limiting reactive process composed of fibroblasts and myofibroblasts. Most patients give a history of a rapidly growing mass that has been present for only a few weeks. Many have pain associated with the mass and can recall a specific traumatic event predating the presence of the lesion. It can occur at any age but is most commonly seen in adults who are 20 to 40 years of age. Histologically, the lesion is composed of predominantly plump, immature-appearing fibroblasts that bear a close resemblance to the fibroblasts found in granulation tissue. Characteristically, the fibroblasts are arranged in short, irregular bundles and fascicles and are adjacent to collagen and reticulin. The lesions can appear to be more myxoid or more fibrotic in nature and this correlates to the duration of symptoms. The lesions with a short duration of symptoms have a more myxoid appearance in contrast to those of longer duration characterized by hyaline fibrosis. Weiss SW, Goldblum JR, Enzinger FM: Enzinger and Weiss's Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2001, pp 250-266.
Question 46High Yield
An 83-year-old woman reports pain in her left middle finger after a minor injury. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 7,000/mm3, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 3 mm/h, a uric acid of 10.4 mg/dL, and a normal serum protein electrophoresis. Radiographs are shown in Figures 49a and 49b. A core biopsy specimen is shown is Figure 49c. In addition to treatment of the finger fracture, treatment should include





Explanation
This clinical picture is most consistent with periarticular erosions from gout. The patient has multiple periarticular lytic lesions in the hand. The laboratory studies show an elevated serum uric acid level, and the biopsy specimen demonstrates acute and chronic inflammation with prominent clefts. Therefore, the preferred treatment is systemic control of her gout. Radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and/or amputation should be considered for a malignancy; however, the pathology does not demonstrate any evidence of pleomorphism, high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio, nuclear atypia, or mitotic activity. Antibiotics for an infectious process is a consideration, but the minimal elevation in the WBC count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate does not support an infectious process. Wise CM: Crystal-associated arthritis in the elderly. Clin Geriatr Med 2005;21:491-511.
Question 47High Yield
A 21-year-old collegiate wrestler sustains a blow to his right eye during a match. Examination reveals anisocoria with a dilated right pupil. The globe is properly formed, and extra-occular movements and the visual field are grossly intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Explanation
Traumatic mydriasis occurs from a contusion to the iris sphincter. This is a transient phenomenon during which the iris fails to constrict properly, resulting in a dilated pupil. More severe trauma can result in a tear of the sphincter and permanent pupillary deformity. In association with head injury, traumatic anisocoria would be a concerning indicator of the severity of injury. Retinal detachment, lens dislocation, corneal abrasion, and traumatic hyphema are all potential results of eye injury but are not reflected by this clinical description. Brucker AJ, Kozart DM, Nichols CW, Irving MR: Diagnosis and management of injuries to the eye and orbit, in Torg JS (ed): Athletic Injuries to the Head, Neck, and Face, ed 2. St Louis, MO, Mosby Year Book, 1991, pp 650-670.
Question 48High Yield
A 20-year-old football player has repeated episodes of heat cramps during summer training sessions. A deficiency of what electrolyte is most responsible for heat cramps?
Explanation
Sodium deficiency is the cause of heat cramps. It is the principle electrolyte of sweat and is readily lost during training, especially in warmer temperatures. The condition can be avoided by adding extra table salt to food and maintaining good hydration before and after sports activities. Salt tablets are to be avoided when a patient has heat cramps because the high soluble load will cause gastric irritation. Bergeron MF, Armstrong LE, Maresh CM: Fluid and electrolyte losses during tennis in the heat. Clin Sports Med 1995;14:23-32.
Question 49High Yield
The main arterial supply to the humeral head is provided by which of the following arteries?
Explanation
Explanation
The main arterial supply to the humeral head is provided by the ascending branch of the anterior humeral circumflex artery and its intraosseous continuation, the arcuate artery. There are significant intraosseous anastomoses between the arcuate artery, the posterior humeral circumflex artery through vessels entering the posteromedial aspect of the proximal humerus, the metaphyseal vessels, and the vessels of the greater and lesser tuberosities. Four-part fractures and dissection during exposure affect perfusion of the humeral head. Brooks CH, Revell WJ, Heatley FW: Vascularity of the humeral head after proximal humeral fractures: An anatomical cadaver study. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1993;75:132-136.
References:
- Gerber C, Schneeberger AG, Vinh TS: The arterial vascularization of the humeral head: An anatomical study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:1486-1494.
Question 50High Yield
What is the most common foot and ankle deformity in patients with arthrogryposis?
Explanation
Explanation
Clubfoot (talipes equinovarus) in patients with arthrogryposis is a rigid and resistant deformity. However, multiple studies document limited success with nonsurgical management. Manipulation and casting are generally a preliminary treatment before surgery; successful correction will most like require a talectomy. Guidera KJ, Drennan JC: Foot and ankle deformities in arthrogryposis multiplex congenita. Clin Orthop 1985;194:93-98. Handelsman JE, Badalamente MA: Neuromuscular studies in clubfoot. J Pediatr Orthop 1981;1:23-32.
References:
- Dias LS, Stern LS: Talectomy in the treatment of resistant talipes equinovarus deformity in myelomeningocele and arthrogryposis. J Pediatr Orthop 1987;7:39-41.
Question 51High Yield
A 20-year-old patient has foot pain. A radiograph and T1-weighted MRI scan are shown in Figures 8a and 8b. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 8c. Treatment should consist of





Explanation
Giant cell tumors occur near articular surfaces in young adults. The histology shows abundant giant cells with nuclei resembling the surrounding cells. Although the MRI scan shows soft-tissue involvement, curettage is still the preferred treatment. Chemotherapy is not necessary for benign lesions, and amputation is too aggressive. Cementation, phenol, and cryosurgery (liquid nitrogen) are all acceptable local adjuvants to curettage. Packing the cavity with bone graft rather than cement is also acceptable. Dahlin DC, Unni KK: Bone Tumors: General Aspects and Data on 8,542 Cases. Springfield, IL, Charles C. Thomas, 1986.
Question 52High Yield
A 19-year-old woman reports persistent neck pain for 2 years. Pain is relieved with aspirin. A bone scan shows intense uptake in the superior, posterior portion of the C3 vertebral body. A sagittal CT reconstruction is shown in Figure 5. Treatment should consist of

Explanation
The CT scan shows an osteoblastic nidus pathognomic for an osteoid osteoma. Surgical treatment should include an en bloc excision of the lesion. Surgical treatment is not mandatory because the lesion often becomes asymptomatic over time. This lesion is not amenable to radiofrequency ablation due to its proximity to the spinal cord. A complete corpectomy is not necessary to adequately resect the lesion, as only the nidus needs to be removed. Radiation therapy and antibiotics are not appropriate treatments for an osteoid osteoma. Posterior C2-C3 fusion will not address the pathology. Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 351-366.
