This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 21
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient sustains an anteromedial facet fracture of the coronoid process. If left untreated, this specific fracture pattern is highly associated with which type of elbow instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Varus posteromedial rotatory instability
Explanation
Anteromedial facet fractures of the coronoid result from a varus load combined with axial compression. This injury pattern disrupts the essential bony buttress of the coronoid, leading to varus posteromedial rotatory instability if not anatomically fixed.
Question 22
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 30-year-old patient falls onto an outstretched arm and sustains a Mason type II radial head fracture. There is a 3 mm displaced fragment involving 25% of the articular surface, but no mechanical block to rotation is noted on examination after intra-articular local anesthetic injection. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A brief period of sling immobilization followed by early range of motion
Explanation
Mason type II fractures with no mechanical block and minimal displacement can generally be successfully managed non-operatively. Early active range of motion is crucial to prevent long-term elbow stiffness.
Question 23
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 40-year-old female presents with recurrent elbow clicking and a sensation of giving way when pushing up from a chair. Physical examination reveals apprehension with axial load, supination, and valgus stress applied to the elbow. Which of the following structures is most likely deficient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
Explanation
Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) is caused by insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The classic mechanism of provocation is axial load, supination, and valgus stress, mimicking pushing off a chair.
Question 24
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior elbow pain during the deceleration phase of throwing. He complains of an inability to fully extend his elbow and occasionally feels catching. Radiographs demonstrate posteromedial olecranon osteophytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Valgus extension overload syndrome
Explanation
Valgus extension overload (VEO) occurs in overhead throwing athletes due to repetitive valgus stress, leading to impingement of the posteromedial olecranon in the olecranon fossa. It classically presents with posterior elbow pain during the deceleration phase and posteromedial osteophytes.
Question 25
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old heavy laborer felt a pop in his anterior elbow while lifting a heavy box. Examination reveals weakness in forearm supination and elbow flexion, with a positive hook test. If an anterior single-incision surgical repair is planned using suture anchors, which of the following nerves is at greatest risk if retractors are placed aggressively on the radial neck?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at risk during a single-incision anterior approach to the distal biceps, especially with aggressive lateral retraction or over-penetration of the radius.
Question 26
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old male falls from a ladder and sustains a terrible triad injury of the elbow. He undergoes open reduction and internal fixation. What is the recommended sequence of surgical repair for this injury pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid, lateral collateral ligament, radial head
Explanation
The classic algorithm for treating a terrible triad injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, coronoid fracture) starts deep/medial and works superficial/lateral. The recommended sequence is repairing the coronoid, followed by the radial head, and finally the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL).
Question 27
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 48-year-old avid golfer presents with chronic medial elbow pain. Examination reveals point tenderness just distal to the medial epicondyle and pain with resisted wrist flexion and pronation. Non-operative management has failed. Surgical intervention for this condition primarily involves debridement of the origin of which muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis
Explanation
Medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow) is characterized by tendinosis and microtearing of the flexor-pronator mass. The pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis (FCR) are the most commonly involved structures requiring debridement.
Question 28
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 12-year-old baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain, decreased throwing velocity, and localized tenderness over the medial epicondyle. Radiographs reveal widening of the medial epicondyle apophysis compared to the contralateral side. What is the initial treatment of choice?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Complete rest from throwing for 4 to 6 weeks
Explanation
Little League elbow typically presents as medial epicondylar apophysitis in skeletally immature throwing athletes. The cornerstone of initial treatment is absolute rest from throwing for 4 to 6 weeks, followed by a gradual return-to-throwing program.
Question 29
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 25-year-old female falls on her outstretched hand and presents with elbow pain. Radiographs and CT show an articular cartilage shear fracture of the capitellum with very little attached subchondral bone. According to the Bryan and Morrey classification, what type of fracture is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type II (Kocher-Lorenz)
Explanation
In the Bryan and Morrey classification, a Type II (Kocher-Lorenz) fracture is an articular cartilage shear fracture of the capitellum with minimal subchondral bone. A Type I (Hahn-Steinthal) involves a large fragment of subchondral bone.
