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Question 1

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 32-year-old male recreational tennis player presents with a 4-week history of progressive activity-related elbow pain in his dominant upper extremity. C linical examination demonstrates marked tenderness at the lateral epicondyle and pain at the lateral epicondyle with resisted wrist extension. No instability is detected on clinical examination. The next step in management is:

. Routine radiography
. Magnetic resonance imaging
. Activity modification, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents, and physical therapy
. Open surgical excision of pathological tissue
. Arthroscopic surgical excision of pathological tissue

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Activity modification, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents, and physical therapy


Explanation

This patient has lateral epicondylitis. A recent radiographic analysis of lateral epicondylitis showed that radiographs taken at initial presentation did not alter the initial management. Most patients with lateral epicondylitis respond to nonoperative treatment. Surgical treatment should only be considered after failure of a prolonged course (at least 6 months) of nonoperative treatment.

Question 2

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of a two-incision technique vs a single-incision technique for distal biceps repair:

. The two-incision technique is associated with increased risk of neural injury, while the single-incision technique is associated with an increased risk of heterotopic ossification.
. The two-incision technique is associated with increased risk of heterotopic ossification, while the single-incision technique is associated with an increased risk of nerve injury.
. The two-incision technique is associated with increased risk of neural injury, while the risk of heterotopic ossification is the same for both procedures.
. The two-incision technique is associated with increased risk of heterotopic ossification, while the risk of nerve injury is the same for both procedures.
. The risk of nerve injury and heterotopic ossification is the same for both procedures.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The two-incision technique is associated with increased risk of heterotopic ossification, while the single-incision technique is associated with an increased risk of nerve injury.


Explanation

Successful treatment of distal biceps tendon tears include dual- and single- incision techniques. The two-incision technique is associated with increased risk of heterotopic ossification, whereas the single-incision technique is associated with an increased risk of nerve injury.

Question 3

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

Approximately what percentage of supination strength is lost with an unrepaired distal biceps tendon rupture:

. 5%
. 20%
. 40%
. 60%
. 80%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 40%


Explanation

The biceps provides approximately 40% of supination strength to the forearm.

Question 4

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 35-year-old woman complains of recurrent clicking and a sensation of her elbow 'giving way' when pushing up from a chair. Physical examination reveals a positive lateral pivot-shift test. Which ligamentous structure is primarily deficient in this condition?

. Annular ligament
. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)
. Quadrate ligament
. Posterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)


Explanation

Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) is caused by a deficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). This typically presents with locking, snapping, or a giving-way sensation when an axial load, valgus stress, and supination are applied.

Question 5

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher experiences posterior elbow pain during the deceleration phase of throwing. Imaging reveals posteromedial olecranon osteophytes. If osteophyte excision is performed, what complication is most likely if the resection is overly aggressive?

. Radial nerve injury
. Triceps rupture
. Medial epicondylitis
. Ulnar collateral ligament insufficiency
. Heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ulnar collateral ligament insufficiency


Explanation

Valgus extension overload syndrome leads to posteromedial olecranon osteophytes. Aggressive resection of the posteromedial olecranon can remove the bony buttress effect, leading to increased strain on the UCL and subsequent valgus instability.

Question 6

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 45-year-old man undergoes a single-incision anterior repair for an acute distal biceps tendon rupture. Postoperatively, he notes numbness over the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

. Superficial radial nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach to the distal biceps. It courses between the biceps and brachialis.

Question 7

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 40-year-old sustains a terrible triad injury of the elbow after a fall on an outstretched hand. According to standard surgical protocols, what is the recommended sequence of structural reconstruction?

. Radial head, coronoid, lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)
. Coronoid, LUCL, radial head
. Coronoid, radial head, lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)
. LUCL, radial head, coronoid
. Radial head, LUCL, coronoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid, LUCL, radial head


Explanation

The standard surgical protocol for a terrible triad injury is to repair from deep to superficial, generally starting with the coronoid, followed by the radial head (repair or replacement), and finally the LUCL.

Question 8

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 30-year-old sustains an isolated anteromedial facet fracture of the coronoid. This specific fracture pattern is most closely associated with which mechanism and concomitant ligamentous injury?

. Valgus stress and UCL tear
. Varus posteromedial rotatory instability and LCL tear
. Posterolateral rotatory instability and LUCL tear
. Axial load and interosseous membrane tear
. Direct posterior blow and triceps avulsion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Varus posteromedial rotatory instability and LCL tear


Explanation

Anteromedial facet fractures of the coronoid are pathognomonic for varus posteromedial rotatory instability. This injury pattern typically involves a concomitant tear of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex.

Question 9

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

In a patient undergoing surgical debridement for recalcitrant medial epicondylitis, which muscular origins are most commonly involved in the pathologic tendinosis?

. Flexor carpi ulnaris and palmaris longus
. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis
. Flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus
. Brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and supinator

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis


Explanation

Medial epicondylitis primarily involves the origin of the pronator teres and the flexor carpi radialis. Surgical management involves excision of the angiofibroblastic tissue at this origin.