Question 53High Yield
Figures 14a and 14b show the plain radiographs of an 85-year-old woman who has had severe pain in the right knee for the past 4 months. Management should consist of
Explanation
Explanation
14b The patient has osteonecrosis of the lateral femoral condyle with collapse of the articular surface. Because there is already collapse of the articular surface, a total knee arthroplasty is the treatment of choice. The results of total knee arthroplasty in these patients are usually excellent. However, knee replacement is only a resurfacing procedure, and some patients with global osteonecrosis of the distal femur may have residual pain after knee replacement. High tibial osteotomy may be indicated in younger patients who have a varus deformity and localized osteonecrosis. Arthroscopic surgery would provide minimal relief for this patient because there is already collapse of the articular surface. A hinged knee brace will not adequately unload the joint. An osteochondral allograft should be considered only for younger patients with localized osteonecrosis. Bergman NR, Rand JA: Total knee arthroplasty in osteonecrosis. Clin Orthop 1991;273:77-82.
References:
- Lotke PA, Abend JA, Ecker ML: The treatment of osteonecrosis of the medial femoral condyle. Clin Orthop 1982;171:109-116.
Question 54High Yield
Figure 14 shows a lateral radiograph of a knee joint. The bony structure indicated by the arrow is a sesamoid bone that resides in what tendon?
Explanation
Explanation
The radiograph shows a fabella, a sesamoid bone that is usually found within the tendon of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius. It can be confused with a loose body on radiographs. It occurs in 18% of patients and is often bilateral. Anderson JE (ed): Grant's Atlas of Anatomy, ed 7. Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1978, pp 4-69.
References:
- Weissman BNW, Sledge CB (ed): Orthopaedic Radiology. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1986, p 514.
Question 55High Yield
A 12-year-old girl has back pain after falling 20 feet and landing in the sitting position. She has no fractures or other injuries, and her neurologic examination is normal. A lateral radiograph, transverse CT scan, and reformatted sagittal CT scan are shown in Figures 25a through 25c. Which of the following methods is associated with the best long-term outcome?
Explanation
Explanation
25b 25c The patient has a displaced burst fracture. Fusion with instrumentation has shown better results than casting alone. Posterior fusion with instrumentation, with sagittal plane correction, yields the best results. Decompression occurs indirectly with correction of the kyphosis. Anterior decompression is unnecessary. Lalonde F, Letts M, Yang JP, et al: An analysis of burst fractures of the spine in adolescents. Am J Orthop 2001;30:115-120. Clark P, Letts M: Trauma to the thoracic and lumbar spine in the adolescent. Can J Surg 2001;44:337-345.
References:
- Been HD, Bouma GJ: Comparison of two types of surgery for thoraco-lumbar burst fractures: Combined anterior and posterior stabilization vs posterior instrumentation only. Acta Neurochir (Wien) 1999;141:349-357.
Question 56High Yield
A 2-year-old boy has complete absence of the sacrum and lower lumbar spine. What is the most likely long-term outcome if no spinal pelvic stabilization is performed?

Explanation
Without stabilization, progressive kyphosis will develop between the spine and pelvis. The kyphosis progresses to the point that the child must use his or her hands to support the trunk, and therefore is unable to use his or her hands for other activities. Neck extension contracture does not usually develop. Neurologic deficit, including sexual dysfunction, is generally present at birth and static. Tachdjian MO: The spine: Congenital absence of the sacrum and lumbosacral vertebrae (lumbosacral agenesis), in Wickland EH Jr (ed): Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, vol 3, p 2228.
Question 57High Yield
A 17-year-old javelin thrower reports medial-sided elbow pain and diminished grip strength while throwing. He has decreased sensation in the little and ring fingers of his throwing hand only while throwing. The sensory deficits resolve at rest. Examination of the elbow reveals no instability and full motion. He has a positive Tinel's sign over the cubital tunnel and a positive elbow flexion test. Radiographs are normal. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Explanation
The patient's symptoms and examination findings are consistent with ulnar neuritis/cubital tunnel syndrome, most probably exacerbated by javelin throwing. The first step includes rest and extension splinting. Surgical intervention should only be considered after failure of nonsurgical management. Posner MA: Compressive neuropathies of the ulnar nerve at the elbow and wrist. Instr Course Lect 2000;49:305-317.
References:
- Omer GE, Spinner M, Van Beek AL (eds): Management of Peripheral Nerve Problems, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, pp 65-69.
Question 58High Yield
A 35-year-old man is seen in the emergency department with a bullet wound to the foot that occurred 2 hours ago. Examination reveals a 0.5-cm entrance wound on the dorsum of the foot and a 1.5-cm exit wound on the plantar aspect. Exploration of the plantar wound in the emergency department reveals bone and metal fragments. Radiographs reveal a comminuted, unstable fracture of the base of the first metatarsal and cuneiform. Management should consist of tetanus toxoid, and
Explanation
Explanation
The patient sustained a type I unstable fracture that requires debridement of superficial fragments from the sole and surgical stabilization. Low-velocity wounds less than 8 hours old are considered type I open fractures. In contrast, gunshot wounds with associated fractures more than 8 hours old are considered type II open fractures using the Gustilo and Anderson classification. Gustilo type I stable fractures due to gunshot wounds and seen within 8 hours can be treated with tetanus toxoid (if no history of immunization or booster within 5 years), surface irrigation, and casting or a hard sole shoe. Antibiotics are not required unless gross contamination is present. However, if the extent of contamination is unclear, or if a joint is penetrated, then routine antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended. Indications for surgery include: articular involvement, unstable fractures, presentation 8 or more hours after injury, tendon involvement, and superficial fragments in the palm or sole. Type I unstable fractures may be stabilized with internal or external fixation. Type II unstable fractures should be treated with external fixation and repeat debridements until clean. Holmes GB Jr: Gunshot wounds of the foot. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2003;408:86-91.
References:
- Bartlett CS, Helfet DL, Hausman MR, et al: Ballistics and gunshot wounds: Effects on musculoskeletal tissues. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2000;8:21-36.
Question 59High Yield
The scoring system for impending pathologic fractures devised by Mirels involves assessment of which of the following factors?
