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Orthopedic Board Review: Set 861 - 100 High-Yield MCQs

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review: 100 High-Yield MCQs | Mock Exam Set 849 | Dr. Mohammed Hutaif

14 Apr 2026 103 min read 106 Views

Key Takeaway

This page offers 100 high-yield Orthopedic Surgery Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), specifically Mock Exam Set #849, tailored for ABOS, OITE, and FRCS board exam preparation. Surgeons can use these comprehensive questions to review critical topics, enhance their understanding, and confidently ace their certification.

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Question 1High Yield
Figure 10 shows the radiograph of an active 75-year-old woman who reports severe leg pain after a fall. Management should consist of
Explanation
Explanation
The patient has a comminuted fracture of the proximal femur and joint space narrowing of the acetabulum. Therefore, the prosthesis should be converted to a total hip arthroplasty. Because there is extensive comminution, the revision stem should bypass the area of bone loss by two bone diameters. A hemiarthroplasty is not indicated because the patient has no acetabular cartilage. Open reduction and internal fixation may not stabilize the prosthesis. A resection arthroplasty or treatment in traction will not leave the patient with adequate function. Garbuz DS, Masri BA, Duncan CP: Periprosthetic fractures of the femur: Principles of prevention and management, in Cannon WD Jr (ed): Instructional Course Lectures 47. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 237-242.
References:
  • Montijo H, Ebert FR, Lennox DA: Treatment of proximal femur fractures associated with total hip arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 1989;4:115-123.
Question 2High Yield
The fracture shown in Figure 50 is most reliably treated with what form of fixation?
General Orthopedics 2026 Practice Questions: Set 9 (Solved) - Figure 59
Explanation
The radiograph shows a comminuted proximal ulnar fracture. The most reliable fixation is a posterior plate, acting as a tension band plate. The fracture involves the proximal shaft of the ulna; therefore, a 3.5-mm compression plate or one of similar size should be used to provide adequate stability. Kirschner wires and tension band wires do not provide axial stability of the comminution of the ulna. Compression screws alone will most likely fail and will not provide axial rotational stability to the construct. A medial plate will not resist the distraction forces across this fracture. McKee MD, Seiler JG, Jupiter JB: The application of the limited contact dynamic compression plate in the upper extremity: An analysis of 114 consecutive cases. Injury 1995;26:661-666.
Question 3High Yield
A patient who sustained a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) 18 months ago has a long-standing spastic adduction contracture of the shoulder with a rigid block to passive external rotation. Significant hygiene problems exist with maceration and continued skin breakdown. Management should consist of
Explanation
Following a CVA, the muscular imbalance often leads to a fixed contracture of the shoulder in adduction, internal rotation, and flexion. The responsible muscles include the pectoralis major, subscapularis, teres major, and latissimus dorsi. If stretching cannot produce enough improvement for axillary hygiene, then surgery is an option. If the shoulder resists external rotation during examination with the arm at the side, as in this patient, then the subscapularis is spastic and contributing to the deformity as well and needs to be released along with the pectoralis. Phenol nerve blocks are most effective and best given within 6 months of the initial CVA to be effective. Lidocaine blocks may be helpful in determining whether a deformity is caused by a fixed soft-tissue contracture or by spasticity but play no role once the contracture is present. The modified L'Episcopo procedure is indicated in patients with contracture secondary to brachial plexus birth palsies. Braun RM, Botte MJ: Treatment of shoulder deformity in acquired spasticity. Clin Orthop 1999;368:54-65.
Question 4High Yield
A 54-year-old man undergoes uneventful anterior cervical diskectomy and interbody fusion at C4-5 for focal disk herniation and C5 radiculopathy. At the 3-week follow-up examination, the patient reports a persistent cough. Pulmonary evaluation reveals a mild but persistent aspiration. Laryngoscopy reveals partial paralysis of the left vocal cord, most likely caused by
Explanation
Explanation
The exact anatomic event responsible for vocal cord paralysis associated with anterior cervical surgery remains a question. Apfelbaum and associates, in an excellent review of 900 anterior cervical surgeries, identified 30 patients with vocal cord paralysis, 3 of which were permanent. They showed that retractors placed under the longus coli for anterior cervical exposures can compress the laryngeal-tracheal branches within the larynx against the tented endotracheal tube rather than the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which is extrinsic to the larynx. By releasing the endotracheal cuff and allowing the tube to recenter itself after placement of the retractors, they were able to decrease vocal cord injury from 6.4% to 1.7%. Jewett and associates suggested that a left-sided approach may result in a lower incidence of injury. Endotracheal intubation is the second most common cause of vocal cord injury, with an incidence of approximately 2%. Apfelbaum RI, Kriskovich MD, Haller JR: On the incidence, cause, and prevention of recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis during anterior cervical spine surgery. Spine 2000;25:2906-2912.
References:
  • Jewett BA, Menico GA, Spengler DM, Coleman SC, Netterville JL: Vocal Cord Paralysis Following Anterior Cervical Spine Surgery. Paper presented at the annual meeting or the Cervical Spine Research Society, December 2000, Charleston SC, Paper #7.
Question 5High Yield
Figures 34a and 34b show the axial and sagittal MRI scans of a 36-year-old man who reports the insidious onset of pain in the right shoulder. What is the most appropriate description of the acromial morphology?
Upper Extremity 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 24Upper Extremity 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 25
Explanation
The MRI scans reveal a meso os acromiale with edema at the site in a skeletally mature patient. Sher JS: Anatomy, biomechanics, and pathophysiology of rotator cuff disease, in Iannotti JP, Williams GR (eds): Disorders of the Shoulder: Diagnosis and Management. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 1999, p 23.
Question 6High Yield
A 37-year-old patient with type I diabetes mellitus has a flexor tenosynovitis of the thumb flexor tendon sheath following a kitchen knife puncture wound to the volar aspect of the thumb. Left unattended, this infection will likely first spread proximally creating an abscess in which of the following spaces of the palm?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 57
Explanation
Flexor tenosynovitis of the thumb flexor tendon sheath can spread proximally and form an abscess within the thenar space of the palm. The flexor pollicis longus tendon does not pass through the central space of the palm or the hypothenar space of the palm. The flexor pollicis longus tendon does pass through the carpal tunnel, but this is not a palmar space. The three palmar spaces include the hypothenar space, the thenar space, and the central space. The posterior adductor space would likely only be involved secondarily after spread from a thenar space infection. Hollinshead W: Anatomy for Surgeons: The Back and Limbs, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, vol 3, pp 478-479.
Question 7High Yield
A 20-year-old professional female jockey who is wearing a helmet is thrown from her horse. What is the most likely location of her injury?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 60
Explanation
The incidence of injury associated with horseback rising is estimated to be one per 350 riding hours to one per 1,000 riding hours. Of these injuries, approximately 15% to 27% are severe enough to warrant hospital admission. Significant and serious injuries in equestrian activities are associated with recreational riders and those not wearing a helmet. Head and spine injuries are more common in recreational and nonhelmeted riders. Extremity injuries are more common in professional and helmeted riders. Professional riders are less likely to be admitted to the hospital than recreational riders, and are about half as likely to be disabled at 6 months after injury as recreational riders. Lim J, Puttaswamy V, Gizzi M, et al: Pattern of equestrian injuries presenting to a Sydney teaching hospital. ANZ J Surg 2003;73:567-571.
Question 8High Yield
A 66-year-old man has a high-grade angiosarcoma of the right tibia. A radiograph is shown in Figure 43. Treatment should consist of
Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 10 - Figure 1
Explanation
Angiosarcoma is a locally aggressive sarcoma. The radiograph shows extensive multiple discontinuous lesions throughout the entire tibia. The extent of bone involvement precludes resection; therefore, the treatment of choice is amputation, either above the knee or through the knee. Radiation therapy is not needed after amputation, and chemotherapy remains investigational for soft-tissue sarcoma.
Question 9High Yield
A 48-year-old woman with a history of a spinal cord injury as a teenager, has unilateral weakness in the left lower extremity. She has used an ankle-foot orthosis for many years without difficulty but recently has had a recurrent painful callus beneath the great toe that has been recalcitrant to nonsurgical management. Examination reveals intact sensation with an intractable plantar keratosis (IPK) beneath the first metatarsal head. Motor examination reveals no active ankle or great toe dorsiflexion, and 4/5 plantar flexion strength at the ankle and great toe. Passive ankle dorsiflexion is 10 degrees, whereas passive plantar flexion is 40 degrees. Passive great toe dorsiflexion is 30 degrees and plantar flexion is 10 degrees. Foot alignment on standing is normal. Radiographs are shown in Figures 47a and 47b with a marker beneath the IPK. Based on her request for surgical treatment, what is the most appropriate procedure?
Explanation
Explanation
47b Passive dorsiflexion is adequate to accommodate standing erect without excessive pressure, and a gastrocnemius recession may lead to more instability. Complete excision of the medial sesamoid could lead to an iatrogenic hallux valgus deformity. She does not have a cock-up toe deformity; therefore, a flexor hallucis longus tendon transfer is not warranted. There is no significant foot deformity; therefore, a dorsiflexion osteotomy is not warranted. The appropriate procedure is planing of the plantar half of the medial sesamoid, thereby preserving its function while diminishing the excessive pressure. Grace DL: Sesamoid problems. Foot Ankle Clin 2000;5:609-627. Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 135-150.
Question 10High Yield
Which of the following parameters is considered most important when assessing an acetabular fracture for surgical indications?
Explanation
The most important aspect in the decision for surgery in an acetabular fracture is the ability of the femoral head to remain concentrically reduced under the dome in AP and Judet oblique views of the pelvis. If this parameter is present, then the need for surgery is determined by other aspects such as fragmentation, age, incongruity, and displacement. If the head remains stable under the dome without traction, there is sufficient acetabular dome to provide stability, and nonsurgical treatment may be appropriate. Tile M: Assessment and management of acetabular fractures, in Tile M (ed): Pelvic and Acetabular Fractures, ed 2. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1995, pp 305-354. Letournel E: Acetabular fractures: Classification and management. Clin Orthop 1980;151:81-106.
Question 11High Yield
In patients with suspected hepatitis C, which of the following tests is commonly used to confirm the diagnosis after a positive ELISA screening test?
Explanation
Explanation
The basic diagnostic test for hepatitis C (HCV) is detection of an antibody to epitopes on an enzyme-linked immunosorbent anti-HCV assay (ELISA). The currently used ELISA has high sensitivity (92%) and specificity (95%). False positives, however, still occur. The currently used supplemental test for HCV is strip immunoblot assay, which is based on detection of several HCV epitopes on nitrocellulose paper by antibody-capture techniques. Molecular amplification by PCR technology is very sensitive, but difficult to standardize and susceptible to contamination. Microarray and proteomics are relatively recent molecular techniques used for analysis of genes or proteins, respectively. A Northern blot is used to detect mRNA levels of specific genes but is not used in this situation. de Medina M, Schiff ER: Hepatitis C: Diagnostic assays. Semin Liver Dis 1995;15:33-40.
References:
  • McGrory BJ, Kilby AE: Hepatitis C virus infection: Review and implications for the orthopedic surgeon. Am J Orthop 2000;29:261-266.
