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Question 21

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A patient sustains an anteromedial facet fracture of the coronoid process. If left untreated, this specific fracture pattern is highly associated with which type of elbow instability?

. Valgus instability
. Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI)
. Varus posteromedial rotatory instability
. Longitudinal radioulnar dissociation
. Isolated anterior instability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Varus posteromedial rotatory instability


Explanation

Anteromedial facet fractures of the coronoid result from a varus load combined with axial compression. This injury pattern disrupts the essential bony buttress of the coronoid, leading to varus posteromedial rotatory instability if not anatomically fixed.

Question 22

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 30-year-old patient falls onto an outstretched arm and sustains a Mason type II radial head fracture. There is a 3 mm displaced fragment involving 25% of the articular surface, but no mechanical block to rotation is noted on examination after intra-articular local anesthetic injection. What is the most appropriate management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Radial head excision
. Radial head arthroplasty
. Closed reduction and long arm casting for 6 weeks
. A brief period of sling immobilization followed by early range of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A brief period of sling immobilization followed by early range of motion


Explanation

Mason type II fractures with no mechanical block and minimal displacement can generally be successfully managed non-operatively. Early active range of motion is crucial to prevent long-term elbow stiffness.

Question 23

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 40-year-old female presents with recurrent elbow clicking and a sensation of giving way when pushing up from a chair. Physical examination reveals apprehension with axial load, supination, and valgus stress applied to the elbow. Which of the following structures is most likely deficient?

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Annular ligament
. Radial collateral ligament
. Common extensor origin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) is caused by insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The classic mechanism of provocation is axial load, supination, and valgus stress, mimicking pushing off a chair.

Question 24

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior elbow pain during the deceleration phase of throwing. He complains of an inability to fully extend his elbow and occasionally feels catching. Radiographs demonstrate posteromedial olecranon osteophytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Posterolateral rotatory instability
. Valgus extension overload syndrome
. Osteochondritis dissecans of the olecranon
. Triceps tendinitis
. Ulnar neuritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Valgus extension overload syndrome


Explanation

Valgus extension overload (VEO) occurs in overhead throwing athletes due to repetitive valgus stress, leading to impingement of the posteromedial olecranon in the olecranon fossa. It classically presents with posterior elbow pain during the deceleration phase and posteromedial osteophytes.

Question 25

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 45-year-old heavy laborer felt a pop in his anterior elbow while lifting a heavy box. Examination reveals weakness in forearm supination and elbow flexion, with a positive hook test. If an anterior single-incision surgical repair is planned using suture anchors, which of the following nerves is at greatest risk if retractors are placed aggressively on the radial neck?

. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior interosseous nerve


Explanation

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at risk during a single-incision anterior approach to the distal biceps, especially with aggressive lateral retraction or over-penetration of the radius.

Question 26

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 35-year-old male falls from a ladder and sustains a terrible triad injury of the elbow. He undergoes open reduction and internal fixation. What is the recommended sequence of surgical repair for this injury pattern?

. Coronoid, radial head, lateral collateral ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament, radial head, coronoid
. Radial head, lateral collateral ligament, coronoid
. Coronoid, lateral collateral ligament, radial head
. Lateral collateral ligament, coronoid, radial head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid, lateral collateral ligament, radial head


Explanation

The classic algorithm for treating a terrible triad injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, coronoid fracture) starts deep/medial and works superficial/lateral. The recommended sequence is repairing the coronoid, followed by the radial head, and finally the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL).

Question 27

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 48-year-old avid golfer presents with chronic medial elbow pain. Examination reveals point tenderness just distal to the medial epicondyle and pain with resisted wrist flexion and pronation. Non-operative management has failed. Surgical intervention for this condition primarily involves debridement of the origin of which muscle?

. Flexor carpi ulnaris
. Pronator quadratus
. Flexor digitorum profundus
. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis
. Brachioradialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis


Explanation

Medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow) is characterized by tendinosis and microtearing of the flexor-pronator mass. The pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis (FCR) are the most commonly involved structures requiring debridement.

Question 28

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 12-year-old baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain, decreased throwing velocity, and localized tenderness over the medial epicondyle. Radiographs reveal widening of the medial epicondyle apophysis compared to the contralateral side. What is the initial treatment of choice?

. Immediate surgical pinning
. Complete rest from throwing for 4 to 6 weeks
. Corticosteroid injection
. Ulnar nerve transposition
. Tommy John surgery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Complete rest from throwing for 4 to 6 weeks


Explanation

Little League elbow typically presents as medial epicondylar apophysitis in skeletally immature throwing athletes. The cornerstone of initial treatment is absolute rest from throwing for 4 to 6 weeks, followed by a gradual return-to-throwing program.

Question 29

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 25-year-old female falls on her outstretched hand and presents with elbow pain. Radiographs and CT show an articular cartilage shear fracture of the capitellum with very little attached subchondral bone. According to the Bryan and Morrey classification, what type of fracture is this?
. Type I (Hahn-Steinthal)
. Type II (Kocher-Lorenz)
. Type III (Broberg-Morrey)
. Type IV (McKee)
. Type V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II (Kocher-Lorenz)


Explanation

In the Bryan and Morrey classification, a Type II (Kocher-Lorenz) fracture is an articular cartilage shear fracture of the capitellum with minimal subchondral bone. A Type I (Hahn-Steinthal) involves a large fragment of subchondral bone.