Explanation
Explanation
The scoring system published by Mirels in 1989 is based on the following characteristics: the location of the lesion, the amount of pain the patient is experiencing, the type of lesion (either lucent, mixed, or blastic), and the lesion size. The tumor is scored from 1 to 3 in each category and a total score is obtained that correlates to fracture risk. Prophylactic fixation is advised for lesions with scores of higher than 8, and consideration for stabilization should be strongly considered for scores of 8. The Mirels scoring system can be useful as an adjunct to clinical decision making. Mirels H: Metastatic disease in long bones: A proposed scoring system for diagnosing impending pathologic fractures. 1989. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2003;415:S4-S13.
References:
- Damron TA, Morgan H, Prakash D, et al: Critical evaluation of Mirels' rating system for impending pathologic fractures. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2003;415:S201-S207.
Question 60High Yield
Total hip arthroplasty in a patient with a long-standing hip fusion on the contralateral side is most likely to result in
Explanation
Explanation
Contralateral total hip arthroplasty in patients with hip fusions results in a 40% higher rate of mechanical failure and loosening. During gait, motion of the contralateral hip is increased and more time is spent bearing weight on that hip. In patients with hip fusions, gait efficiency is only 53%, with a greater rate of oxygen consumption. Garvin KL, Pellicci PM, Windsor RE, et al: Contralateral total hip arthroplasty or ipsilateral total hip arthroplasty in patients who have long-standing fusion of the hip. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:1355-1362. Gore DR, Murray MP, et al: Walking patterns of men with unilateral surgical hip fusion. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1975;57:759-765.
References:
- Romness DW, Morrey BF: Total knee arthroplasty in patients with prior ipsilateral hip fusion. J Arthroplasty 1992;7:63-70.
Question 61High Yield
Figure 29 shows the AP radiograph of a 14-year-old boy. The radiographic findings are most consistent with what pathologic process?
Explanation
Explanation
The severe depression of the proximal medial tibial epiphysis is most consistent with the diagnosis of neglected infantile Blount's disease. Blount's disease in adolescents produces a deformity in the metaphyseal region. Septic arthritis and JRA affect both sides of the joint. Hemophilia produces a characteristic widening of the intercondylar notch. Thompson GH, Carter JR: Late-onset tibia vara (Blount's Disease). Clin Orthop 1990;255:24-35.
References:
- Raney EM, Topoleski TA, Yaghoubian R, et al: Orthotic treatment of infantile tibia vara. J Pediatr Orthop 1998;18:670-674.
Question 62High Yield
What is the most appropriate treatment for a 50-year-old woman who sustains the injury shown in Figures 14a and 14b?
Explanation
Explanation
14b This intra-articular distal humerus fracture with displacement at the joint surface is best treated with surgical fixation. The most biomechanically sound construct is two plates applied to either column 180 degrees from one another. Elbow arthroplasty is most appropriate for low demand elderly patients. Schemitsch EH, Tencer AF, Henley MB: Biomechanical evaluation of methods of internal fixation of the distal humerus. J Orthop Trauma 1994;8:468-475. McCarty LP, Ring D, Jupiter JB: Management of distal humerus fractures. Am J Orthop 2005;34:430-438.
Question 63High Yield
Figure 43 shows an arthroscopic view of a right shoulder through a lateral portal in the beach chair position. The arrow is pointing to what structure?
Explanation
Explanation
This view from the lateral portal shows a full-thickness rotator cuff tear. The glenohumeral joint can be visualized through this tear. The glenoid, labrum, and biceps tendon attaching to the superior aspect of the glenoid are easily viewed from this portal, and the arrow is pointing to the biceps tendon. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair can be performed while visualizing from this portal and using anterior and posterior working portals. Mazzocca AD, Noerdlinger M, Cole B, et al: Arthroscopy of the shoulder: Indications and general principles of techniques, in McGinty JB (ed): Operative Arthroscopy, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2003, pp 412-427.
References:
- Burkhart, SS: Arthroscopic management of rotator cuff tears, in McGinty JB (ed): Operative Arthroscopy, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2003, pp 508-546.
Question 64High Yield
A 7-year-old child is unresponsive, tachycardic, and has a systolic blood pressure of 50 mm Hg after being struck by a car. The patient is intubated and venous access is obtained. The secondary survey reveals an unstable pelvis. Despite adequate resuscitation, the patient continues to be hemodynamically unstable. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
Explanation
The patient is hemodynamically unstable, so any treatment should be aimed at stabilization. Airway, breathing, and circulation are the most important areas to control initially; the patient has been intubated and has adequate venous access. Despite fluid resuscitation, the child remains hypotensive, indicating continued blood loss. With an unstable pelvic fracture there can be significant hemorrhage. Decreasing the pelvic volume can decrease blood loss related to the pelvic fracture. This can be done in the emergency department by applying a pelvic sling. Other means of decreasing pelvic volume include a pelvic clamp, a simple anterior frame pelvic external fixator, or a simple sheet tied around the pelvis. These maneuvers may stabilize the patient so that further evaluation and treatment can be undertaken. All of the other choices will delay stabilization and should be postponed until the patient is stabilized. Torode I, Zieg D: Pelvic fractures in children. J Pediatr Orthop 1985;5:76-84. Eichelberger MR, Randolph JG: Pediatric trauma-initial resuscitation, in Moore EE, Eisman B, Van Way CE (eds): Critical Decisions in Trauma. St Louis, MO, CV Mosby, 1984, p 344.
References:
- Ganz R, Krushell RJ, Jacob RP, Kuffer J: The antishock pelvic clamp. Clin Orthop 1991;267:71-78.
Question 65High Yield
What is the most common benign bone tumor in childhood?
Explanation
Explanation
The most common benign bone tumor in childhood is a nonossifying fibroma. It is estimated that 30% of children have a nonossifying fibroma. In most patients, the lesion is not identified until a radiograph is obtained for unrelated reasons. Similarly, most identified cases of fibrous cortical defect are not biopsied because the radiographic and clinical presentations are diagnostic. Aboulafia AJ, Kennon RE, Jelinek JS: Benign bone tumors of childhood. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:377-388.
References:
- Biermann JS: Common benign lesions of bone in children and adolescents. J Pediatr Orthop 2002;22:268-273.