Question 12High Yield
A 54-year-old man sustained a small superficial abrasion over the left acromioclavicular joint after falling from his bicycle. Examination reveals no other physical findings. Radiographs show a displaced fracture of the lateral end of the clavicle distal to a line drawn vertically to the coracoid process. Management should consist of
Trauma 2006 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 1
Explanation
Displaced clavicular fractures lateral to the coracoid process (Neer type II and III) are best managed nonsurgically with sling immobilization and physical therapy, starting with pendulum exercises and progressing to active-assisted exercises when comfortable. Supervised therapy should be performed for 3 months or until full painless motion is achieved. In one study by Robinson and Cairns, this form of treatment provided patients with a 86% chance of avoiding a secondary reconstructive procedure. Robinson CM, Cairns DA: Primary nonoperative treatment of displaced lateral fractures of the clavicle. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:778-782.
Question 13High Yield
One of the serious potential complications of repair of distal biceps tendon ruptures is limited pronation and supination as a result of synostosis. What surgical approach and technique presents the highest risk for development of this complication?
Explanation
Explanation
The risk of synostosis is imminent with any technique for repairing a distal biceps tendon rupture. However, the risk is quite low for all approaches that avoid exposure of the ulna, including the muscle-splitting two-incision technique.
References:
  • Norris TR: Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Shoulder and Elbow. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, p 342.
Question 14High Yield
Iliosacral screws placed for stabilization of posterior pelvic ring injuries (eg, sacroiliac dislocation) that exit the sacrum anteriorly are most likely to injure which of the following structures?
Explanation
Iliosacral screws have gained popularity for posterior stabilization of pelvic ring disruptions, but complications attributed to incorrect placement are a clinical problem. The L5 nerve root is at greatest risk and is in closest proximity to a malpositioned screw (exiting the sacrum). The L4 root is more anterior at this level. The S1 root is still intraosseous at this level and is at risk but not from the screw exiting anteriorly at this level. The arteries are at risk but are more anterior and are at less risk than the L5 nerve root.
Question 15High Yield
Which of the following is considered the best method for the prevention of wrong-site surgery?
Explanation
Explanation
The best method of preventing wrong-site surgery is for the surgeon to initial the surgical site in the preoperative holding area after discussion and confirmation of the site with the patient. This should be done before sedating medications are administered. A recent study found that patient noncompliance with specific preoperative instructions to mark the site with a "yes" at home was surprisingly high; only 59% of the patients marked the extremity correctly and 37% made no mark. Noncompliance was higher in those with workers' compensation claims (70%) and those with previous related surgery (51%). DeGiovanni CW, Kang L, Manuel J: Patient compliance in avoiding wrong site surgery. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:815-819.
References:
  • American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. Advisory Statement: Wrong-site Surgery. Document 1015, 2002 Sept. www.aaos.org/wordhtml/papers/advismt/wrong.htm.
Question 16High Yield
Figure 22 shows the radiographs of a 16-year-old boy who injured his elbow in a fall 1 year ago. Although he has no pain, he reports restricted forearm rotation and elbow flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Shoulder Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 19
Explanation
Congenital dislocation of the radial head is often confused with posttraumatic dislocation. The distinguishing feature here is the dome-shaped radial head. Some patients with congenital anomalies fail to recognize their limitations until an injury occurs. Soft-tissue contractures do not cause radial head dislocation nor do they usually cause this pattern of motion restriction (mainly flexion and rotation without significant loss of extension). There is no deformity of the ulna to suggest an old Monteggia lesion. Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1993, p 196.
Question 17High Yield
Following fixation of a displaced intra-articular fracture of the distal humerus through a posterior approach, what is the expected outcome?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 16) - Figure 53
Explanation
Following repair of a displaced intra-articular distal humerus fracture, the ability to regain full elbow range of motion is rare. Recent reports of olecranon osteotomy have yielded healing rates of between 95% to 100%. According to McKee and associates, patients can be expected to have residual loss of elbow flexion strength of 25%. McKee MD, Wilson TL, Winston L, et al: Functional outcome following surgical treatment of intra-articular distal humeral fractures through a posterior approach. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:1701-1707.
Question 18High Yield
A 27-year-old man was struck by a taxi cab and sustained comminuted right distal third tibia and fibula fractures; treatment consisted of placement of an intramedullary nail in the tibia the following morning. At his 6-month follow-up, he has clawing of all five toes. Examination reveals flexion deformities of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints that are flexible with plantar flexion and rigid with dorsiflexion. Calluses are present on the dorsum and tip of the toes. Single heel rise is normal. He has a mild equinus contracture (relative to the left leg) that is not relieved with knee flexion. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
Explanation
Explanation
This is an example of tethering of the flexor hallucis longus/flexor digitorum longus (FHL/FDL) to the fracture site. Additional time and/or physical therapy and bracing would not be expected to be of benefit. Release of the FHL and FDL from the fracture site or retromalleolar lengthening will address the posttraumatic claw toe deformity and Achilles tendon lengthening will address the mild equinus. Posterior tibial tendon transfer is not appropriate as the patient demonstrates a normal heel rise. Midfoot releases and hallux fusion are also not indicated. Feeny MS, Williams RL, Stephens MM: Selective lengthening of the proximal flexor tendon in the management of acquired claw toes. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2001;83:335-338.
References:
  • Clawson DK: Claw toes following tibial fracture. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1974;103:47-48.
Question 19High Yield
Initial repair of the large U-shaped rotator cuff tear shown in Figure 12 consists of closing the tear side-to-side to take advantage of margin convergence. The most significant biomechanical consequence of this repair step results in
Explanation
Explanation
Margin convergence refers to the phenomenon that occurs with side-to-side closure of large U- or L-shaped rotator cuff tears in which the free margin of the tear converges toward the greater tuberosity as the side-to-side tear progresses. The creation of the converged cuff margin creates decreased strain in the free margin of the repaired cuff, resulting in a decreased strain in the repair sutures. While the size of the humeral head defect is made smaller with side-to-side closure, biomechanically, this is less significant. The mild increase in thickness of the repair at the side-to-side margin is less important than a reduction in stress in the repaired tissue. Stress in the crescent cable region of the cuff actually increases and becomes more physiologic in transmitting force from the cuff to the greater tuberosity. Burkhart SS: A stepwise approach to arthroscopic rotator cuff repair based on biomechanical principles. Arthroscopy 2000;16:82-90.
References:
  • Burkhart SS, Athanasiou KA, Wirth MA: Margin convergence: A method of reducing strain in massive rotator cuff tears. Arthroscopy 1996;12:335-338.
Question 20High Yield
A 32-year-old runner has pain in the medial arch that radiates into the medial three toes. He reports the presence of pain only when running. Examination reveals normal hindfoot alignment. There is a weakly positive Tinel's sign over the posterior tibial nerve. Tenderness is noted with palpation over the plantar medial area in the vicinity of the navicular tuberosity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The examination findings reveal that there is specific involvement of the medial plantar nerve by the distribution of the pain medially. The symptoms exclude the possibility of plantar fasciitis and anterior tibial tendinitis. Sinus tarsi syndrome would produce anterolateral symptoms rather than medial symptoms. Rask MR: Medial plantar neurapraxia (jogger's foot): Report of three cases. Clin Orthop 1978;134:193-195. Murphy PC, Baxter DE: Nerve entrapment of the foot and ankle in runners. Clin Sports Med 1985;4:753-763.
Question 21High Yield
A 45-year-old man who underwent an open capsulolabral stabilization procedure 15 years ago now reports pain and has no external rotation on the affected side. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Examination reveals external rotation to -5 degrees compared with 50 degrees of external rotation on the contralateral side. Radiographs show a small inferior osteophyte and minimal posterior glenoid wear. Which of the following procedures will offer the best chance of restoring motion, decreasing pain, and preserving the native joint?
Upper Extremity 2005 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 19
Explanation
Loss of external rotation following stabilization procedures can result in progressive degenerative joint disease. A tight anterior capsule results in posterior humeral translation and progressive posterior glenoid wear. Patients with early degenerative joint disease and pain can be treated with anterior release to restore more normal glenohumeral biomechanics. This procedure not only improves function but also decreases pain in most patients. Closed manipulation at 15 years after surgery is unlikely to be successful and carries the risk of complications. Acromioplasty, posterior release, and removal of osteophytes do not address the pathology. Arthroscopic releases are favored for intra-articular procedures that have addressed the pathology of instability. Open releases are recommended for nonanatomic extra-articular repairs that include subscapularis tightening procedures. MacDonald PB, Hawkins RJ, Fowler PJ, et al: Release of the subscapularis for internal rotation contracture and pain after anterior repair for recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:734-737.
Question 22High Yield
An 18-year-old lacrosse player sustained a hamstring pull during a game. Examination the next day reveals ecchymosis through the posterior thigh and a palpable defect in the hamstring musculature in the middle third of the thigh. What is the most likely site of anatomic injury?
Explanation
Explanation
Hamstring strains are common in athletes. Basic science research and clinical data indicate that the majority of these injuries occur at the myotendinous junction, not within the muscle belly. Avulsion of hamstring origin from the ischial tuberosity does occur but is less common. Complete tearing of all hamstring muscles is unlikely to occur. Griffin LY (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 17-33.
References:
  • Clanton TO, Coupe KJ: Hamstring strains in athletes: Diagnosis and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1998;6:237-248.
Question 23High Yield
Figure 3 shows the radiographs of a 32-year-old man who fell 12 feet onto his outstretched arm and sustained a fracture-dislocation of the elbow. Initial management consisted of closed reduction of the dislocation. Surgical treatment should now include repair or reduction and fixation of the
Shoulder 2000 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 5
Explanation
The radiographs show fractures of the coronoid and radial head. The medial collateral ligament has been avulsed from the ulnar insertion, and there is a valgus opening on the medial side. The lateral collateral ligament is always disrupted in elbow dislocations and fracture-dislocations that occur secondary to falls. This is known as the terrible triad injury (dislocation and fractures of the coronoid and radial head); it has a very poor prognosis because of its propensity for recurrent or persistent instability and late arthritis. The principle in treating this injury is to repair all of the injured parts or protect them with a hinged external fixator until they heal. Norris TR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Shoulder and Elbow. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 345-354. Kasser JR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 5. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1996, pp 283-294.
Question 24High Yield
Commotio cordis is best treated with
Explanation
Explanation
Commotio cordis is a rare but catastrophic condition that is caused by blunt chest trauma. It results in cardiac fibrillation and is universally fatal unless immediate defibrillation is performed. Although case reports of successful use of the chest thump maneuver exist, the best method of treatment is cardiac defibrillation. IV fluids, epinephrine, and albuterol inhalers are used to treat dehydration, anaphylactic shock, and bronchospasm respectively, and are not effective in the treatment of commotio cordis. McCrory P: Commotio cordis. Br J Sports Med 2002;36:236-237.
References:
  • Boden BP, Tacchetti R, Mueller FO: Catastrophic injuries in high school and college baseball players. Am J Sports Med 2004;32:1189-1196.
Question 25High Yield
What is the primary limiting membrane and mechanical support for the periphery of the physis?
Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 4 - Figure 115
Explanation
The perichondrial fibrous ring of La Croix acts as a limiting membrane that provides mechanical support for the bone-cartilage junction of the growth plate. It is continuous with the ossification groove of Ranvier, which contributes chondrocytes for the increase in width of the growth plate. The zone of provisional calcification lies at the bottom of the hypertrophic zone and is the site of initial calcification of the matrix. It is quite weak and usually is the cleavage plane for fractures; therefore, it does not qualify as mechanical support. The last intact transverse septum separates the zone of provisional calcification from the primary spongiosa and provides no real support to the physis. The primary spongiosa is the part of the metaphysis nearest the physis. Netter FH: Growth plate, in Woodburne RT, Crelin ES, Kaplan FS, Dingle RV (eds): The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations. Summit, NJ, Ciba-Geigy Corporation, 1987, vol 8, pp 166-167.
Question 26High Yield
A patient sustained a sharp laceration to the base of his left, nondominant thumb 4 months ago. Examination reveals no active flexion but full passive motion of the interphalangeal joint. What is the best treatment option?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 84
Explanation
The patient has a chronic flexor tendon laceration. There are options to restore motion and strength; therefore, fusion is not necessary. Full range of motion is present so the soft tissues are suitable for a tendon transfer. A transfer of the flexor digitorum superficialis of the ring finger to the insertion of the flexor pollicis longus on the distal phalanx provides good results with a one-stage operation. Schneider LH, Wiltshire D: Restoration of flexor pollicis longus function by flexor digitorum superficialis transfer. J Hand Surg Am 1983;8:98-101.
Question 27High Yield
A 17-year-old javelin thrower reports medial-sided elbow pain and diminished grip strength while throwing. He has decreased sensation in the little and ring fingers of his throwing hand only while throwing. The sensory deficits resolve at rest. Examination of the elbow reveals no instability and full motion. He has a positive Tinel's sign over the cubital tunnel and a positive elbow flexion test. Radiographs are normal. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Explanation
The patient's symptoms and examination findings are consistent with ulnar neuritis/cubital tunnel syndrome, most probably exacerbated by javelin throwing. The first step includes rest and extension splinting. Surgical intervention should only be considered after failure of nonsurgical management. Posner MA: Compressive neuropathies of the ulnar nerve at the elbow and wrist. Instr Course Lect 2000;49:305-317.
References:
  • Omer GE, Spinner M, Van Beek AL (eds): Management of Peripheral Nerve Problems, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, pp 65-69.
Question 28High Yield
What neurovascular structure is at greatest risk when creating a proximal anterolateral elbow arthroscopy portal?
Explanation
Explanation
The radial nerve is 4 to 7 mm from the anterolateral portal, which is placed 1 cm anterior and 3 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle. The posterior interosseous nerve can lie 1 to 14 mm from the portal site. Andrews JR, Carson WG: Arthroscopy of the elbow. Arthroscopy 1985;1:97-107.
References:
  • Lynch G, Meyers JF, Whipple TL, et al: Neurovascular anatomy and elbow arthroscopy: Inherent risks. Arthroscopy 1986;2:190-197.
Question 29High Yield
In girls with idiopathic scoliosis, peak height velocity (PHV) typically occurs at what point?
Explanation
Explanation
PHV generally occurs while girls are still Risser 0; menarche typically occurs before Risser 1, which has a wide variation in its timing. The curve magnitude at the PHV is the best prognostic indicator available. Most untreated patients with curves greater than 30 degrees at PHV require surgery, while patients with smaller curves at that stage typically do not require surgery. Little DG, Song KM, Katz D, Herring JA: Relationship of peak height velocity to other maturity indicators in idiopathic scoliosis in girls. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:685-693.
References:
  • Anderson M, Hwang SC, Green WT: Growth of the normal trunk in boys and girls during the second decade of life; related to age, maturity, and ossification of the iliac epiphyses. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1965;47:1554-1564.
Question 30High Yield
Which of the following factors has the most effect on the pullout strength of lumbar transpedicular screw fixation?
Explanation
Explanation
Although all of the factors listed contribute to the pullout strength of transpedicular screw fixation, low bone density generally is felt to be the most influential. Wittenberg RH, Shea M, Swartz DE, Lee KS, White AA III, Hayes WC: Importance of bone mineral density in instrumented spine fusions. Spine 1991;16:647-652.
References:
  • Zindrick MR, Wiltse LL, Widell EH, et al: A biomechanical study of intrapeduncular screw fixation in the lumbosacral spine. Clin Orthop 1986;203:99-112.
Question 31High Yield
A 59-year-old woman underwent open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of her ankle 6 months ago, with subsequent hardware removal 3 months later. She now reports persistent, diffuse ankle pain, swelling, and limited range of motion. Figure 48 shows an oblique radiograph of the ankle. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Explanation
The radiographs demonstrate persistent widening of the medial clear space with an ossicle. This represents soft-tissue interposition-scar tissue, the deltoid ligament, or the posterior tibialis tendon. Physical therapy will not improve the symptomatic malalignment. Hardware removal would be indicated for pain localized to the lateral fibula. Repeat syndesmotic screw fixation alone will not reduce the malalignment. Deltoid ligament repair may be necessary but will need to be combined with debridement of the medial ankle and syndesmosis, as well as repeat placement of one or more syndesmotic screws to maintain the reduction. Weening B, Bhandari M: Predictors of functional outcome following transsyndesmotic screw fixation of ankle fractures. J Orthop Trauma 2005;19:102-108.
Question 32High Yield
Figures 12a and 12b show the radiographs of a 50-year-old patient who reports acute knee pain after sustaining a twisting injury while playing tennis. Examination is unremarkable. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of
Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 3 - Figure 15Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 3 - Figure 16
Explanation
The radiographs show localized diffuse cortical thickening that is characteristic of melorheostosis. The condition may be monostotic or it may involve many bones in one extremity (monomelic) in the distribution of a sclerotome. Bone scans will show increased uptake at the site or sites of skeletal involvement. Long tubular bones are most commonly involved. Melorheostosis is usually asymptomatic and requires no treatment. On rare occasions, there may be associated soft-tissue contractures. Dorfman H, Czerniak B: Bone Tumors. St Louis, MO, Mosby Inc, 1998, pp 1105-1107. Campbell CJ, Papademetriou T, Bonfiglio M: Melorheostosis: A report of the clinical, roentgenographic, and pathological findings in fourteen cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1968;50:1281-1304.
Question 33High Yield
In a patient who has undergone fusion with instrumentation from T4 to the sacrum for adult scoliosis, at which site is a pseudarthrosis most likely to be discovered?
Explanation
Although pseudarthrosis can be found anywhere within the spine that has been fused using long multisegmental fixation to the sacrum, it most commonly occurs at the lumbosacral junction. The thoracolumbar junction is another common site of potential pseudarthrosis. In this location, the anatomy changes from lumbar transverse processes to thoracic through the transition zone, and overlying instrumentation often makes it difficult to obtain enough sound bone on decorticated bone to achieve a successful fusion. Saer EH III, Winter RB, Lonstein JE: Long scoliosis fusion to the sacrum in adults with nonparalytic scoliosis: An improved method. Spine 1990;15;650-653. Kostuik JP, Hall BB: Spinal fusions to the sacrum in adults with scoliosis. Spine 1983;8:489-500.
Question 34High Yield
A 32-year-old woman sustained a closed calcaneus fracture 2 years ago and was treated nonsurgically. She now reports a 6-month history of progressively worsening pain over the anterior ankle and lateral hindfoot. Climbing stairs and ascending slopes is particularly difficult for her. Bracing and intra-articular corticosteroid injections have not provided sufficient relief. Figure 36 shows a weight-bearing lateral radiograph. What is the most appropriate surgical option?
Explanation
Explanation
Intra-articular fractures of the calcaneus often include depression of the posterior facet of the subtalar joint. This can lead to dorsiflexion of the talus because of diminished height posteriorly. In a weight-bearing position, the dorsal surface of the talar neck can impinge against the distal tibia, causing anterior ankle pain. In addition, posttraumatic arthritis of the subtalar joint typically occurs after a calcaneus fracture. The patient's symptoms are consistent with both anterior ankle impingement and subtalar degenerative arthritis. The Bohler angle, approximately 15 degrees, confirms depression of the posterior facet. Distraction subtalar arthrodesis with a corticocancellous bone block autograft will improve talar declination, decrease anterior impingement, and address the subtalar degenerative arthritis simultaneously. Rammelt S, Grass R, Zawadski T, et al: Foot function after subtalar distraction bone-block arthrodesis: A prospective study. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2004;86:659-668.
Question 35High Yield
Figure 8 shows the radiograph of a 76-year-old man who has knee pain and swelling. History reveals that he underwent total knee arthroplasty 18 years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anatomy 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 18
Explanation
The radiograph reveals complete loss of joint space with particulate metal debris consistent with total polyethylene failure and metal-on-metal articulation. The components appear to be well fixed and minimal osteolysis is evident. Kilgus DJ, Moreland JR, Finerman GA, et al: Catastrophic wear of tibial polyethylene inserts. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1991;273:223-231.
Question 36High Yield
A 70-year-old man who underwent an uncomplicated large rotator cuff repair 6 months ago is now seeking a second opinion regarding persistent pain and weakness in his shoulder. Examination reveals that his incision is well healed and unreactive. The surgical report suggests that the tendons were secured back to bone with sutures through the greater tuberosity. Figure 28 shows a radiograph that was obtained 1 week ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 4 - Figure 43
Explanation
Symptoms can persist following a rotator cuff repair for a variety of reasons. In the early postoperative period, infection is the primary concern. Stiffness and loss of motion can occur because of postoperative scarring. Complex regional pain syndrome can occur but is rare, and the diagnosis is not made with a plain radiograph. This radiograph shows a superiorly migrated humeral head that articulates with the acromion, indicating that the repair has failed. While large to massive tears may fail more commonly than once thought, the clinical outcome may be satisfactory in many patients. Mansat P, Cofield RH, Kersten TE, Rowland CM: Complications of rotator cuff repair. Orthop Clin North Am 1997;28:205-213.
Question 37High Yield
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is transmitted by which of the following modes of inheritance?
Pediatrics Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 20
Explanation
Patients with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy show progressive muscular weakness because of the absence of dystrophin and have the clinical picture of progressive muscle weakness. The condition is an X-linked genetic disease. Fitzgerald RH, Kaufer H, Malkani AL: Orthopaedics. St Louis, MO, Mosby Year Book, 2002, pp 1573-1583.
Question 38High Yield
Glenohumeral inferior stability in the adducted shoulder position is primarily a function of the
Explanation
Explanation
When the arm is adducted, the superior structures, including the superior glenohumeral ligament, are responsible in limiting the inferior translation. With the arm abducted, the inferior glenohumeral ligament complex is responsible for limiting inferior subluxation. Rotator cuff activity can actually depress the humeral head and does not play a role in preventing inferior subluxation. The long head of the biceps and the posterior glenohumeral ligament do not play a role in protecting the shoulder from inferior instability. Warner JJ, Deng XH, Warren RF, Torzilli PA: Static capsuloligamentous restraints to superior-inferior translation of the glenohumeral joint. Am J Sports Med 1992;20:675-685.
References:
  • Harryman DT II, Sidles JA, Harris SL, Matsen FA III: The role of the rotator interval capsule in passive motion and stability of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:53-66.
Question 39High Yield
An obese 10-year-old boy has had left groin pain and a limp for the past 2 months. Examination reveals decreased abduction and internal rotation. Laboratory studies show normal renal function and an elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level. AP and frog lateral radiographs of the pelvis are shown in Figures 30a and 30b. What is the best course of action?