Question 30
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 9-year-old gymnast presents with lateral elbow pain and stiffness. Radiographs demonstrate sclerosis and fragmentation of the entire capitellum without a localized loose body or distinct crater. Given her age and radiographic findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Panner's disease
Explanation
Panner's disease is an osteochondrosis of the capitellum typically affecting children under 10 years old, involving the entire ossific nucleus. Unlike OCD, it does not typically produce loose bodies and usually resolves completely with conservative management.
Question 31
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Which bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow during late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior bundle
Explanation
The anterior bundle of the medial UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow from 30 to 120 degrees of flexion. It is the most frequently injured ligament in throwing athletes.
Question 32
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
To minimize the risk of injury to the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) when establishing the anterolateral portal during elbow arthroscopy, the elbow should be positioned in:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexion and pronation
Explanation
Positioning the elbow in 90 degrees of flexion and forearm pronation moves the PIN further anterior and medially. Distending the joint with fluid also increases the safety margin away from the anterolateral portal.
Question 33
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old woman complains of elbow clicking and a sense of instability when pushing off from a chair. The underlying pathology primarily involves deficiency of which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
Explanation
Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) is caused by incompetence of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). Patients typically report apprehension or mechanical symptoms when the arm is supinated, valgus-stressed, and loaded in extension.
Question 34
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior elbow pain during the deceleration phase of throwing. Imaging reveals loose bodies and osteophytes in the posteromedial olecranon fossa. What is the most likely underlying pathophysiology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial ulnar collateral ligament attenuation
Explanation
Valgus extension overload is typically secondary to chronic attenuation of the anterior bundle of the medial UCL. This leads to excessive valgus laxity, causing impingement of the posteromedial olecranon against the medial wall of the olecranon fossa.
Question 35
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 14-year-old male gymnast presents with lateral elbow pain and mechanical catching. MRI demonstrates fluid behind a loose osteochondral fragment in the capitellum. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic fragment removal and microfracture
Explanation
In osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the capitellum, an unstable lesion indicated by mechanical symptoms and fluid behind the fragment on MRI warrants surgical intervention. Arthroscopic fragment excision and marrow stimulation (microfracture) is standard for smaller defects.
Question 36
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old golfer presents with severe medial elbow pain that worsens with resisted forearm pronation and wrist flexion. Nonoperative management has failed. Surgical debridement targets the origin of which of the following muscle pairs?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis
Explanation
Medial epicondylitis involves tendinosis of the common flexor origin. The primary structures affected are the pronator teres and the flexor carpi radialis (FCR).
Question 37
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
An 11-year-old Little League pitcher complains of medial elbow pain. Radiographs demonstrate widening of the medial epicondylar apophysis. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rest and cessation of throwing for 4 to 6 weeks is the primary treatment
Explanation
Medial epicondylar apophysitis (Little League Elbow) is caused by repetitive valgus tension forces on the growing apophysis. It is managed conservatively with complete cessation of throwing, followed by physical therapy and a structured return-to-throw program.
Question 38
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
In the surgical management of a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow, which of the following represents the standard sequence of repair to restore stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid repair, radial head repair/replacement, LUCL repair
Explanation
The standard surgical protocol for a terrible triad injury proceeds from deep to superficial: coronoid fixation first, followed by radial head repair or arthroplasty, and finally restoration of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL).
Question 39
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
The most common major complication following ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction of the elbow is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ulnar neuropathy
Explanation
Postoperative ulnar neuropathy is the most frequent complication following UCL reconstruction. It may result from excessive traction, fluid extravasation, or handling during nerve transposition.
Question 40
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 7-year-old boy presents with dull, aching lateral elbow pain without a history of significant trauma. Radiographs show sclerosis and fragmentation of the capitellum without loose bodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Panner disease
Explanation
Panner disease is an osteochondrosis of the capitellum typically affecting boys aged 7 to 10 years. Unlike osteochondritis dissecans seen in adolescents, Panner disease generally heals completely with conservative treatment and rest.
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