Question 66High Yield
A 5-year-old boy has had pain in the right foot for the past month. Examination reveals tenderness and mild swelling in the region of the tarsal navicular. Radiographs are shown in Figure 30. Management should consist of
Explanation
Explanation
The child has the classic findings of Kohler's disease or osteochondrosis of the tarsal navicular. The cause of this condition is not known, but osteonecrosis and mechanical compression have been proposed. Children generally report midfoot pain over the tarsal navicular and limping. Physical findings include tenderness, swelling, and occasionally redness in the region of the tarsal navicular. Radiographs show sclerosis and narrowing of the tarsal navicular. The natural history of the condition is spontaneous resolution and reconstitution of the navicular. Symptomatic treatment with restriction of weight bearing or casting is recommended. Karp M: Kohler's disease of the tarsal scaphoid. J Bone Joint Surg 1937;19:84-96.
References:
- Borges JL, Guille JT, Bowen JR: Kohler's bone disease of the tarsal navicular. J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:596-598.
Question 67High Yield
Figures 11a and 11b show the T2-weighted MRI scans of the lumbar spine of a 53-year-old woman who has low back and right lower extremity pain. What structure is the arrow pointing to in Figure 11a?



Explanation
The arrow is pointing to a cystic-appearing structure with high signal intensity on T2-weighted image sequencing. It appears to be contiguous with the hypertrophied right facet joint, which appears to also have high signal intensity. The mass significantly narrows the right lateral recess. The high signal intensity suggests that this is a fluid-filled mass. In addition, the facet joints are degenerative and there is a very mild degree of anterolisthesis on the sagittal image. These findings make a lumbar synovial cyst the most likely diagnosis. Most lumbar juxtafacet cysts are observed at the L4-5 level, extradurally and adjacent to the degenerative facet joint. They may contain synovial fluid and/or extruded synovium. Presentation is indistinguishable from that of a herniated disk. The etiology of spinal cysts remains unclear, but there appears to be a strong association between their formation and worsening spinal instability. They occasionally regress spontaneously and may respond to aspiration and injection of corticosteroids, though there is a high recurrence rate with nonsurgical management. Synovial cysts resistant to nonsurgical management should be treated surgically. If the patient's symptoms can be attributable to radicular findings, a microsurgical decompression that limits further destabilization should suffice. However, if there is significant low back pain attributable to spinal instability, decompression and fusion remains an appropriate option. Banning CS, Thorell WE, Leibrock LG: Patient outcome after resection of lumbar juxtafacet cysts. Spine 2001;26:969-972. Deinsberger R, Kinn E, Ungersbock K: Microsurgical treatment of juxta facet cysts of the lumbar spine. J Spinal Disord Tech 2006;19:155-160.
Question 68High Yield
Failure of high tibial osteotomy (HTO) is most closely associated with which of the following factors?
Explanation
Long-term survivorship studies have attempted to clarify patient factors related to good outcomes in HTO. One particular study showed that a patient age of less than 50 years was related to good outcomes in those who had good preoperative knee flexion. The same study found no relation between HTO failure and the presence of postoperative infection or deep venous thrombosis. The presence of a lateral tibial thrust is a contraindication to performing this surgery. As expected, good patient selection is critical to obtaining good long-term results with HTO. Naudie D, Borne RB, Rorabeck CH, Bourne TJ: Survivorship of the high tibial valgus osteotomy: A 10- to 22-year followup study. Clin Orthop 1999;367:18-27. Rinonapoli E, Mancini GB, Corvaglia A, Musiello S: Tibial osteotomy for varus gonarthrosis: A 10- to 21-year followup study. Clin Orthop 1998;353:185-193.
Question 69High Yield
The sartorius muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves?
Explanation
Explanation
The femoral nerve enters the thigh behind the inguinal ligament, lying on the surface of the iliopsoas muscle lateral to the femoral artery and vein. The nerve divides into numerous muscular and cutaneous branches in the femoral triangle. The first motor branch (sometimes two branches) is to the sartorius. There is a variable branch to the pectineus. Subsequent branches go to the rectus femoris and then the vastus muscles in variable order. The last motor branch is to the articularis genu. The muscular branches can be injured in anterior approaches to the hip, especially the middle window of the ilioinguinal approach. Hollinshead WH: Textbook of Anatomy, ed 3. Hagerstown, MD, Harper and Row, 1974, p 404.
References:
- Last RJ: Anatomy: Regional and Applied, ed 6. London, England, Churchill Livingstone, 1978, p 139.
Question 70High Yield
A 28-year-old female firefighter fell from the top of a three-story building in the line of duty. She sustained a displaced pelvic fracture with more than 5 mm displacement. Compared to normal healthy controls, these patients have a higher incidence of
Explanation
Explanation
Pelvic trauma in women has been shown to increase the risk of sexual dysfunction and dyspareunia. Additionally, caesarean section childbirth is almost universal following pelvic trauma regardless of whether anterior pelvic hardware is present or not. Copeland CE, Bosse MJ, McCarthy ML et al: Effect of trauma and pelvic fracture on female genitourinary, sexual, and reproductive function. J Orthop Trauma 1997;11:73-81.
Question 71High Yield
A 10-year-old boy with severe hemophilia A (factor VIII) sustained an injury to his right forearm 2 hours ago when a classmate fell on his arm during a scuffle. Examination reveals moderate swelling in the forearm, decreased sensation in the distribution of the median and ulnar nerves, and pain on passive extension of the fingers. What is the most appropriate sequence of treatment?
Explanation
The patient has severe hemophilia with a volar forearm hemorrhage and an emerging compartment syndrome. Therefore, it is critical to normalize the clotting deficiency as the first step in treatment. In a patient who has a factor VIII level of less than 1% and no inhibitors to factor VIII, transfusion with 4 unit/kg will typically raise the factor VIII level to 100%. Continuous transfusion can then be used to maintain this level. Compartment pressures can be safely measured after infusion of factor VIII. Because the hemorrhage is of limited duration and any surgery is considered serious in a patient with hemophilia, the compartment pressure should be measured before making a decision regarding a fasciotomy. However, it is important to note that the use of factor VIII concentrates allows both emergency and elective surgery provided that adequate hematology backup is available. Splinting the elbow and wrist in flexion reduces the pressure in the volar compartments, protects the forearm from further trauma, and makes the patient more comfortable. Greene WB: Diseases related to the hematopoietic system, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell & Winter's Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 4. Philadelphia, Pa, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 345-391. Greene WB, McMillan CW: Nonsurgical management of hemophilic arthropathy, in Barr JS (ed): Instructional Course Lectures 38. Park Ridge, Ill, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1989, pp 367-381.
Question 72High Yield
Which of the following conditions is associated with palmoplantar pustulosis?