General Orthopedics 2026 Practice Questions: Set 5 (Solved) - Figure 43General Orthopedics 2026 Practice Questions: Set 5 (Solved) - Figure 44
Explanation
The radiographs show a grade I slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) that is classified as stable because the child is able to bear weight. The elevated TSH level indicates possible hypothyroidism. SCFE usually occurs in boys age 12 to 14 years. Because of the patient's young age and hypothyroidism, he is at increased risk for slippage of the contralateral hip; therefore, prophylactic pinning of the uninvolved side also should be considered. Because of the risk of slip progression, crutch treatment and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are not indicated. Realignment osteotomy is not indicated for grade I SCFE. Traction to reduce the slip, followed by pinning, has been advocated for unstable slips but is not indicated here. Loder RT, Wittenberg B, DeSilva G: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis associated with endocrine disorders. J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:349-356.
Question 40High Yield
A 23-year-old man sustains a unilateral jumped facet with an isolated cervical root injury in a motor vehicle accident. Acute reduction results in some initial improvement of his motor weakness. Over the next 48 hours, examination reveals ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in his face, limbs, and trunk, as well as nystagmus, tinnitus, and diplopia. What is the most likely etiology for these changes?
Explanation
The patient is showing signs of vertebral artery stroke. The signs of Wallenberg syndrome include those listed above, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation throughout the body, an ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, dysphagia, and ataxia. Vertebral artery injuries are not unusual in significant cervical facet injuries. A lesion in the cervical spinal cord is not associated with these symptoms, and an intracranial hemorrhage from trauma is unlikely to present in this manner. Young PA, Young PH: Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1997, pp 242-243. Hauop JS, et al: The cause of neurologic deterioration after acute cervical spinal cord injury. Spine 2001;26:340-346.
Question 41High Yield
A 65-year-old man has chronic Achilles insertional tendinitis that is refractory to nonsurgical management. A radiograph is shown in Figure 9. Preoperative counseling should include a discussion of the realistic duration of postoperative recovery. You should inform the patient that his expected recovery will last
Foot & Ankle 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 27
Explanation
An older patient with calcaneal enthesopathy may take a year or more to recover after tendon debridement and calcaneal ostectomy. Young patients, and those with purely tendon pathology, may recover more quickly. McGarvey WC, Palumbo RC, Baxter DE, et al: Insertional Achilles tendinitis: Surgical treatment through a central tendon splitting approach. Foot Ankle Int 2002;23:19-25.
Question 42High Yield
The illustration shown in Figure 19 shows a Chamberlain line. What is the most likely diagnosis?
General Orthopedics 2026 Practice Questions: Set 15 (Solved) - Figure 69
Explanation
Basilar invagination is best defined as vertical or compressive instability at the occiput-C1 joint. Such invaginations most commonly occur in patients with rheumatoid arthritis but also can occur secondary to trauma or tumor. A Chamberlain line is used as a method to determine basilar invagination. The odontoid tip should not be more than 5 mm above a Chamberlain line. Wiesel SW, Rothman RH: Occipito-atlantal hypermobility. Spine 1979;4:187-191.
Question 43High Yield
A 26-year-old man has had hand pain and progressive swelling in the knuckle for the past several months. He denies any trauma to the hand. The ring finger metacarpophalangeal joint is tender, and there is loss of motion in the digit. Figure 32a shows the radiograph and Figures 32b through 32d show the T1-weighted, T2-weighted, and gadolinium MRI scans, respectively. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Explanation
32b 32c 32d The radiograph reveals a subchondral lesion in the metacarpophalangeal joint that is lytic and expansile. The MRI scans show a mass that is moderate in intensity on the T2-weighted image and has some gadolinium uptake. There are no cystic components in this lesion. The subchondral location and expansile nature are highly suggestive of giant cell tumor of bone. A lesion with this appearance might also represent an aneurysmal bone cyst, given the amount of expansion present. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 113-118.
References:
  • Parsons TW: Benign bone tumors, in Fitzgerald R Jr, Kaufer H, Malkani A (eds): Orthopaedics. Philadelphia, PA, Mosby International, 2002, pp 1027-1035.
Question 44High Yield
A 35-year-old man sustains a closed Monteggia fracture. Examination reveals that sensation, vascular status, and finger flexion are normal. When he extends his wrist, it deviates radially, and he is unable to extend his fingers or thumb. After reduction of the fracture, what is the next step in treatment for the extensor deficits of the thumb and fingers?
Explanation
Explanation
The posterior interosseous nerve is located adjacent to the radial neck, placing it at risk for a traction injury with a dislocation of the proximal radius. The typical neurapraxia that results can be expected to resolve with observation within the first 6 to 12 weeks. If recovery is not clinically evident by 3 months, neurophysiologic studies are indicated. Jessing P: Monteggia lesions and their complicating nerve damage. Acta Orthop Scand 1975;46:601-609.
References:
  • Stein F, Grabias SL, Deffer PA: Nerve injuries complicating Monteggia lesions. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1971;53:1432-1436.
Question 45High Yield
Which of the following cardiac conditions is considered an absolute contraindication to vigorous exercise?
Sports Medicine Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 2
Explanation
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) accounts for up to 50% of cases of sudden death in young athletes. HCM phenotype becomes evident by age 13 to 14 years. Those at higher risk include individuals with cardiac symptoms, a family history of inherited cardiac disease, and those with a family history of premature sudden death. Echocardiography is useful for detecting structural heart disease, including the cardiomyopathies and valvular abnormalities. Trained adolescent athletes demonstrated greater absolute left ventricular wall thickness (LVWT) compared to controls. HCM should be considered in any trained adolescent male athlete with a LVWT of more than 12 mm (female of more than 11 mm) and a nondilated ventricle. Adolescent and adult athletes differ with respect to the range of LVWT measurements, as a manifestation of left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH). Differentiating LVH ("athlete's heart") from HCM involves looking at additional echocardiographic features. Sharma and associates reported that adolescents with HCM had a small or normal-sized left ventricle (less than 48 mm) chamber size, while those with LVH had a chamber size at the upper limits of normal (52 mm to 60 mm). Sharma S, Maron BJ, Whyte G, et al: Physiologic limits of left ventricular hypertrophy in elite junior athletes: Relevance to differential diagnosis of athlete's heart and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. J Am College Cardiol 2002;40:1431-1436. Maron BJ, Spirito P, Wesley Y, et al: Development and progression of left ventricular hypertrophy in children with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. N Engl J Med 1986;315:610-614.
Question 46High Yield
A 55-year-old man underwent cementless total hip arthroplasty for advanced painful osteoarthritis of the hip 2 years ago. The follow-up radiograph shown in Figure 30 shows
General Orthopedics 2026 Practice Questions: Set 7 (Solved) - Figure 1
Explanation
The radiograph shows a well-osseointegrated tapered stem with a metaphyseal porous coating, spot welds in the porous region, and calcar rounding. Trochanteric stress shielding and distal cortical hypertrophy are also signs of ingrown stems but are seen more frequently in association with extensively porous-coated stems exhibiting diaphyseal ingrowth. There is no evidence of lucent lines or a pedestal, signs that suggest instability. Femoral stem subsidence can be determined only by a review of sequential radiographs. Engh CA, Massin P, Suthers KE: Roentgenographic assessment of the biologic fixation of porous-surfaced femoral components. Clin Orthop 1990;257:107-128.
Question 47High Yield
Which of the following types of displaced posterior pelvic disruptions must undergo anatomic reduction and internal fixation to ensure the best clinical outcome?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 89
Explanation
Although all of the above displaced injuries require reduction, the sacroiliac joint dislocation is a ligamentous injury. Without fixation, healing is unlikely and the result will be a painful dislocation. Both Holdsworth and Tile showed that the sacroiliac joint must be reduced anatomically and stabilized. The injuries through bone will unite fairly rapidly and, if reduced and stabilized with traction or external fixation, will generally result in an acceptable outcome unless modified by other associated problems such as neurologic injury. Tile M: Fractures of the Pelvis and the Acetabulum. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1995. Holdsworth F W: Dislocation and fracture dislocation of the pelvis. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1948;30:461-465.
Question 48High Yield
A 51-year-old male truck driver has had progressive left hip pain for more than 2 years, and he reports that the pain has become severe in the past 9 months. He is now unable to work because of the pain. Examination reveals that range of motion of the hip is limited to 95 degrees of flexion, 0 degrees of internal rotation, and 20 degrees of external rotation. The plain radiograph, MRI scan, and intraoperative gross photographs are shown in Figures 9a through 9d. Management should consist of
Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 29Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 30Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 31Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 32
Explanation
The diagnosis is synovial chondromatosis. While the plain radiograph fails to show any calcifications, the MRI scan shows an intra-articular mass that involves the capsule. Grossly multiple granular cartilage nodules are seen. Management should consist of removing all loose bodies along with the synovial membrane.
Question 49High Yield
What is the reported failure rate for surgical treatment of a Morton's neuroma?
Explanation
Explanation
The reported failure rate is in the range of 15%, which may be the result of incorrect diagnosis, improper web space selection, or formation of a stump neuroma. Therefore, the procedure should be approached with caution, measures should be taken to ensure that the diagnosis is accurate, and nonsurgical options should be exhausted. Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 101-111. Beskin JL: Nerve entrapment syndromes of the foot and ankle. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:261-269.
References:
  • Mann RA, Reynolds JC: Interdigital neuroma: A critical clinical analysis. Foot Ankle 1983;3:238-243.
Question 50High Yield
The photomicrograph in Figure 37 shows a repaired dural tear 4 days after surgery. The material interposed between the dural edges (D) is composed of
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 14
Explanation
During the initial healing phases of a dural tear, pia and arachnoid from adjacent nerve roots migrate, fill the dural defect, and create a pia-arachnoid plug. It is this initial plugging of the defect that is believed to prevent further egress of cerebrospinal fluid through the defect. The plug has been shown to develop by the second postoperative day. Fibroblastic proliferation occurs within the dura itself and accounts for the bulbous ends of the dura seen in the photomicrograph. The appearance of the material within the dural edges is inconsistent with the appearance of neural elements, and scar tissue formation occurs later in the healing process. Cain JE Jr, Dryer RF, Barton BR: Evaluation of dural closure techniques: Suture methods, fibrin adhesive sealant, and cyanoacrylate polymer. Spine 1988;13:720-725.
Question 51High Yield
A 17-year-old high school football player reports wrist pain 5 months after the conclusion of the football season. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 29a and 29b. What is the recommended intervention?
Explanation
Explanation
29b The patient has a nonunion of the proximal pole of the scaphoid. Acutely, this can be repaired with a screw alone, but as a nonunion the proximal pole has very poor healing potential. Vacularized bone grafts have been successful for these challenging nonunions, particularly in adolescents. A cast can be used for nondisplaced acute waist fractures, and corticocancellous grafts can be used for nonunions of the waist. Waters PM, Stewart SL: Surgical treatment of nonunion and avascular necrosis of the proximal part of the scaphoid in adolescents. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:915-920.
References:
  • Steinmann SP, Bishop AT, Berger RA: Use of the 1,2 intercompartmental supraretinacular artery as a vascularized pedicle bone graft for difficult scaphoid nonunion. J Hand Surg Am 2002;27:391-401.
