This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3901
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 19-year-old weightlifter experiences posterior shoulder pain and a sensation of instability during the bench press. Clinical examination reveals a positive jerk test. Magnetic resonance arthrography (MRA) demonstrates a tear of the posterior labrum and capsule. Which of the following capsuloligamentous structures is the primary restraint to posterior translation of the humerus when the shoulder is flexed to 90 degrees and internally rotated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
Explanation
Correct Answer: DThe posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) is the primary static restraint to posterior translation of the humeral head when the shoulder is in 90 degrees of flexion and internal rotation. Injury to this structure is a hallmark of recurrent posterior shoulder instability.
Question 3902
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 24-year-old military recruit complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and clicking. The physician suspects posterior instability. During physical examination, the patient's arm is elevated to 90 degrees of forward flexion and internally rotated. The examiner then applies a posterior force to the elbow while horizontally adducting the arm, producing a clunk and sudden pain. As the arm is returned to the starting position, a second clunk is felt. What is the name of this provocative test?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Jerk test
Explanation
Correct Answer: BThe Jerk test evaluates for posterior shoulder instability. A positive test occurs when a posterior force is applied to the flexed, internally rotated arm, causing the humeral head to subluxate posteriorly over the glenoid rim (first clunk). As the arm is brought back into the coronal plane, the humeral head reduces back into the glenoid fossa (second clunk).
Question 3903
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 65-year-old female presents to the orthopedic clinic with a 3-month history of severe right shoulder pain and stiffness following a fall down the stairs. She was initially told she had a shoulder sprain. On examination, she has 0 degrees of external rotation and 45 degrees of forward elevation. Radiographs show a locked posterior dislocation with severe degenerative changes of the glenohumeral joint and a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 50% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
Correct Answer: DIn a chronic, missed posterior dislocation with significant articular surface involvement (greater than 40-50%) and established glenohumeral osteoarthritis, total shoulder arthroplasty (or reverse total shoulder arthroplasty depending on rotator cuff status) is the treatment of choice. Joint-preserving procedures like the McLaughlin procedure are contraindicated in the setting of severe arthritis and massive osteochondral defects.
Question 3904
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
In the abducted and internally rotated shoulder, which of the following capsuloligamentous structures is the primary static restraint to posterior translation of the humeral head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
Explanation
Correct Answer: DThe inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) complex is the primary static stabilizer of the shoulder in abduction. It consists of an anterior band, a posterior band, and an axillary pouch. In abduction and internal rotation, the posterior band of the IGHL becomes taut and acts as the primary restraint to posterior translation of the humeral head.
Question 3905
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
During the evaluation of a patient with multidirectional shoulder instability, an orthopedic surgeon considers the static stabilizers of the glenohumeral joint. When the shoulder is abducted to 90 degrees and internally rotated, which of the following capsuloligamentous structures serves as the primary static restraint to posterior translation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
Explanation
Correct Answer: Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligamentThe inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) complex is the most important static stabilizer of the shoulder. It consists of an anterior band, a posterior band, and an axillary pouch. The posterior band of the IGHL is the primary static restraint to posterior translation of the humerus when the shoulder is abducted to 90 degrees and internally rotated. The superior glenohumeral ligament and coracohumeral ligament primarily resist inferior translation in the adducted shoulder.
Question 3906
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 28-year-old male presents to the urgent care clinic after a fall onto an outstretched hand. He complains of severe shoulder pain and restricted range of motion. An anteroposterior (AP) radiograph of the shoulder reveals a "lightbulb sign" and loss of the normal half-moon overlap between the humeral head and the glenoid. What is the most critical next step in the radiographic evaluation of this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary lateral or Velpeau view radiograph
Explanation
Correct Answer: Axillary lateral or Velpeau view radiographThe "lightbulb sign" on an AP radiograph is highly indicative of a posterior shoulder dislocation. It occurs because the humerus is locked in internal rotation, causing the humeral head to appear symmetric and rounded like a lightbulb. However, an AP view alone is insufficient to definitively diagnose a dislocation. An axillary lateral view is the gold standard plain radiograph for confirming the anterior-posterior relationship of the glenohumeral joint. If the patient is in too much pain to abduct the arm for a standard axillary view, a Velpeau view can be obtained.
Question 3907
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing a first-time grand mal seizure. He complains of severe left shoulder pain and an inability to move the arm. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation. In what position is the glenohumeral joint most vulnerable to posterior dislocation during a traumatic event or seizure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation
Explanation
Correct Answer: Flexion, adduction, and internal rotationThe classic position of vulnerability for a posterior shoulder dislocation is flexion, adduction, and internal rotation. During a seizure or electrocution, the strong internal rotators of the shoulder (latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, and subscapularis) overpower the weaker external rotators (infraspinatus and teres minor). This intense, unbalanced muscle contraction forces the humeral head posteriorly out of the glenoid fossa. Traumatic posterior dislocations also typically occur when an axial load is applied to the arm while it is in this vulnerable position.
Question 3908
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 19-year-old male presents with posterior shoulder pain. The examiner suspects a posteroinferior labral tear. The examiner elevates the patient's arm to 90 degrees of abduction in the scapular plane, applies an axial load to the elbow, and simultaneously applies a downward and posterior force to the proximal humerus while elevating the arm diagonally upward. The patient experiences sudden onset of posterior shoulder pain. Which of the following tests was performed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Kim test
Explanation
Correct Answer: Kim testThe Kim test is specifically designed to detect posteroinferior labral lesions. It is performed with the patient seated and the arm in 90 degrees of abduction. The examiner applies an axial load and a downward/posterior force while elevating the arm diagonally upward. A positive test is the elicitation of posterior shoulder pain. The Jerk test is performed with the arm in 90 degrees of abduction and internal rotation; the arm is horizontally adducted while an axial load is applied, producing a "clunk" or pain as the humeral head subluxates posteriorly.