Explanation
Explanation
Sternoclavicular hyperotosis is a seronegative and HLA-B27 negative rheumatic disease. In this condition, hyperostosis may appear in the spine, long bones, sacroiliac joints, and the sternoclavicular region. This entity is also associated with palmoplantar pustulosis. Wirth MA, Rockwood CA: Disorders of the sternoclavicular joint, in Rockwood CA, Matsen FA, Wirth MA, et al (eds): The Shoulder. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2004, vol 2, pp 608-609.
References:
- Sonozaki H, Azuma A, Okai K, et al: Clinical features of 22 cases with inter-sterno-costo-clavicular ossification: A new rheumatic syndrome. Arch Orthop Trauma Surg 1979;95:13-22.
Question 73High Yield
A female cross-country runner has an insidious onset of right groin pain. Radiographs of the right hip reveal a tension-side stress fracture. History reveals that she was treated for a "foot" fracture 1 year ago. In addition to performing internal fixation of the femoral neck, which of the following should be obtained?
Explanation
Explanation
Stress fractures in female long distance runners are frequently associated with the Female Athletic Triad. The triad consists of osteoporosis, amenorrhea, and altered eating habits. A thorough menstrual history, including age of menarche, history of amenorrhea, and use of oral contraceptives, is imperative. Amenorrhea leads to osteoporosis and predisposes the athlete to fractures. An MRI of the hip is not necessary because a fracture is evident on the radiograph. Serum calcium levels are normal in osteoporosis, a family history would be noncontributory, and it is highly unlikely that a contralateral hip radiograph will yield useful information. Bennell KL, Malcolm SA, Thomas SA, et al: Risk factors for stress fractures in track and field athletes: A twelve-month prospective study. Am J Sports Med 1996;24:810-818.
References:
- Barrow GW, Saha H: Menstrual irregularity and stress fractures in collegiate female distance runners. Am J Sports Med 1988;16:209-216.
Question 74High Yield
What is the peak period of onset in children with pauciarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?

Explanation
Approximately one half of patients with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) have the pauciarticular form, which by definition includes only patients with fewer than five joints involved. The peak period of onset is between the ages of 2 and 4 years, with half of the affected children coming to medical attention before age 4 years. The knee is most often affected, with the ankle-subtalar and elbow joints next in frequency. The average duration of the disease is 2 years and 9 months, with half the cases lasting less than 2 years. Arthritis, in Herring JA (ed): Tachdjian's Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 3. St Louis, MO, WB Saunders, 2002, pp 1811-1839.
Question 75High Yield
Which of the following best describes athletic pubalgia?
Explanation
Explanation
Athletic pubalgia refers to a distinct syndrome of lower abdominal and adductor pain that is mostly commonly seen in high performance male athletes. This condition must be distinguished from others such as painful inflammation of the symphysis pubis, referred to as osteitis pubis. Symptoms attributable to the iliopsoas tendon are most commonly associated with snapping of the tendon. Stress fracture of the pubic ramus may cause symptoms in this area, but it is usually confirmed by imaging studies. Neurapraxia of the pudendal nerve is associated with pressure from the seat in cycling sports and also as a complication associated with traction during surgical procedures. Meyers WC, Foley DP, Garrett WE, Lohnes JH, Mandlebaum BR: Management of severe lower abdominal or inguinal pain in high-performance athletes: PAIN (Performing Athletes with Abdominal or Inguinal Neuromuscular Pain Study Group). Am J Sports Med 2000;28:2-8.
References:
- Albers SL, Spritzer CE, Garrett WE Jr, Meyers WC: MR findings in athletes with pubalgia. Skeletal Radiol 2001;30:270-277.
Question 76High Yield
A 42-year-old patient has had painful inferior subluxation of the glenohumeral joint following a recent cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Figure 34 shows the AP radiograph of the shoulder. Management should consist of

Explanation
Following a CVA and with the resumption of upright posture, downward subluxation of the glenohumeral joint may occur. Although usually painless, some patients may report pain secondary to stretching of the brachial plexus. This is the result of flaccid paralysis of the deltoid muscle, and it will persist until some motor tone or spasticity returns to the shoulder girdle musculature. Early sling support and range-of-motion exercises to prevent contracture will provide the best relief. Surgical procedures are not indicated. Braun RM, Botte MJ: Treatment of shoulder deformity in acquired spasticity. Clin Orthop 1999;368:54-65.
Question 77High Yield
Contraindications to cervical laminectomy as a treatment for cervical spondylotic myelopathy include which of the following findings?
Explanation
Explanation
Cervical laminectomy is an accepted treatment for multilevel cervical spondylotic myelopathy. When the compression is posterior, laminectomy addresses it directly; when the compression is anterior, it is addressed indirectly (the spinal cord floats posteriorly away from the anterior compression). Preexisting kyphosis is a contraindication to laminectomy because the cord is unable to float posteriorly away from the anterior compression, and the risk for increasing kyphosis is significant. Kyphosis after laminectomy is more likely to develop in younger patients who have fewer degenerative changes to stabilize the spine. Malone DG, Benzyl EC: Laminotomy and laminectomy for spinal stenosis causing radiculopathy or myelopathy, in Clark CR (ed.): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 817-825.
References:
- Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 673-680.
Question 78High Yield
Which of the following anatomic changes is observed as part of the normal aging process of the adult spine?

Explanation
The primary change that takes place in the aging spine is degeneration of the lumbar disks and loss of the overall lumbar lordosis. This also may be associated with osteopenic-related compression fractures. With these changes, the sagittal vertical line moves anteriorly relative to the sacrum; cervical scoliosis is uncommon and not part of the normal aging process. Overall kyphosis in the thoracic spine gradually increases, but the coronal balance remains essentially the same unless scoliosis develops. Gelb DE, Lenke LG, Bridwell KH, et al: An analysis of sagittal spinal alignment in 100 asymptomatic middle and older aged volunteers. Spine 1995;20:1351-1358.
Question 79High Yield
During a posterior approach to the glenoid with retraction as shown in Figure 33, care should be taken during superior retraction to avoid injury to which of the following structures?
Explanation
Explanation
During a posterior approach to the shoulder for either a scapular fracture, glenoid fracture, or posterior shoulder pathology, the interval between the teres minor and infraspinatus is split. Excessive superior retraction on the infraspinatus, or excessive dissection superomedially under the infraspinatus muscle and tendon can cause injury to the suprascapular nerve and/or artery. During dissection in this interval, the axillary artery and axillary nerve are well protected. A branch of the circumflex scapular artery ascends between the teres minor and infraspinatus muscle, but it is at risk during dissection on the scapula in the mid portion of the interval and not during superior retraction. The profunda brachii artery is not present in this interval. Jerosch JJ, Greig M, Peuker ET, et al: The posterior subdeltoid approach: A modified access to the posterior glenohumeral joint. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2001;10:265-268. Judet R: Surgical treatment of scapular fractures. Acta Orthop Belg 1964;30:673-678.