Question 52High Yield
A 20-year-old professional baseball pitcher has had a 3-year history of increased aching in his shoulder that is associated with pitching, and he is now seeking a second opinion. Nonsurgical management consisting of rest, anti-inflammatory drugs, ice, heat, and cortisone injections has failed to provide relief. A previous work-up that included radiographs and gadolinium-enhanced MRI arthrography was negative. Results of an arteriogram suggest quadrilateral space syndrome. Assuming that this is the correct diagnosis, what nerve needs to be decompressed?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 16) - Figure 117
Explanation
Quadrilateral space syndrome is a rare condition and is the result of compression of the contents of the quadrilateral space. The contents of the quadrilateral space include the posterior circumflex vessels and the axillary nerve. Cahill BR, Palmer RE: Quadrilateral space syndrome. J Hand Surg 1983;8:65-69.
Question 53High Yield
A study was conducted in 500 patients to measure the effectiveness of a new growth factor in reducing healing time of distal radial fractures. The authors reported that average healing time was reduced from 9.2 to 8.9 weeks (P < 0.0001). Because the difference was highly statistically significant, they recommended routine clinical use of this drug despite its high cost. A more appropriate interpretation of these results is that they are
Explanation
Explanation
The results are statistically significant (at the arbitrary level of P < 0.05). That is, they indicate a probability of only 1/10,000 that the observation that the drug is effective in reducing healing time by 0.3 weeks occurred by chance selection of the study subjects. However, because the statistical power of a study increases with the number of subjects included (sample size), a difference that is trivial clinically can occur with a very high level of statistical significance (a very small P-value) if enough patients are included in the study. Because of this, the P-value alone, no matter how small, does not establish clinical significance or importance. Rather, the clinical significance of the observed difference must be assessed taking into consideration the medical importance of the difference if it is, in fact, true in the general population. In this example, the reduction in healing time of only a few days is probably clinically unimportant, particularly if the use of the new growth factor is expensive, complex, and/or has substantial side effects.
References:
  • Ebramzadeh E, McKellop H, Dorey F, et al: Challenging the validity of conclusions based on P-values alone: A critique of contemporary clinical research design and methods. Instr Course Lect 1994;43:587-600.
Question 54High Yield
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the layers of articular cartilage?
Explanation
Explanation
Normal articular cartilage is composed of three zones that are based on the shape of the chondrocytes and the distribution of the type II collagen. The tangential zone has flattened chondrocytes, condensed collagen fibers, and sparse proteoglycan. The intermediate zone is the thickest layer with round chondrocytes oriented in perpendicular or vertical columns paralleling the collagen fibers. The basal layer is deepest with round chondrocytes. The tidemark is deep to the basal layer and separates the true articular cartilage from the deeper cartilage that is a remnant of the cartilage anlage, which participated in endochondral ossification during longitudinal growth in childhood. The tidemark divides the superficial uncalcified cartilage from the deeper calcified cartilage and also is the division between nutritional sources for the chondrocytes. The tidemark is the zone in which chondrocyte renewal took place in childhood. The tidemark is found only in joints and not in the cap of an enchondroma. It is seen most prominently in the adult, nongrowing joint.
References:
  • Schiller AL: Pathology of osteoarthritis, in Kuettner KE, Goldberg VM (eds): Osteoarthritic Disorders. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1995, pp 95-101.
Question 55High Yield
Figure 40 shows the radiograph of a 16-year-old wrestler who injured his elbow when he was thrown to the mat by his opponent. Closed reduction is readily accomplished, and the elbow seems stable. Management should now consist of application of a splint for
Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 6 - Figure 92
Explanation
Flexion contractures are the most common complication of elbow dislocations. About 15% of patients lose more than 30 degrees of flexion. The risk of contracture is proportional to the duration of immobilization. Elbows should be moved within the first few days after reduction. The splinting is for comfort and protection only while the pain subsides. Mehlhoff TL, Noble PC, Bennett JB, Tullos HS: Simple dislocation of the elbow in the adult: Results after closed treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:244-249. Linscheid RL, O'Driscoll SW: Elbow dislocations, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1993, pp 441-452. O'Driscoll SW, Jupiter JB, King GJ, Hotchkiss RN, Morrey BF: The unstable elbow. Instr Course Lect 2001;50:89-102.
Question 56High Yield
A 21-year-old man has had progressive right knee pain for the past 2 months that is exacerbated with weight-bearing activities. A plain radiograph and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 43a and 43b. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 43c. According to the Enneking staging system of tumor classification, the lesion should be classified as what stage?
Explanation
Explanation
43b 43c The lesion is an eccentric lytic bone lesion within the epiphyseal-metaphyseal end of the proximal tibia. There is geographic destruction with a "fading border" extending to the articular cartilage. There is no matrix formation or periosteal reaction. The MRI scan shows cortical destruction with extension into the soft tissue. According to the Enneking staging system, benign lesions are stage 1, 2, or 3; malignant lesions are stage I, II, or III. Benign stage 1 lesions are latent; stage 2 are active; and stage 3 are benign aggressive. The histology shows a benign giant cell tumor. Given the cortical breakthrough shown on the MRI scan, the lesion should be classified as stage 3. Enneking WF: Clinical musculoskeletal pathology, in Enneking WF (ed): Appendix A. Gainesville, FL, Storter Publishing, 1986, pp 451-466.
References:
  • Aboulafia AJ, Kennon RE, Jelinek JS: Benign bone tumors of childhood. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:377-388.
Question 57High Yield
A 32-year-old man has an open comminuted humeral shaft fracture. Examination reveals absence of sensation in the first web space and he is unable to fully extend the thumb, fingers, and wrist. What is the recommended treatment following irrigation and debridement of the fracture?
Trauma Board Review 2009: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 32
Explanation
There is a high incidence of partial or complete laceration of the radial nerve with high-energy open fractures of the humeral shaft. The recommended treatment is irrigation and debridement of the fracture followed by open reduction and internal fixation and exploration of the radial nerve. If the nerve is completely lacerated, primary repair may be performed but poor outcomes have been reported. If a large zone of nerve injury is identified, delayed nerve grafting is advocated. Ring D, Chin K, Jupiter JB: Radial nerve palsy associated with high energy humeral shaft fractures. J Hand Surg 2004;29:144-147. Foster RJ, Swiontkowski MR, Bach AW, et al: Radial nerve palsy caused by open humeral shaft fractures. J Hand Surg Am 1993;18:121-124.
Question 58High Yield
Which of the following vertebrae has the smallest pedicle isthmic width in a nondeformity patient?
Explanation
The smallest pedicle isthmic width is at L1, whereas T12 has the largest pedicle width in the upper lumbar and lower thoracic spine. Although smaller in diameter than T12, both T10 and T11 have larger pedicle widths than L1.
Question 59High Yield
Figures 26a and 26b show the radiograph and MRI scan of a 22-year-old man with knee pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Explanation
26b The lesion is an osteochondroma. This is demonstrated by a pedunculated bone-forming lesion where the medullary space of the lesion communicates with the medullary space of the host bone. The cortex of the exostosis is in continuity with the cortex of the underlying bone. The MRI scan reveals that there is no significant cartilage cap, alleviating concern for malignant conversion to a chondrosarcoma. Osteoblastoma and osteosarcoma typically have mixed areas of bone formation and bone destruction. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma of bone is usually purely lytic. Vaccaro AR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 8. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2005, pp 197-215.
References:
  • Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 103-111.
Question 60High Yield
A 52-year-old man has pain in the sternal area after landing on his right shoulder in a fall from his bicycle. In addition, he reports that he had difficulty swallowing and breathing immediately after the fall, but the symptoms resolved. A CT scan reveals a posterior sternoclavicular dislocation. Initial management should include
Explanation
Explanation
Posterior sternoclavicular dislocations require rapid treatment because of the proximity of major neurovascular structures and the airway. Initial management should consist of closed reduction under general anesthesia in the operating room with a chest surgeon available. A successful closed reduction is usually stable. Internal fixation of sternoclavicular injuries should be avoided because of the likelihood of hardware migration and possible injury to the mediastinal structures. If closed reduction is unsuccessful, open reduction is indicated. Treatment following reduction of the sternoclavicular joint includes the application of a figure-of-8 splint and a sling for 6 weeks, followed by stretching and strengthening exercises. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 287-297.
References:
  • Rockwood CA Jr: Disorders of the sternoclavicular joint, in Rockwood CA Jr, Matsen FA III (eds): The Shoulder. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, vol 2, pp 1010-1017.
Question 61High Yield
An 8-year-old boy falls and injures his thumb. A radiograph is shown in Figure 23. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
Explanation
The radiograph shows a complete simple dislocation of the metacarpophalangeal joint. The clue to this injury is the perpendicular alignment of the proximal phalanx to the metacarpal on the lateral radiograph. This must be differentiated from the complete complex dislocation pattern that is irreducible because of the interposed volar plate. In lateral radiographs of these injuries, the long axes of the proximal phalanx and the metacarpal are parallel. Simple dislocations are amenable to closed reduction and casting. Some authors have recommended ulnar collateral ligament repair if instability is detected on examination after reduction. O'Brien ET: Part IV: Dislocations of hand and carpus, in Rockwood CA Jr, Wilkins KE, Beaty JH (eds): Fractures in Children, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, vol 3, pp 429-431.
References:
  • Bohart PC, Gelberman RH, Vardell RF, Solomon PB: Complex dislocations of the MCP joint. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1974;56:1459-1463.
Question 62High Yield
A 72-year-old woman who is right hand-dominant has severe pain in the right shoulder that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. She reports night pain and significant disability. Examination reveals 30 degrees of active forward elevation. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 27. Which of the following treatment options will provide the best functional improvement?
Upper Extremity 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 9
Explanation
The patient has end-stage rotator cuff tear arthropathy. The radiograph shows complete proximal humeral migration (acromiohumeral interval of 0 mm), severe glenohumeral arthritis, and acetabularization of the acromion. In addition, she has "pseudoparalysis" with active elevation of only 30 degrees. Reverse shoulder arthroplasty affords her the best opportunity for pain relief and functional improvement. The other procedures have mixed results but typically are better for pain relief than they are for functional gains. Frankle M, Siegal S, Pupello D, et al: The reverse shoulder prosthesis for glenohumeral arthritis associated with severe rotator cuff deficiency: A minimum two-year follow-up study of sixty patients. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:1697-1705.
Question 63High Yield
A cord-like middle glenohumeral ligament and absent anterosuperior labrum complex can be a normal anatomic capsulolabral variant. If this normal variation is repaired during arthroscopy, it will cause
Upper Extremity Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 14
Explanation
If the Buford complex is mistakenly reattached to the neck of the glenoid, severe painful restriction of external rotation will occur. Williams MM, Snyder SJ, Buford D Jr: The Buford complex - the "cord-like" middle glenohumeral ligament and absent anterosuperior labrum complex: A normal anatomic capsulolabral variant. Arthroscopy 1994;10:241-247.
Question 64High Yield
What is the best approach to reduce and stabilize a displaced volar lunate facet fracture of the wrist?
Explanation
Explanation
A volar lunate fragment of a distal radial fracture is considered a critical component to overall joint stability and function. Obtaining a reduction is difficult through a standard volar approach to the radius between the flexor carpi radialis and radial artery. Visualization and reduction of the ulnar volar facet is not possible from this approach. An extended carpal tunnel incision provides access to the entire articular surface, except for the distal radial styloid component. Hanel DP, Jones MD, Trumble TE: Wrist fractures. Orthop Clin North Am 2002;33:35-57.