Question 3909
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
During a biomechanical study of the glenohumeral joint, researchers selectively section various capsuloligamentous structures to determine their contribution to posterior stability. Which of the following structures is the primary static restraint to posterior translation of the humerus when the arm is flexed, adducted, and internally rotated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
Explanation
Correct Answer: Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligamentThe inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) complex is the most important static stabilizer of the shoulder. It acts like a hammock. The posterior band of the IGHL is the primary static restraint to posterior translation of the humeral head when the arm is in the vulnerable position of flexion, adduction, and internal rotation. The superior glenohumeral ligament and coracohumeral ligament primarily resist inferior translation in the adducted arm.
Question 3910
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
An AP radiograph of a 30-year-old trauma patient reveals a 'rim sign' suspicious for a posterior shoulder dislocation. The rim sign is considered positive when the distance between the medial aspect of the humeral head and the anterior glenoid rim exceeds what measurement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 8 mm
Explanation
The rim sign on an AP radiograph is highly suggestive of a posterior shoulder dislocation. It is defined as a gap of greater than 6 mm between the medial border of the humeral head and the anterior glenoid margin.
Question 3911
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 16-year-old female presents with the ability to painlessly dislocate her shoulder posteriorly on command. She demonstrates this by elevating her arm and contracting her muscles, then easily reduces it. Imaging shows no structural defects. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensive physical therapy and reassurance
Explanation
Volitional, painless posterior instability is a hallmark of atraumatic, multidirectional instability (AMBRI spectrum). The mainstay of treatment is extensive physical therapy focusing on periscapular strengthening and biofeedback to retrain muscle firing patterns.
Question 3912
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that the primary static restraint to posterior glenohumeral translation with the arm resting in 0 degrees of abduction and neutral rotation is which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracohumeral ligament and superior glenohumeral ligament
Explanation
At 0 degrees of abduction, the primary restraints to posterior and inferior translation are the superior glenohumeral ligament (SGHL) and the coracohumeral ligament (CHL), often referred to as the rotator interval structures.
Question 3913
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
An anteroposterior (AP) radiograph of a shoulder reveals a 'lightbulb sign'. This classic radiographic appearance is directly caused by which of the following anatomic positions of the humerus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pronounced internal rotation
Explanation
The 'lightbulb sign' occurs in posterior shoulder dislocations because the arm is locked in pronounced internal rotation. This rotation causes the tuberosities to overlap the humeral head head-on, giving the head a symmetrical, rounded appearance resembling a lightbulb.
Question 3914
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 68-year-old male with chronic epilepsy presents with a missed posterior shoulder dislocation of 8 months duration. CT scan shows a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 55% of the articular surface with severe secondary glenohumeral osteoarthritis. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
For chronic posterior dislocations with articular defects >45-50% and concurrent glenohumeral osteoarthritis, joint replacement (total shoulder arthroplasty or hemiarthroplasty depending on glenoid wear) is the treatment of choice. Joint-preserving procedures are contraindicated with such massive defects.
Question 3915
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A patient undergoes an open posterior capsulorrhaphy for recalcitrant posterior instability. Postoperatively, if the posterior capsule is over-tightened during the repair, the patient is at greatest risk for clinically significant loss of which shoulder motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal rotation
Explanation
Over-tightening of the posterior capsule during surgical stabilization restricts the normal excursion required for internal rotation. Patients will characteristically present with a prominent loss of internal rotation postoperatively.
Question 3916
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A biomechanical evaluation of a cadaveric shoulder is being performed. The shoulder is placed in 90 degrees of forward flexion and maximal internal rotation. Which structure acts as the primary static restraint to posterior translation in this specific position?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
Explanation
The posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) complex is the primary static restraint to posterior translation when the shoulder is placed in 90 degrees of flexion and internal rotation.
Question 3917
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 24-year-old weightlifter presents with vague posterior shoulder pain. On examination, with the arm in 90 degrees of forward flexion and internal rotation, an axial load is applied while horizontally adducting the arm. A sudden clunk is felt, followed by a second clunk when the arm is returned to the starting position. Injury to which anatomical structure is most strongly associated with this positive provocative test?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
Explanation
The clinical scenario describes a positive Jerk test, which is highly specific for posteroinferior instability. The posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) is the primary static restraint to posterior translation in this position.
Question 3918
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 65-year-old male presents with a missed chronic posterior shoulder dislocation 6 months after a fall. CT imaging demonstrates a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 55% of the humeral head articular surface and severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
Total shoulder arthroplasty is indicated for chronic locked posterior dislocations with humeral head defects greater than 50% and concurrent advanced glenohumeral osteoarthritis.
Question 3919
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 30-year-old male is evaluated in the trauma bay following an explosion. He securely holds his right arm internally rotated against his abdomen. The AP shoulder radiograph demonstrates a 'lightbulb' sign. What causes this specific radiographic appearance?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fixed internal rotation of the humeral head
Explanation
The 'lightbulb' sign is seen on AP radiographs in posterior dislocations due to the fixed internal rotation of the humeral head. This rotation hides the greater tuberosity profile, creating a symmetric, rounded appearance.
Question 3920
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 23-year-old male trips and falls forward onto an outstretched hand, sustaining an acute posterior shoulder dislocation. Which specific biomechanical position of the arm at the moment of impact most strongly predisposes the shoulder to this type of dislocation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Forward flexion, adduction, and internal rotation
Explanation
The classic mechanism for a traumatic posterior shoulder dislocation is an axial load applied to an arm that is positioned in forward flexion, adduction, and internal rotation.
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