References:
- Kavanagh BF, Bradway JK, Cofield RH: Open reduction and internal fixation of displaced intra-articular fractures of the glenoid fossa. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:479-484.
Question 80High Yield
The 5-year outcome for patients with sciatica secondary to lumbar disk herniation shows which of the following results?
Explanation
Explanation
Atlas and associates, in the Maine Lumbar Spine Study, reported that overall, patients treated initially with surgery reported better outcomes. By 5 years, 19% of surgical patients had undergone at least one additional lumbar spine operation, and 16% of nonsurgical patients had opted for at least one lumbar spine operation. At the 5-year follow-up, 70% of patients initially treated surgically reported improvement in their predominant symptom (back or leg pain) versus 56% of those initially treated nonsurgically. They also noted that there was no difference in the proportion of patients receiving disability compensation at the 5-year follow-up.
Question 81High Yield
A patient has a humeral shaft fracture and is scheduled to undergo open reduction and internal fixation with a plate. What surgical approach will provide the greatest amount of exposure?
Explanation
Explanation
The modified posterior approach with elevation of the medial and lateral heads of the triceps can provide exposure of 94% of the humeral shaft. The traditional posterior triceps-splitting approach exposes 55% of the humeral shaft. DeFranco MJ, Lawton JN: Radial nerve injuries associated with humeral fractures. J Hand Surg Am 2006;31:655-663.
References:
- Gerwin M, Hotchkiss RN, Weiland AJ: Alternative operative exposure of the posterior aspect of the humeral diaphysis with reference to the radial nerve. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1690-1695.
Question 82High Yield
A 15-year-old boy has a mass at the knee. Radiographs show an aggressive tumor involving the proximal tibia, and biopsy findings reveal a high-grade osteosarcoma. Staging studies show that the tumor impinges on the neurovascular bundle. The tumor enlarges during preoperative chemotherapy. Management should now consist of
Explanation
Explanation
Limb salvage procedures have become the usual treatment for even high-grade osteosarcomas. However, tumors associated with pathologic fracture, tumors encasing the neurovascular bundle, and tumors that enlarged during preoperative therapy and are adjacent to the neurovascular bundle require amputation.
References:
- Springfield D: Bone and soft-tissue tumors, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell and Winter's Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 423-468.
Question 83High Yield
Which of the following is considered an advantage of arthroscopic distal clavicle excision compared with open distal clavicle excision?

Explanation
Arthroscopic versus open distal clavicle excision has the advantage of allowing evaluation of the glenohumeral joint arthroscopically prior to moving into the subclavicular and subacromial space to perform the distal clavicle excision. This can be of value in both confirming the diagnosis as well as avoiding diagnostic errors. Berg and Ciullo showed that in 20 patients who underwent open distal clavicle excision that resulted in failure, 15 of those patients had a superior labral anterior posterior (SLAP) lesion. Of these 15 patients who had the lesion treated surgically, 9 went on to a good to excellent result after the surgery was performed arthroscopically. Fewer complications, lower infection rate, and decreased surgical time have not been documented in the literature. Arthroscopic technique sacrifices the inferior acromioclavicular ligament and preserves the superior acromioclavicular ligament. Berg EE, Ciullo JV: The SLAP lesion: A cause of failure after distal clavicle resection. Arthroscopy 1997;13:85-89.
Question 84High Yield
An 18-year-old football player sustains a contact injury to his right lower leg, and radiographs show a closed transverse fracture of the middle third of the tibia. Based on the clinical examination, a compartment syndrome is suspected. When measuring compartment pressures, the highest tissue pressure is recorded how many centimeters proximal or distal to the fracture site?
Explanation
Explanation
Measurements of compartment pressures in patients with tibial fractures and compartment syndrome reveal that the highest tissue pressures are recorded at the level of the fracture or within 5 cm of the fracture. Tissue pressures show a statistically significant decrease when they are recorded at increasing distances proximal and distal to the site of the highest pressure recorded. To reliably determine the location of the highest tissue pressure in patients with tibial fractures, measurements should be obtained, at a minimum, in both the anterior and deep posterior compartments at the level of the fracture, as well as at locations proximal and distal. The highest tissue pressure recorded should serve as a basis for determining the need for fasciotomy. Heckman MM, Whitesides TE Jr, Grewe SR, Rooks MD: Compartment pressure in association with closed tibial fractures: The relationship between tissue pressure, compartment, and the distance from the site of the fracture. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:1285-1292.
References:
- Whitesides TE Jr, Heckman MM: Acute compartment syndrome: Update on diagnosis and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:209-218.
Question 85High Yield
Figures 45a and 45b show the radiographs of a 40-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis who is unable to straighten her ring and little fingers. Examination reveals that the fingers can be passively corrected, but she is unable to actively maintain the fingers in extension. Management should consist of



Explanation
The patient has extensor tendon ruptures at the level of the wrist that are the result of synovitis at the distal radioulnar joint (Vaughn-Jackson syndrome). Extensor indius proprius transfer appropriately matches strength and excursion of the ruptured extensor digiti quinti and extensor digitorum communis tendons. An extensor tenosynovectomy with distal radioulnar joint resection decreases the synovitis, which if left untreated may cause additional tendon ruptures. Radial head resection is used for posterior interosseous nerve compression secondary to radial head synovitis, and in this patient only two fingers are involved, which rules out this diagnosis. Dynamic splinting is not indicated for ruptured tendons. Metacarpophalangeal arthroplasties and imbrication of the sagittal bands are used for metacarpophalangeal arthritis and extensor tendon subluxation. If this was the problem, the patient should be able to maintain the fingers in extension after they are passively extended. Total wrist arthrodesis prevents the tenodesis effect, thus limiting effective tendon excursion and making the proposed transfer less effective. Feldon P, Terrono AL, Nalebuff EA, et al: Rheumatoid arthritis and other connective tissue diseases: Tendon ruptures, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1999, pp 1669-1684. Moore JR, Weiland AJ, Valdata L: Tendon ruptures in the rheumatoid hand: Analysis of treatment and functional results in 60 patients. J Hand Surg Am 1987;12:9-14.