Question 10

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 9-year-old boy presents with lateral elbow pain and stiffness. Radiographs show sclerosis, fragmentation, and flattening of the entire capitellum without loose bodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum
. Panner disease
. Radial head fracture
. Lateral epicondylitis
. Synovial chondromatosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Panner disease


Explanation

Panner disease is an osteochondrosis of the capitellum that affects younger children (usually under 10 years old), involves the entire capitellum, and is typically self-limiting. OCD affects older children and typically involves localized lesions.

Question 11

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

The capitellum is prone to osteochondritis dissecans due to a tenuous vascular supply. The dominant intraosseous vascular supply to the capitellum enters from which direction?

. Anterior
. Posterior
. Medial
. Lateral
. Distal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior


Explanation

The primary blood supply to the capitellum comes from posteriorly via end-arteries. This makes the anterior and lateral portions susceptible to avascular necrosis and OCD under repetitive stress.

Question 12

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During a two-incision distal biceps repair, a muscle-splitting approach is utilized to reach the radial tuberosity. To best protect the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) during this posterior approach, the forearm should be placed in which position?

. Full pronation
. Full supination
. Neutral rotation
. 45 degrees of flexion
. Elbow hyperextension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Full pronation


Explanation

During the posterior approach in a two-incision distal biceps repair, keeping the forearm in full pronation pulls the PIN medially and distally, moving it away from the surgical field and reducing the risk of injury.

Question 13

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During the throwing motion of a baseball pitcher, peak valgus stress at the elbow, which places the maximal strain on the ulnar collateral ligament, occurs during which phase?

. Wind-up
. Early cocking
. Late cocking / early acceleration
. Deceleration
. Follow-through

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Late cocking / early acceleration


Explanation

Peak valgus stress on the elbow occurs during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. This is when the UCL is subjected to maximum tension and is most susceptible to injury.

Question 14

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A patient presents with a 45-degree flexion contracture of the elbow 6 months after a simple dislocation. Non-operative management has failed. During an open arthrolysis, which structure is the primary restraint that must be released to achieve full extension?

. Anterior capsule
. Posterior capsule
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Ulnar collateral ligament
. Annular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior capsule


Explanation

A flexion contracture limits extension. The anterior capsule becomes contracted and thickened, making it the primary soft tissue restraint to elbow extension that must be released during arthrolysis.

Question 15

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

In a patient diagnosed with refractory medial epicondylitis, which of the following tendinous structures is most commonly targeted during surgical debridement?

. Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis
. Pronator quadratus and brachioradialis
. Flexor carpi radialis and pronator teres
. Flexor digitorum profundus and palmaris longus
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor digitorum communis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor carpi radialis and pronator teres


Explanation

Medial epicondylitis primarily involves microtearing and tendinosis at the origin of the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) and the pronator teres. Surgical intervention specifically targets these tendinous origins for debridement.

Question 16

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher reports acute medial elbow pain accompanied by a "pop" during a pitch. Examination reveals pain and laxity with valgus stress at 30 degrees of elbow flexion. Injury to which of the following structures is the primary cause of this instability?

. Posterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament
. Anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament
. Transverse ligament of the elbow
. Radial collateral ligament
. Common flexor tendon origin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament (MCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow. It is most effectively evaluated with valgus stress applied at 30 degrees of elbow flexion to unlock the olecranon from its fossa.

Question 17

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 45-year-old falls onto an outstretched hand and sustains a "terrible triad" injury of the elbow. Which of the following describes the standard recommended sequence of surgical repair for this injury?

. MCL repair followed by LCL repair
. Radial head fixation, coronoid fixation, then LCL repair
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation or replacement, then LCL repair
. LCL repair, coronoid fixation, then radial head fixation
. Radial head excision without replacement followed by MCL repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation or replacement, then LCL repair


Explanation

The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury involves repairing structures from deep to superficial. This typically means addressing the coronoid fracture first, followed by the radial head, and finally the lateral collateral ligament (LCL).

Question 18

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 35-year-old woman complains of recurrent elbow clicking and a feeling that the elbow will "give way" when pushing up from a chair. On examination, a pivot-shift test is positive. This condition is most likely caused by insufficiency of which of the following ligaments?

. Annular ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)
. Anterior bundle of the MCL
. Quadrate ligament
. Oblique cord

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)


Explanation

Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) classically presents with apprehension or giving way when an axial load, valgus force, and supination are applied. It is primarily caused by an insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL).

Question 19

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

During a single-incision anterior approach for a distal biceps tendon repair, the patient develops postoperative numbness over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

. Superficial radial nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) exits the deep fascia laterally between the biceps and brachialis muscles. It is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps repair.

Question 20

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 7-year-old boy presents with a 3-month history of dull, aching lateral elbow pain without a specific injury. Radiographs reveal fragmentation and sclerosis of the entire capitellum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum
. Little League elbow
. Panner's disease
. Lateral epicondylitis
. Radial head osteonecrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Panner's disease


Explanation

Panner's disease is an osteochondrosis of the capitellum that typically affects children younger than 10 years old and involves the entire ossific nucleus. It is a self-limiting condition treated with symptomatic rest, unlike OCD which occurs in older adolescents.