Question 30

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 9-year-old gymnast presents with lateral elbow pain and stiffness. Radiographs demonstrate sclerosis and fragmentation of the entire capitellum without a localized loose body or distinct crater. Given her age and radiographic findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteochondritis dissecans
. Panner's disease
. Lateral epicondylitis
. Radial head fracture
. Synovial chondromatosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Panner's disease


Explanation

Panner's disease is an osteochondrosis of the capitellum typically affecting children under 10 years old, involving the entire ossific nucleus. Unlike OCD, it does not typically produce loose bodies and usually resolves completely with conservative management.

Question 31

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Which bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow during late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing?

. Anterior bundle
. Posterior bundle
. Transverse bundle
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Annular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion. It is the most frequently injured ligament in throwing athletes.

Question 32

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

To minimize the risk of injury to the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) when establishing the anterolateral portal during elbow arthroscopy, the elbow should be positioned in:

. Extension and supination
. Extension and pronation
. Flexion and supination
. Flexion and pronation
. Neutral flexion and neutral rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion and pronation


Explanation

Positioning the elbow in 90 degrees of flexion and forearm pronation moves the PIN further anterior and medially. Distending the joint with fluid also increases the safety margin away from the anterolateral portal.

Question 33

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 45-year-old woman complains of elbow clicking and a sense of instability when pushing off from a chair. The underlying pathology primarily involves deficiency of which of the following structures?

. Medial ulnar collateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Annular ligament
. Radial collateral ligament
. Quadrate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) is caused by incompetence of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). Patients typically report apprehension or mechanical symptoms when the arm is supinated, valgus-stressed, and loaded in extension.

Question 34

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior elbow pain during the deceleration phase of throwing. Imaging reveals loose bodies and osteophytes in the posteromedial olecranon fossa. What is the most likely underlying pathophysiology?

. Lateral epicondylitis
. Radiocapitellar overload
. Medial ulnar collateral ligament attenuation
. Posterolateral rotatory instability
. Biceps tendinosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial ulnar collateral ligament attenuation


Explanation

Valgus extension overload is typically secondary to chronic attenuation of the anterior bundle of the medial UCL. This leads to excessive valgus laxity, causing impingement of the posteromedial olecranon against the medial wall of the olecranon fossa.

Question 35

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 14-year-old male gymnast presents with lateral elbow pain and mechanical catching. MRI demonstrates fluid behind a loose osteochondral fragment in the capitellum. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Rest, NSAIDs, and cessation of gymnastics for 6 weeks
. Arthroscopic fragment removal and microfracture
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the capitellum
. Ulnar collateral ligament reconstruction
. Radial head resection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic fragment removal and microfracture


Explanation

In osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the capitellum, an unstable lesion indicated by mechanical symptoms and fluid behind the fragment on MRI warrants surgical intervention. Arthroscopic fragment excision and marrow stimulation (microfracture) is standard for smaller defects.

Question 36

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 45-year-old golfer presents with severe medial elbow pain that worsens with resisted forearm pronation and wrist flexion. Nonoperative management has failed. Surgical debridement targets the origin of which of the following muscle pairs?

. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis
. Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis
. Brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus
. Pronator quadratus and flexor pollicis longus
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor digitorum communis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis


Explanation

Medial epicondylitis involves tendinosis of the common flexor origin. The primary structures affected are the pronator teres and the flexor carpi radialis (FCR).

Question 37

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

An 11-year-old Little League pitcher complains of medial elbow pain. Radiographs demonstrate widening of the medial epicondylar apophysis. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding this condition?

. It is caused by compression forces across the medial elbow joint
. It typically requires surgical fixation if displacement is less than 2 mm
. Rest and cessation of throwing for 4 to 6 weeks is the primary treatment
. Corticosteroid injection is indicated for rapid return to play
. It most commonly involves the capitellum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rest and cessation of throwing for 4 to 6 weeks is the primary treatment


Explanation

Medial epicondylar apophysitis (Little League Elbow) is caused by repetitive valgus tension forces on the growing apophysis. It is managed conservatively with complete cessation of throwing, followed by physical therapy and a structured return-to-throw program.

Question 38

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

In the surgical management of a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow, which of the following represents the standard sequence of repair to restore stability?

. LUCL repair, radial head repair/replacement, coronoid repair
. Coronoid repair, radial head repair/replacement, LUCL repair
. Coronoid repair, LUCL repair, MUCL repair
. Radial head repair/replacement, coronoid repair, LUCL repair
. LUCL repair, coronoid repair, radial head repair/replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid repair, radial head repair/replacement, LUCL repair


Explanation

The standard surgical protocol for a terrible triad injury proceeds from deep to superficial: coronoid fixation first, followed by radial head repair or arthroplasty, and finally restoration of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL).

Question 39

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

The most common major complication following ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction of the elbow is:

. Ulnar neuropathy
. Graft rupture
. Radial neuropathy
. Heterotopic ossification
. Deep infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ulnar neuropathy


Explanation

Postoperative ulnar neuropathy is the most frequent complication following UCL reconstruction. It may result from excessive traction, fluid extravasation, or handling during nerve transposition.

Question 40

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 7-year-old boy presents with dull, aching lateral elbow pain without a history of significant trauma. Radiographs show sclerosis and fragmentation of the capitellum without loose bodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum
. Panner disease
. Lateral epicondylitis
. Radial head subluxation
. Little League elbow

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Panner disease


Explanation

Panner disease is an osteochondrosis of the capitellum typically affecting boys aged 7 to 10 years. Unlike osteochondritis dissecans seen in adolescents, Panner disease generally heals completely with conservative treatment and rest.