Question 86High Yield
Femoral osteotomy for dysplasia of the hip will most likely result in
Explanation
Explanation
Patients should expect pain relief after femoral osteotomy for hip dysplasia. Patients should not expect improved motion or abduction strength and should be counseled about a postoperative limp and unequal limb lengths. Pellicci PM, Hu S, Garvin KL, Salvati EA, Wilson PD Jr: Varus rotational femoral osteotomies in adults with hip dysplasia. Clin Orthop 1991;272:162-166.
References:
- Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 455-492.
Question 87High Yield
The mother of a 26-month-old boy reports that he has been unwilling to bear weight on his left lower extremity since he awoke this morning. She denies any history of trauma. He has a temperature of 99.4 degrees F (37.4 degrees C), and examination reveals that abduction of the left hip is limited to 30 degrees. Laboratory studies show a WBC of 11,000/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 22 mm/h. A radiograph of the pelvis is shown in Figure 13. Management should consist of

Explanation
The most likely diagnosis is transient synovitis. Initial management should consist of bed rest and serial observation to rule out atypical septic arthritis of the hip. In an unreliable family situation, hospitalization for bed rest and observation may be indicated. Other disorders such as proximal femoral osteomyelitis, leukemia, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, pelvic osteomyelitis, diskitis, and arthralgia secondary to other inflammatory disorders should be considered. However, these disorders are unlikely because of the paucity of abnormal clinical signs exhibited by the patient. On the other hand, transient synovitis of the hip in children is a diagnosis of exclusion; other possibilities should be explored if the patient's symptoms do not follow a typical course and resolve in 4 to 21 days.
Question 88High Yield
Which of the following forms of nonsurgical management is considered best for acute low back pain without radiculopathy?
Explanation
Explanation
Temporary bed rest (less than 4 days) with gradual resumption of activities can be efficacious. Epidural steroid injections may be indicated for acute low back pain with radiculopathy. Acupuncture, facet joint injections, or ligamentous (sclerosant) injections are not indicated. Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, Appendix A15.
References:
- Helfgott SM: Sensible approach to low back pain. Bull Rheum Dis 2001;3:50.
Question 89High Yield
Exostoses in which of the following anatomic locations is the most likely to undergo malignant transformation in a patient with multiple hereditary exostosis (MHE)?
Explanation
Explanation
Although osteochondromas can occur in almost every bone in patients with MHE, proximally located lesions are more likely to undergo malignant transformation. Annual radiographs of the shoulder girdles and pelvis are indicated in patients with MHE. Any enlarging osteochondromas are a concern as possible malignancies. Peterson HA: Multiple hereditary osteochondromata. Clin Orthop 1989;239:222.
References:
- McCornack EB: The surgical management of hereditary multiple exostosis. Orthop Rev 1981;10:57.
Question 90High Yield
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of polyethylene wear in the hip?
Explanation
Explanation
Although previous theories on acetabular wear implicated fatigue cracking and delamination as primary wear mechanisms, these have actually manifested as major modes of polyethylene wear in knees. The primary mechanism of wear in polyethylene acetabular components appears to be adhesion and abrasion. In an analysis of 128 components retrieved at autopsy or revision surgery, wear appeared to occur mostly at the surface of the components and was the result of large strain plastic deformation and orientation of the surface layers into fibrils that subsequently ruptured during multidirectional motion. It was also shown conclusively that 32-mm heads displayed significantly more wear (volumetric wear) than either 22-mm or 26-/28-mm heads (1-mm increase in size increased volumetric wear by 10%). The wear at the articulating surface was characterized by highly worn polished areas superiorly and less worn areas inferiorly separated by a ridge. Abrasion was very common, occurring after adhesion and plastic deformation of polyethylene fibrils, and abrasion secondary to third-body wear. Wear rates decreased with longer survival of components, indicating a "bedding in" phenomenon, arguing against oxidative and fatigue wear. Crevice corrosion occurs in fatigue cracks with low oxygen tension (under screw heads, etc). Oscillatory fretting consists of cyclical abrading of the outer surface from small movements. Fatigue and delamination is predominant in total knee arthroplasty where stresses are maximum just below the surface of the polyethylene component, causing fatigue over time with subsequent delamination. In contrast, hip wear occurs primarily at the surface of the polyethylene component. Jasty M, Goetz DD, Bragdon CR, et al: Wear of polyethylene acetabular components in total hip arthroplasty: An analysis of one hundred and twenty-eight components retrieved at autopsy or revision operations. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:349-358. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 47-53. Bell CJ, Walker PS, Abeysundera MR, et al: Effect of oxidation on delamination of ultrahigh-molecular-weight polyethylene tibial components. J Arthroplasty 1998;13:280-290.
References:
- Sutula LC, Collier JP, Saum KA, et al: The Otto Aufranc Award: Impact of gamma sterilization on clinical performance of polyethylene in the hip. Clin Orthop 1995;319:28-40.
Question 91High Yield
Within the menisci, the majority of the large collagen fiber bundles are oriented in what configuration?
Explanation
The majority of large collagen fibers within the menisci are oriented circumferentially. It is these fibers that develop the hoop stress with compressive loading of the menisci. Most meniscal tears are longitudinal and occur between these circumferential fibers. Mow VC, et al: Structure and function relationships of the menisci of the knee, in Mow VC, Arnoczky SP, Jackson DW (eds): Knee Meniscus: Basic and Clinical Foundations. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1992, pp 37-57.
Question 92High Yield
What neurovascular structure is in closest proximity to the probe in the arthroscopic view of the elbow shown in Figure 50?

Explanation
The image shows a view of the radiocapitellar joint from an anterior medial portal. The radial nerve lies on the elbow capsule at the midportion of the capitellum. It is at risk for injury when capsular excision is performed in this region. Field LD, Altchek DW, Warren RF, et al: Arthroscopic anatomy of the lateral elbow: A comparison of three portals. Arthroscopy 1994;10:602-607.
Question 93High Yield
Figure 11 shows the anatomic dissection of the medial side of the knee joint after removal of the superficial fascia. The arrow is pointing to what structure?
Explanation
Explanation
The semitendinosus and gracilis tendons lie beneath the superficial fascia and superficial to the medial collateral ligament. The semitendinosus is located more inferior to the gracilis tendon. The sartorius is more posterior and distal as is the medial collateral ligament. The semimembranosus is posterior. Pagnani MJ, Warner JJ, O'Brien SJ, Warren RF: Anatomic considerations in harvesting the semitendinosus and gracilis tendons and a technique of harvest. Am J Sports Med 1993;21:565-571.
References:
- Warren LF, Marshall JL: The supporting structures and layers on the medial side of the knee: An anatomical analysis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1979;61:56-62.