References:
  • Trumble TE, Culp RW, Hanel DP, et al: Intra-articular fractures of the distal aspect of the radius. Instr Course Lect 1999;48:465-480.
Question 65High Yield
Which of the following structures is most vulnerable during a medial sesamoidectomy of the hallux?
Explanation
The plantar-medial cutaneous nerve is at risk with the surgical approach to the medial sesamoid. It is found directly underlying an incision made at the junction of the glabrous skin of the hallux and must be identified before the approach can proceed. Transection will result in a painful neuroma that impinges on the plantar-medial surface of the toe and cause problems with shoe wear. The only other structure that lies near the surgical field is the abductor hallucis tendon which lies dorsal to the incision.
Question 66High Yield
A 12-year-old girl with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) has had chronic pain and synovitis about the knee that is now well-controlled medically. Examination reveals 20 degrees of valgus at the knee. Knee range of motion shows 10 degrees to 90 degrees of flexion. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
Children with JRA frequently have valgus in association with hypervascularity because of chronic inflammation. This is normally caused by overgrowth of the medial femoral epiphysis. Staple hemiepiphyseodesis, if done early, can reverse the deformity. Osteotomy is usually unnecessary at this age, and there is a risk of stiffness of the knee following the procedure. Synovectomy may be helpful but will not prevent or correct a deformity.
Question 67High Yield
A 24-year-old runner who underwent an allograft reconstruction of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) 3 years ago now reports anterior knee pain. Examination reveals no swelling or effusion, and the patient has full motion. A Lachman test and a pivot-shift test are negative. Palpation reveals tenderness on the patellar tendon and at the inferior pole of the patella. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 41a and 41b. Management should consist of
Explanation
Explanation
41b The radiographs show tunnel enlargement, which is seen after ACL reconstruction, particularly with allografts. Occasionally, there will be formation of an associated subcutaneous pretibial cyst. It has been proposed that the tunnel enlargement and cyst are the result of incomplete incorporation of allograft tissues within the bone tunnels. There may be residual graft necrosis, allowing synovial fluid to be transmitted through the tunnel to collect in the pretibial area, manifesting as a synovial cyst. In the absence of cyst formation, the presence of tunnel enlargement does not appear to adversely affect the clinical outcome. Based on studies by Fahey and associates, continued tunnel expansion does not occur. Victoroff and associates report good results with curettage and bone grafting of the tibial tunnel if a pretibial cyst is present. Because this patient does not have a pretibial cyst, observation with activity modification is the preferred treatment. Fahey M, Indelicato PA: Bone tunnel enlargement after anterior cruciate ligament replacement. Am J Sports Med 1994;22:410-414.
References:
  • Victoroff BN, Paulos L, Beck C, Goodfellow DB: Subcutaneous pretibial cyst formation associated with anterior cruciate ligament allografts: A report of four cases and literature review. Arthroscopy 1995;11:486-494.
Question 68High Yield
During total hip arthroplasty, profuse bleeding is noted following predrilling for placement of an acetabular component screw. The drill most likely penetrated too deep in the
Explanation
Explanation
The acetabular quadrants are defined by two lines: one drawn from the anterosuperior iliac spine to the posterior fovea, forming acetabular halves, and a second drawn perpendicular to the first at the midpoint of the acetabulum, forming four quadrants. The anterior quadrants should be avoided because improper screw placement may injure the external iliac artery and vein, as well as the obturator nerve, artery, and vein. These structures lie close to the pelvic bone, with little protective interposition of soft tissue. Wasielewski RC, Cooperstein LA, Kruger MP, et al: Acetabular anatomy and the transacetabular fixation of screws in total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:501-508.
References:
  • Keating EM, Ritter MA, Faris PM: Structures at risk from medially placed acetabular screws. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:509-511.
Question 69High Yield
A 23-year-old man who was the restrained driver in a car involved in a high-speed motor vehicle accident sustained the closed injury shown in Figures 32a through 32c. Which of the following factors has the greatest impact on the risk of osteonecrosis?
Explanation
Explanation
32b 32c The incidence of osteonecrosis following displaced talar neck fractures is most related to the extent of initial fracture displacement. With increasing fracture displacement, the tenuous vascular supply to the talar body is more at risk for damage, thereby increasing the risk of osteonecrosis. Although displaced talar neck fractures have historically been considered a surgical emergency, recent studies have shown that the timing of surgical intervention bears no impact on the development of osteonecrosis. While nicotine use has an influence on fracture healing, it has never been shown to be a factor in osteonecrosis, nor has posterior-to-anterior screw fixation or the quality of fracture reduction. Lindvall E, Haidukewych G, Dipasquale T, et al: Open reduction and stable fixation of isolated, displaced talar neck and body fractures. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:2229-2234.
Question 70High Yield
Which of the following changes to heart rate, blood pressure, and bulbocavernosus reflex are typical of spinal shock?
Explanation
The term 'spinal shock' applies to all phenomena surrounding physiologic or anatomic transection of the spinal cord that results in temporary loss or depression of all or most spinal reflex activity below the level of the injury. Hypotension and bradycardia caused by loss of sympathetic tone is a possible complication, depending on the level of the lesion. The mechanism of injury that causes spinal shock is usually traumatic in origin and occurs immediately, but spinal shock has been described with mechanisms of injury that progress over several hours. Spinal cord reflex arcs immediately above the level of injury also may be depressed severely on the basis of the Schiff-Sherrington phenomenon. The end of the spinal shock phase of spinal cord injury is signaled by the return of elicitable abnormal cutaneospinal or muscle spindle reflex arcs. Autonomic reflex arcs involving relay to secondary ganglionic neurons outside the spinal cord may be affected variably during spinal shock, and their return after spinal shock abates is variable. The returning spinal cord reflex arcs below the level of injury are irrevocably altered and are the substrate on which rehabilitation efforts are based.
Question 71High Yield
A 29-year-old woman was injured in a high-speed motor vehicle accident 3 hours ago. Radiographs are shown in Figures 7a through 7e. Her right foot injury is open and contaminated. Her associated injuries include a closed head injury and a ruptured spleen requiring resection. She has had 6 units of packed red blood cells and the trauma surgeon has turned her care over to you. Her current base deficit is 10 and her urinary output has averaged 0.4 mL/kg for the last 2 hours. What is the best treatment at this time?
Explanation
Explanation
7b 7c 7d 7e The patient appears to be a borderline or unstable surgical patient following her initial trauma and spleenectomy (high base excess and low urine output). She needs continued resuscitation and minimal additional blood loss. This is best accomplished with irrigation and debridement of the ankle, external fixation of the ankle, foot, and femur, and splinting of the forearm. A traction pin for the femoral fracture will not control bleeding as well as an external fixator. Intramedullary nailing of the femur and open reduction and internal fixation of the forearm would be appropriate in patients that are euvolemic and stable. Pape HC, Hildebrand F, Pertschy S, et al: Changes in the management of femoral shaft fractures in polytrauma patients: From early total care to damage control orthopedic surgery. J Trauma 2002;53:452-461. Taeger G, Ruchholtz S, Waydhas C, et al: Damage control orthopedics in patients with multiple injuries is effective, time saving, and safe. J Trauma 2005;59:409-416. Harwood PJ, Giannoudis PV, van Griensven M, et al: Alterations in the systemic inflammatory response after early total care and damage control procedures for femoral shaft fracture in severely injured patients. J Trauma 2005;58:446-452.
Question 72High Yield
Figures 20a and 20b show the AP and lateral radiographs of a 62-year-old man who has had hip pain for the past 3 weeks. Figure 20c shows a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis. A needle biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 20d. Preoperative management should include which of the following?
Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 4 - Figure 72Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 4 - Figure 73Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 4 - Figure 74Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 4 - Figure 75
Explanation
The histology shows findings consistent with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. Renal cell carcinoma metastases are extremely vascular. Preoperative embolization helps minimize the amount of blood loss during curettage of these lesions. Chatziioannou AN, Johnson ME, Pneumaticos SG, et al: Preoperative embolization of bone metastases from renal cell carcinoma. Eur Radiol 2000;10:593-596.
Question 73High Yield
It is important to avoid which of the following exercises in the immediate postoperative period after humeral head replacement for an acute four-part fracture?
Explanation
Explanation
It is critical to withhold active range of motion of the shoulder within the first 6 weeks after arthroplasty for acute fracture to prevent tuberosity avulsion. When radiographic and clinical findings show that the tuberosities are healed, active motion may be instituted, usually at 6 to 8 weeks. Immediate passive range-of-motion exercises, including external rotation with a stick, pendulum, and passive elevation, should begin within the limits of the repair on the day of surgery to prevent stiffness. Hartstock LA, Estes WJ, Murray CA, et al: Shoulder hemiarthroplasty for proximal humerus fractures. Orthop Clin North Am 1998;29:467-475.
References:
  • Hughes M, Neer CS: Glenohumeral joint replacment and postoperative rehabilitation. Phys Ther 1975;55:850-858.
Question 74High Yield
A 6-year-old girl has a painless spinal deformity. Examination reveals 2+ and equal knee jerks and ankle jerks, negative clonus, and a negative Babinski. The straight leg raising test is negative. Abdominal reflexes are asymmetrical. PA and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 15a and 15b. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 52General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 53
Explanation
The patient has an abnormal neurologic exam as shown by the abnormal abdominal reflexes. Furthermore, she has a significant curve and is younger than age 10 years. These findings are not consistent with idiopathic scoliosis. MRI will best rule out syringomyelia or an intraspinal tumor. Bracing and surgery are not indicated for this small curvature prior to obtaining an MRI scan. Ginsburg GM, Bassett GS: Back pain in children and adolescents: Evaluation and differential diagnosis. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:67-78.
Question 75High Yield
A 49-year-old woman with serologically proven rheumatoid arthritis has Larsen grade II radiographic changes in the elbow. Examination reveals a preoperative arc of flexion of less than 90 degrees and there is no instability. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. What is the best treatment option?
Explanation
Explanation
Larsen grade I and II rheumatoid arthritis is best treated with synovectomy with arthroplasty reserved for later stages, especially in younger patients. Open synovectomy with or without a radial head excision has yielded good results for pain and function, with arthroscopic synovectomies yielding similar results. Arthroscopic synovectomy has been shown to be more effective in restoring function in patients with a flexion arc of less than 90 degrees. Tanaka N, Sakahashi H, Hirose K, et al: Arthroscopic and open synovectomy of the elbow in rheumatoid arthritis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:521-525. Horiuchi K, Momohara S, Tomatsu T, et al: Arthroscopic synovectomy of the elbow in rheumatoid arthritis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:342-347.
References:
  • Maenpaa HM, Kuusela PP, Kaarela KK, et al: Reoperation rate after elbow synovectomy in rheumatoid arthritis. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2003;12:480-483.
Question 76High Yield
A 26-year-old rugby player injured his foot when tackled from behind. Radiographs are seen in Figures 35a through 35c. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Explanation
Explanation
35b 35c The patient has a ligamentous Lisfranc injury. Diastasis seen between the bases of the second metatarsal and medial cuneiform is pathognomonic for a rupture of the Lisfranc's ligament. This injury is best treated surgically with either open reduction and internal fixation or possibly closed manipulation and percutaneous screw fixation if anatomic alignment can be achieved closed. Pin fixation has been shown to be inferior to screw fixation due to the length of time that fixation is required for adequate ligament healing. Chiodo CP, Myerson MS: Developments and advances in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries of the tarsometatarsal joint. Orthop Clin North Am 2001;32:11-20.
Question 77High Yield
A 24-year-old man who was involved in a high speed motor vehicle accident is transferred for definitive care after having been diagnosed with an acute spinal cord injury from a fracture-dislocation at C6-7. He has a complete C6 neurologic level and it is now approximately 10 hours from his injury. What is the most appropriate pharmacologic treatment at this time?
Explanation
Explanation
The standard practice in the pharmacologic treatment of a spinal cord injury in the United States has been the administration of methylprednisolone with an initial bolus of 30 mg/kg followed by 5.4 mg/kg for 24 hours, in accordance with the findings of the second and third National Acute Spinal Cord Injury Studies (NASCIS). Although the studies have subsequently drawn criticism for their methodology and outcomes, it has been generally accepted that beneficial neurologic outcomes were anticipated in patients who were able to start the protocol within 8 hours of their initial injury. Further improvement was noted in patients receiving the methylprednisolone within 3 hours of their injury and continuing an infusion for 48 hours. In this patient, who is outside the 8-hour treatment window, no studies have supported starting the methylprednisolone protocol at this time. Braken MB, Shepard MJ, Holford TR, et al: Administration of methylprednisolone for 24 or 48 hours or tirilazad mesylate for 48 hours in the treatment of acute spinal cord injury: Results of the third National Acute Spinal Cord Injury Randomized Controlled Trial. National Acute Spinal Cord Injury Study. JAMA 1997;277:1597-1604.
Question 78High Yield
A patient who has had neck pain radiating down the arm for the past 4 weeks reports that the pain was excruciating during the first week. Management consisting of anti-inflammatory drugs and physical therapy has decreased the neck and arm symptoms from 10/10 to 3/10. He remains neurologically intact. MRI and CT scans are shown in Figures 5a and 5b. The best course of action should be
Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 6 - Figure 31Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 6 - Figure 32
Explanation
Although the patient has a large herniated nucleus pulposus, the pain has decreased from 10/10 to 3/10 over a 4-week period and the patient is now free of any neurologic symptoms. It is quite likely that further nonsurgical management will continue to resolve his symptoms. In the absence of any neurologic deficits, there is no evidence that the patient is at significant risk for paralysis. Saal JS, Saal JA, Yurth EF: Nonoperative management of herniated cervical intervertebral disc with radiculopathy. Spine 1996;21:1877-1883.
Question 79High Yield
The tibiofibular overlap used to diagnose syndesmotic diastasis on an AP view is most commonly measured between the
Explanation
The tibiofibular overlap is measured between the medial border of the fibula and the lateral border of the anterior tibial tubercle. Plain radiographic assessment of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis requires AP and mortise views. The following criteria have been used as the normal limits in adults: a talocrural angle of + or - 83 degrees with up to 5 degrees of normal difference between both sides, a medial clear space of less than 4 mm, a talar tilt of less than 2 mm, a tibiofibular clear space of less than 5 mm, a tibiofibular overlap of greater than or equal to 0 mm, and a talar subluxation that is a subjective assessment of congruity of the tibial articular surface and the talar dome; any incongruity is abnormal. It has been recommended to obtain the first three measurements on the mortise view and the other three on the AP view. Wuest TK: Injuries to the distal lower extremity syndesmosis. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:172-181.
Question 80High Yield
A 7-year-old girl is hit by a motor vehicle and sustains the isolated ipsilateral injuries shown in Figures 16a and 16b. What is the optimal definitive method of treatment?
Explanation
Explanation
16b The child has isolated ipsilateral femoral shaft and tibial shaft fractures. Spica cast immobilization is unlikely to accommodate for shortening and alignment in this child with multiple levels of injury. In this instance, efforts should be made to mobilize a least one level of the limb; therefore, treatment should include flexible nailing of the femur and tibia. Rigid reamed nails are not indicated in this young patient secondary to risk of a growth arrest and osteonecrosis of the proximal femur. Poolman RW, Kocher MS, Bhandari M: Pediatric femoral fractures: A systematic review of 2422 cases. J Orthop Trauma 2006;20:648-654. Anglen JO, Choi L: Treatment options in pediatric femoral shaft fractures. J Orthop Trauma 2005;19:724-733.
Question 81High Yield
A 35-year-old man sustained the closed injury shown in Figure 52 in his dominant extremity. Neurologic function is normal. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
Explanation
Functional bracing has been demonstrated to have a very high rate of healing without any functional limitations in a large series of patients. Surgery is reserved for "floating elbows," open injuries, neurovascular injuries, and those fractures that go on to nonunion. Sarmiento A, Zagorski JB, Zych GA, et al: Functional bracing for the treatment of fractures of the humeral diaphysis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:478-486.
References:
  • Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 267.
Question 82High Yield
A 25-year-old left hand-dominant man has severe left shoulder pain after being involved in a high-speed motor vehicle accident. Examination reveals that he is unable to move the left shoulder. His neurovascular status is intact in the entire left upper extremity. A radiograph is shown in Figure 19. What is the most appropriate surgical management of this injury?
Explanation
Explanation
In this young patient, every attempt must be made to retain the native proximal humerus; therefore, open reduction and internal fixation should be attempted of both the articular segment and tuberosities to the humeral shaft. This is best accomplished through an open approach. Shoulder arthroplasty should be reserved for the elderly and for failed internal fixation. Ko JY, Yamamoto R: Surgical treatment of complex fractures of the proximal humerus. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1996;327:225-237.
References:
  • Aschauer E, Resch H: Four-part proximal humeral fractures: ORIF, in Warner JP, Iannotti JP, Flatow EL (eds): Complex and Revision Problems in Shoulder Surgery, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2005, pp 289-309.
Question 83High Yield
What structure is located at the tip of the arrow in Figure 18?
Explanation
Explanation
The structure shown is the exiting nerve root at the L3-4 disk, which is the right L3 root.
References:
  • An H: Diagnostic imaging of the spine, in Principles and Techniques of Spine Surgery. Baltimore, MD, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 1998, pp 102-125.
Question 84High Yield
A 30-year-old man who sustained a work-related injury 6 weeks ago reports persistent back and left-sided buttock pain that has been attributed to lumbar transverse process fractures. A pelvic radiograph and CT scans obtained 2 days ago are seen in Figures 17a through 17c. What is the best treatment for his injury?
Explanation
Explanation
17b 17c Fortunately, surgical treatment of sub-acute pelvic ring injuries is relatively uncommon as acute management has become more common. Delayed reconstruction of pelvic ring malunion and impending malunion is rare. Nonsurgical management may have a role as long as the hemipelvis does not flex, shorten, and/or externally rotate. The AP pelvic radiograph suggests that all three motions are happening in this patient. These are just a few of the indications to repair the pelvic ring and this is best done with anterior and posterior fixation. Anterior symphyseal plating will help correct most of the deformity. Posterior fixation can and should be added to lessen the forces on the anterior ring reconstruction when repair is performed in a sub-acute or delayed fashion. Posterior fixation can help obtain a more anatomic reduction and helps decrease the risk of anterior hardware failure. Mears DC: Management of pelvic pseudarthroses and pelvic malunion. Orthopade 1996;25:441-448. Matta JM, Dickson KF, Markovich GD: Surgical treatment of pelvic nonunions and malunions. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1996;329:199-206.
Question 85High Yield
A 58-year-old woman has had a slowly progressing mass over the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of her dominant hand with a worsening deformity of her nail. She has no significant medical history but underwent bilateral knee arthroplasties 1 year ago. Radiographs reveal a small osteophyte at the DIP joint dorsally. A clinical photograph and a biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 76a and 76b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Explanation
76b A mucous cyst is thought to be a ganglion arising from the DIP joint in patients with osteoarthritis. They are frequently associated with nail deformities. Treatment involves removal of the cyst with debridement of DIP joint osteophytes. Fritz GR, Stern PJ, Dickey M: Complications following mucous cyst excision. J Hand Surg Br 1997;22:222-225.
References:
  • Zook EG, Brown RE: The perionychium, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Churchill Livingstone, 1999, vol 2, pp 1353-1380.
Question 86High Yield
A 23-year-old soccer player sustains a grade III complete posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear after colliding with another player. In reconstructing the PCL, it is optimal to reconstruct the
Explanation
The PCL is a nonisometric structure with nonuniform tension during knee motion, with maximum tension at 90 degrees of flexion. While the posteromedial PCL fibers have been found to be the most isometric, the anterolateral fibers represent the bulk of the ligament. Studies have suggested that anterior placement of the femoral tunnel is superior to placement in an isometric position. The anterolateral bundle tightens as the knee flexes; therefore, it is optimal to tension the graft at 90 degrees of flexion. Harner CD, Xerogeanes JW, Livesay GA, et al: The human posterior cruciate ligament complex: An interdisciplinary study. Ligament morphology and biomechanical evaluation. Am J Sports Med 1995;23:736-745.
Question 87High Yield
The cortical injury to the posterolateral distal fibula shown in Figure 25 indicates involvement of which of the following structures?
Explanation
Explanation
The patient has a rim avulsion fracture that is the result of a forceful twisting injury as the superior peroneal retinaculum is avulsed from its fibular attachment along with a small rim of bone. Injuries to the anterior talofibular ligament or calcaneal fibular ligament would show cortical avulsions more anteriorly or distally at the fibular tip. Deltoid ligament injuries would reveal medial radiographic changes. In a true injury to the syndesmosis, if osseous structures do show avulsion, it would be more directly posterior or anterior on the distal fibula or would occur on the tibial surface. Murr S: Dislocation of the peroneal tendons with marginal fracture of the lateral malleolus. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1961;43:563-565.
References:
  • Clanton TO: Athletic injuries to the soft tissues of the foot and ankle, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 1090-1209.
Question 88High Yield
A 40-year-old man fell 10 feet from a tree and sustained the closed isolated injury shown in Figures 35a and 35b. Management consists of splinting. At his 2-week follow-up visit, he clinically passes the wrinkle test. He agrees to open reduction and internal fixation. What is the best surgical approach to obtain anatomic reduction and limit wound dehiscence?
Explanation
Explanation
35b The approach to the calcaneus has evolved from several different patterns, driven by a high wound complication rate of 10%. The current extensile lateral approach was described by Zwipp and associates in 1988. The surgical exposure uses an L-shaped incision, with the vertical component positioned one half a finger's breath anterior to the Achilles tendon and extending distally to the junction of the lateral skin and the plantar skin. Borrelli and Lashgari mapped the angiosome of the lateral calcaneal flap and found that the major arterial blood supply to this flap consisted of three arteries: the lateral calcaneal artery, the lateral malleolar artery, and the lateral tarsal artery. The lateral calcaneal artery appeared to be responsible for most of the blood supply to the corner of the flap. This was found 1.5 cm anterior to the Achilles tendon. Division of this artery with inaccurate placement of the vertical limb of the incision can cause ischemia of the lateral skin flap. Borrelli J Jr, Lashgari C: Vascularity of the lateral calcaneal flap: A cadaveric injection study. J Orthop Trauma 1999;13:73-77. Freeman BJC, Duff S, Allen PE, et al: The extended lateral approach to the hindfoot: An anatomical basis and surgical implications. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1998;80:139-142.
References:
  • Zwipp H, Tscherne H, Wulker N: Osteosynthesis of dislocated intra-articular calcaneus fractures. Unfallchirurg 1988;91:507-515.
Question 89High Yield
A 26-year-old professional rodeo bull rider sustained a grade III midshaft femoral fracture after being thrown from his bull. He underwent closed interlocking intermedullary nailing with a titanium rod, and his recovery was uneventful. Prior to returning to competition, the patient must
Sports Medicine Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 5
Explanation
While it is recommended that a patient gain full range of motion, pain-free function, and symmetric strength prior to returning to vigorous activities, it is absolutely essential that radiographs of the fracture site reveal a circumferential external bridging callus to prevent refracture. This is particularly important for comminuted femoral fractures with various sized fragments. It is also recommended that a return to rodeo riding be postponed for at least 1 year. Brumback RJ, Ellison TS: Intermedullary nailing of femoral stress fractures. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:106-112. Bucholz RW, Jones A: Fractures of the shaft of the femur. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:1561-1566.
Question 90High Yield
A 73-year-old man stepped off a street curb and felt a crack in his left hip. He is now unable to bear weight. A radiograph is shown in Figure 54a. Biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 54b and 54c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Explanation
54b 54c The biopsy specimens reveal a high-grade spindle cell lesion adjacent to an area of benign cartilage. This is consistent with a dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma. The radiograph shows a pathologic fracture through a lesion characterized by calcification within the left greater trochanter. Distal to the area of calcification, there is a more osteolytic, destructive appearance. Synovial sarcoma has a biphasic appearance histologically with areas of glandular differentiation that stain positive with keratin. Metastatic prostate cancer, although osteoblastic in appearance, would have a glandular histologic appearance. There is no cartilage in these lesions. Classic low-grade chondrosarcoma does not have an area of high-grade pleomorphic spindle cells within the lesion. A periosteal osteosarcoma is a surface-based lesion with a sunburst radiographic pattern. Although there may be cartilage in the lesion histologically, there are also malignant cells producing osteoid. Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma is an aggressive, high-grade variant of chondrosarcoma. Wold LE, Adler CP, Sim FH, et al: Atlas of Orthopedic Pathology, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, p 269.
References:
  • Mercuri M, Picci P, Campanacci L, et al: Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma. Skeletal Radiol 1995;24:409-416.
Question 91High Yield
What is the most appropriate treatment for a 50-year-old woman who sustains the injury shown in Figures 14a and 14b?
Explanation
Explanation
14b This intra-articular distal humerus fracture with displacement at the joint surface is best treated with surgical fixation. The most biomechanically sound construct is two plates applied to either column 180 degrees from one another. Elbow arthroplasty is most appropriate for low demand elderly patients. Schemitsch EH, Tencer AF, Henley MB: Biomechanical evaluation of methods of internal fixation of the distal humerus. J Orthop Trauma 1994;8:468-475. McCarty LP, Ring D, Jupiter JB: Management of distal humerus fractures. Am J Orthop 2005;34:430-438.
Question 92High Yield
What type of thoracolumbar spinal injury is associated with an increased risk of neurologic deterioration following admission to the hospital?
Explanation
Explanation
Gertzbein's Scoliosis Research Society Morbidity and Mortality report noted that neurologic deterioration developed in approximately 16% of patients who were hospitalized with fracture-dislocations of the thoracolumbar spine, a particular concern with rotational burst fractures (AO type C). Patients with standard burst fractures and Chance fractures had a markedly lower incidence of neurologic involvement and tended to remain neurologically stable. Gertzbein SD: Neurologic deterioration in patients with thoracic and lumbar fractures after admission to the hospital. Spine 1994;19:1723-1725.
References:
  • Magerl F, Aebi M, Gertzbein SD, et al: A comprehensive classification of thoracic and lumbar injuries. Eur Spine J 1994;3:184-201.
Question 93High Yield
Human menisci are made up predominantly of what collagen type?
Explanation
Explanation
Type I collagen accounts for more than 90% of the total collagen content. Other minor collagens present include types II, III, V, and VI. Mow VC, Arnoczky SP, Jackson DW (eds): Knee Meniscus: Basic and Clinical Foundations. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1992, p 41.
References:
  • Kawamura S, Rodeo SA: Form and function of the meniscus, in Einhorn TA, O'Keefe RJ, Buckwalter JA (eds): Orthopaedic Basic Science: Foundations of Clinical Practice, ed 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, in press.
Question 94High Yield
A 22-year-old female collegiate javelin thrower has shoulder pain. She notes that her pain is primarily located in the posterior aspect of her shoulder, is exacerbated with throwing, and she experiences maximal tenderness in the extreme cocking phase of the throwing cycle. On examination, she reports deep posterior shoulder pain when the arm is abducted 90 degrees and maximally externally rotated to 110 degrees. This reproduces her symptoms precisely. Shoulder radiographs are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Explanation
The patient has internal impingement. Internal impingement is commonly seen in overhead throwing athletes. When positioned in the extreme cocking phase of the throwing cycle, the posterior glenoid impacts the articular surface of the infraspinatus and posterior fibers of the supraspinatus tendon. This impact can cause partial-thickness rotator cuff tearing and posterosuperior labral lesions. She has no evidence of anterior shoulder instability, and her range of motion is excellent which rules out adhesive capsulitis. Subacromial impingement is identified with anterolateral shoulder pain with internal rotation in the abducted position. A full-thickness rotator cuff tear in a 22-year-old individual would require significant trauma and would likely result in pain at rest and with lifting. Meister K, Buckley B, Batts J: The posterior impingement sign: Diagnosis of rotator cuff and posterior labral tears secondary to internal impingement in overhand athletes. Am J Orthop 2004;33:412-415.
References:
  • Kaplan LD, McMahon PJ, Towers J, et al: Internal impingement: Findings on magnetic resonance imaging and arthroscopic evaluation. Arthroscopy 2004;20:701-704.
Question 95High Yield
Figure 30 shows an axial T1-weighted MRI scan of a patient's right shoulder. The arrows are pointing to what normal structure?
Explanation
Explanation
Tears of the pectoralis major tendon are frequently missed during examination. MRI provides excellent visualization of the tendon if the study extends low enough down the arm. The pectoralis major tendon inserts on the crest of the greater tubercle of the humerus, just lateral to the long head of the biceps tendon. The latissimus dorsi tendon inserts medial to the long head of the biceps tendon on the lesser tubercle. The subscapularis tendon inserts on the lesser tuberosity more proximally. The deltoid insertion is more distal. Connell DA, Potter HG, Sherman MF, et al: Injuries of the pectoralis major muscle: Evaluation with MR imaging. Radiology 1999;210:785-791. Carrino JA, Chandnanni VP, Mitchell DB, et al: Pectoralis major muscle and tendon tears: Diagnosis and grading using magnetic resonance imaging. Skeletal Radiol 2000;29:305-313.
References:
  • Ohashi K, El-Khoury GY, Albright JP, et al: MRI of complete rupture of the pectoralis major muscle. Skeletal Radiol 1996;25:625-628.
Question 96High Yield
An extended head hemiarthroplasty (rotator cuff tear arthropathy head) has what theoretic advantage when compared to a standard hemiarthroplasty?
Explanation
Explanation
The theoretic advantage of a metal-to-bone articulation with the acromion is that there is a greater arc in which a smooth metal surface contacts the glenoid and acromion. This may improve pain and function, but no studies have evaluated this to date. One study showed results comparable to that of a standard hemiarthroplasty. There are no other biomechanic advantages. Visotsky JL, Basamania C, Seebauer L, et al: Cuff tear arthropathy: Pathogenesis, classification, and algorithm for treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:35-40.
References:
  • Zuckerman JD, Scott AJ, Gallagher MA: Hemiarthroplasty for cuff tear arthropathy. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2000;9:169-172.
Question 97High Yield
Factors contributing to an increased risk of hip fracture include reduced bone mineral density of the femoral neck, cognitive status of the individual, and
Explanation
The etiology of hip fractures in the elderly is multifactorial, and intervention and prevention can occur at multiple points. Events leading to hip fracture from a fall include fall initiation (during which the individual's neuromuscular status, cognitive status, and vision come into play along with environmental hazards); fall descent (fall direction toward the side being the most influential, energy content of the fall, and fall height, along with muscle activity of the muscles of the thigh); impact (impact location, soft-tissue attenuation such as from trochanteric padding or from overlying fat, impact surface, and muscle activity); and the structural capacity of the femur (bone mineral density, bone geometry, and bone architecture). Hayes and Myers noted that striking the ground in a stiff state with the trunk muscles contracted actually increased the peak impact force, whereas falling in a relaxed state actually reduced peak impact force. Flexion of the trunk at impact had no bearing on the impact force. Direction of the fall was important; falls to the side, not forward, were associated with an increased risk of hip fracture. Increased muscle activity about the hip is thought to be associated with spontaneous fractures of the hip and may actually account for up to 25% of hip fractures; however, it is not related to fractures resulting from a fall.
Question 98High Yield
Figure 50 shows the AP radiograph of an asymptomatic 82-year-old woman who underwent total hip arthroplasty 16 years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anatomy Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 14
Explanation
Pelvic osteolysis in the presence of a well-fixed porous-coated socket is a recognized complication in total hip arthroplasty. The radiograph shows large lytic lesions superiorly adjacent to an acetabular screw and inferiorly extending into the ischium. It also reveals eccentricity of the femoral head with respect to the acetabular component, consistent with polyethylene wear. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 440.
Question 99High Yield
A 39-year-old woman fell onto her flexed elbow and sustained a comminuted displaced radial head and neck fracture. Radiographs confirm concentric reduction of the ulnohumeral joint. Examination reveals pain with compression of the radius and ulna at the wrist. What is the best treatment for the radial head fracture?
Explanation
Patients with comminuted radial neck and head fractures and associated wrist pain have a significant injury to the elbow and forearm. Nonsurgical management is an option, but initial casting will result in stiffness and early range of motion is likely to be unsuccessful secondary to pain. Surgical treatment with open reduction and internal fixation, although possible, is technically demanding and results are unpredictable with comminuted fractures. Excision alone in the face of wrist pain may lead to radial shortening. The treatment of choice is excision and metallic radial head arthroplasty. Silastic implants have been associated with synovitis and wear debris. Furry KL, Clinkscales CM: Comminuted fractures of the radial head: Arthroplasty versus internal fixation. Clin Orthop 1998;353:40-52.
Question 100High Yield
A 47-year-old woman has had medial ankle pain and swelling for the past 3 months. She recalls no specific injury, and casting and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have failed to provide relief. Examination reveals a pes planus with heel valgus that is passively correctable. Radiographs show no evidence of arthritis. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 16. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure to alleviate her pain?
Explanation
Explanation
The patient has a stage II posterior tibial tendon tear with a supple foot; therefore, the treatment of choice is flexor digitorum longus transfer with medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy. Triple arthrodesis is not indicated, and isolated tendon transfer will stretch out in the face of persistent heel valgus. Direct repair of the posterior tibial tendon or repair of the spring ligament is not sufficient to correct the deformity. Myerson MS, Corrigan J: Treatment of posterior tibial tendon dysfunction with flexor digitorum longus tendon transfer and calcaneal osteotomy. Orthopedics 1996;19:383-388.
References:
  • Mosier-LaClair S, Pomeroy G, Manoli A II: Operative treatment of the difficult stage 2 adult acquired flatfoot deformity. Foot Ankle Clin 2001;6:95-119.

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