Question 94High Yield
Radiographs of a 15-year-old girl with knee pain reveal a radiopaque lesion of the distal femoral metaphysis and epiphysis with a small associated soft-tissue mass. A biopsy specimen shows osteoid and pleomorphic cells with multiple mitotic figures. Staging studies show no other sites of disease. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
Explanation
Based on the location and extent of the tumor, most patients are candidates for limb salvage surgery. The patient has an osteosarcoma; therefore, the treatment of choice is preoperative chemotherapy, wide resection, and reconstruction. There is no difference in survival rates between patients who undergo limb salvage surgery and those who undergo amputation. Curettage and placement of methylmethacrylate is used to treat benign lesions of bone and would not be appropriate in this patient.
References:
- Simon MA, Springfield DS, et al: Common Malignant Bone Tumors: Osteosarcoma. Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 265-274.
Question 95High Yield
What structure is most at risk with anterior penetration of C1 lateral mass screws?
Explanation
Posterior screw fixation of the upper cervical spine has gained a great deal of popularity due to its stable fixation, obviating the use of halo vest immobilization, and its high fusion rates. The use of screws in this location, however, has introduced a whole new set of potential complications. Vertebral artery injury is one of the most feared complications associated with screws in the C1/C2 region. This structure, however, is lateral and posterior at the C2 level and then penetrates the foramen transversarium of C1 to lie cephalad to the arch of C1 before entering the foramen magnum. It is the internal carotid artery that lies immediately anterior to the arch of C1 that is particularly at risk by anterior penetration of C1 lateral mass or C1-C2 transarticular screws as demonstrated by Currier and associates. The internal carotid artery lies posterior to the pharynx. The external carotid artery and the glossopharyngeal nerve are not at risk with this method of fixation. Currier BL, Todd LT, Maus TP, et al: Anatomic relationship of the internal carotid artery to the C1 vertebra: A case report of cervical reconstruction for chordoma and pilot study to assess the risk of screw fixation of the atlas. Spine 2003;28:E461-E467. Grant JC: Grant's Atlas of Anatomy, ed 6. Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1972.
Question 96High Yield
Which of the following symptoms are most commonly associated with piriformis syndrome?
Explanation
Piriformis syndrome is best characterized by localized posterior hip pain and radicular symptoms in the sciatic distribution because of compression of the piriformis muscle on the sciatic nerve. Weakness in hip extension is not a characteristic finding, nor is pain with hip abduction or flexion. Hypesthesia of the lateral thigh would be more characteristic of a lesion of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. Radiating medial thigh pain would suggest hip joint pathology or upper lumbar nerve root irritation. Weakness in internal rotation is not a characteristic feature, and hypesthesia of the perineum would suggest possible involvement of the pudendal nerve. Byrd JWT: Thigh, hip, and pelvis, in Miller MD, Cooper DE, Warner JJP (eds): Review of Sports Medicine and Arthroscopy, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, pp 114-139.
Question 97High Yield
Which of the following is a recognized consequence of hip fusion?

Explanation
Low back pain is an expected long-term complication of fusion; ipsilateral knee laxity is frequently encountered, as is degeneration of the contralateral hip. Hip fusion is equally valuable for both men and women, with both genders reporting satisfactory sexual function. Female patients often deliver by elective Cesarean section, although vaginal deliveries are reported. Liechti R (ed): Hip Arthrodesis and Associated Problems. Berlin, Germany, Springer-Verlag, 1978, pp 109-117.
Question 98High Yield
Figure 44 shows the radiograph of a 65-year-old man who underwent a revision arthroplasty to remove a loose, cemented femoral stem. When planning the postoperative restrictions, the surgeon should be aware that
Explanation
Explanation
The transfemoral approach, also known as the extended trochanteric osteotomy, is an important technique to master for revision hip surgery. When performed correctly, it allows excellent exposure of the femoral canal and aids in exposure of the acetabulum. As demonstrated in the study cited, however, it markedly reduces the torque that the composite can withstand without failure. This type of basic science study is important to guide postoperative rehabilitation.
References:
- Noble AR, Branham D, Willis M, et al: Mechanical effects of the extended trochanteric osteotomy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:521-529.
Question 99High Yield
Which of the following is considered a major characteristic of hyaluronate?
Explanation
Hyaluronate is a naturally occurring compound that is the backbone of the central core of the proteoglycan aggregate. Cartilage is made of two principal tissue structures. The connective tissue component includes collagen, which forms the framework for structural strength and elasticity. The proteoglycan aggregate provides a unique property of water incorporation and friction reduction capabilities. Hyaluronate forms the base or central core of the aggregate on which a link protein binds a protein core. Chondroitin sulfate and keratin sulfate are then bound to this protein core, forming the terminal extension of the aggregate. Callaghan JJ, Dennis DA, Paprosky WA, Rosenberg AG (eds): Orthopedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1995, pp 69-78. Felson DT: Osteoarthritis. Rheum Dis Clin North Am 1990;16:499-512.
Question 100High Yield
A right-handed 24-year-old professional baseball player injured his left shoulder 6 weeks ago when he dove forward and landed hard with the arm extended. He reports that the shoulder "slipped out" and "went back in." The shoulder did not need to be reduced. He now reports deep pain in the front of the shoulder when batting on either side and is hesitant to raise his left arm up over his head to catch a ball. Examination reveals no obvious deformities of the shoulder and a somewhat guarded, limited range of motion in all planes. Provocative tests for the rotator cuff and labrum are equivocal. MRI scans are shown in Figures 16a and 16b. What is the best course of action?



Explanation
A hard fall on an outstretched arm often results in injury to the glenoid labrum. A significant tear of the anterior/inferior labrum often leads to instability, pain, and mechanical symptoms of the shoulder. The MRI scan shows no obvious labral tear or Hill-Sachs lesion to suggest an anterior dislocation. Recent clinical studies have suggested that early stabilization of initial anterior dislocations may lead to better results than nonsurgical management in young, athletic patients. However, there are no data to support early surgery for anterior labral tears resulting from traumatic subluxation without dislocation. Initial treatment should consist of a short period of rest and immobilization, followed by a physical therapy rehabilitation program designed to restore motion, strength, and dynamic stability to the shoulder. If the athlete cannot return to play following nonsurgical management, surgical repair of the labrum, either through an open or arthroscopic approach, is indicated. There is no role for immediate thermal capsular shift in this setting. Abrams JS, Savoie FH III, Tauro JC, et al: Recent advances in the evaluation and treatment of shoulder instability: Anterior, posterior and multidirectional. Arthroscopy 2002;18:1-13.
You Might Also Like
Medically Verified Content by
Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon