This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3881
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
When performing a Woodward procedure for a severe Sprengel's deformity, which neurovascular structure is at highest risk during the caudal relocation of the scapula?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Brachial plexus
Explanation
The brachial plexus is at significant risk of stretch injury during the distal relocation of the scapula. Clavicle osteotomy is often performed concurrently in severe cases to shorten the distance and protect the plexus.
Question 3882
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 5-year-old patient has a Sprengel's deformity where the shoulder joint is level with the opposite side, but the deformity is visible when the patient is dressed due to a prominent superomedial angle. According to the Cavendish classification, what grade is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Grade 2
Explanation
Cavendish Grade 2 indicates the deformity is visible when dressed as a lump in the web of the neck, but the shoulder joints are relatively level. Grade 3 implies shoulder elevation 2-5 cm, and Grade 4 is >5 cm.
Question 3883
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 4-year-old child presents with an elevated left shoulder. On examination, the deformity is visible with clothes on, and the left shoulder is elevated 3 cm compared to the right. According to the Cavendish classification, what grade does this deformity represent?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Grade IV
Explanation
The Cavendish classification grades Sprengel's deformity. Grade I is very mild (invisible with clothes). Grade II is visible but elevation is <2 cm. Grade III is a visible deformity with 2-5 cm of elevation. Grade IV is severe, with >5 cm elevation and the superior angle near the occiput.
Question 3884
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
During the Woodward procedure for Sprengel's deformity, the origins of specific muscles are detached from the spinous processes to allow inferior mobilization of the scapula. Which nerve is most directly at risk of injury during the mobilization of the trapezius muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinal accessory nerve
Explanation
The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius and is at risk during its detachment and mobilization in the Woodward procedure. Careful dissection is required to avoid causing a winged scapula.
Question 3885
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
During a Woodward procedure for a severe Sprengel's deformity in a 5-year-old child, the scapula is mobilized and displaced inferiorly to improve cosmesis and shoulder function. Postoperatively, the child demonstrates weakness in elbow flexion and altered sensation over the lateral forearm. Which structure was most likely stretched during the scapular lowering?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Brachial plexus
Explanation
The most significant neurologic complication of surgical correction for Sprengel's deformity (e.g., Woodward or Green procedures) is brachial plexus palsy. To prevent this, clavicle osteotomy may be performed concurrently to decompress the plexus as the scapula is pulled inferiorly.
Question 3886
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 5-year-old girl sustains a minimally displaced lateral condyle fracture of the humerus that is treated nonoperatively. She is lost to follow-up and presents 15 years later with progressive numbness and tingling in her ring and small fingers. What is the most likely underlying cause of her current symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cubitus valgus deformity
Explanation
Correct Answer: Cubitus valgus deformityNonunion is a classic complication of lateral condyle fractures, particularly if displacement is missed or inadequately treated. A nonunion of the lateral condyle leads to a progressive cubitus valgus deformity as the medial physis continues to grow while the lateral side does not. Over time, this valgus alignment stretches the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle, leading to a tardy ulnar nerve palsy. This presents with numbness, tingling, and potential intrinsic muscle weakness in the ulnar nerve distribution.
Question 3887
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 48-year-old man presents with right shoulder pain worsened by overhead activity. Radiographs reveal an incidental 3 cm medullary lesion with stippled calcifications in the proximal humerus without cortical scalloping. A subacromial corticosteroid injection provides 100% relief of his shoulder pain. What is the next best step in management of the bone lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation with serial radiographs
Explanation
The lesion is a classic asymptomatic enchondroma, as the shoulder pain was proven to be mechanical (resolved via subacromial injection). The correct management for a small, asymptomatic enchondroma without aggressive features is observation with serial radiographs.
Question 3888
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 28-year-old man sustained a severe closed head injury and an elbow dislocation. After 1 month, he has pain and stiffness, with the radiograph shown. Management includes open reduction, heterotopic bone excision, and capsular releases. What is the primary role of the dynamic hinged fixator in this setting?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To protect the reconstruction while allowing early protected range of motion
Explanation
Correct Answer: CIn a young individual with a chronic dislocation of the elbow and heterotopic bone formation, the treatment of choice is open reduction, heterotopic bone excision, anterior and posterior capsular releases, and a dynamic hinged fixator to begin protected early postoperative range of motion. It is important to understand that the fixator protects the reconstruction and allows early range of motion, but it does not maintain the reduction and should not be expected to do so. Pin fixation across the elbow delays early motion and is not recommended.
Question 3889
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 28-year-old man presents with a chronic elbow dislocation and heterotopic ossification following a severe head injury, as shown in the radiograph. He is scheduled for open reduction, heterotopic bone excision, and capsular releases. What is the primary biomechanical purpose of applying a dynamic hinged elbow fixator in this setting?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To protect the reconstruction while allowing early protected range of motion.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CIn a young individual with a chronic dislocation of the elbow and heterotopic bone formation, the treatment of choice is open reduction, heterotopic bone excision, anterior and posterior capsular releases, and a dynamic hinged fixator. The primary purpose of the fixator is to protect the reconstruction and allow early protected range of motion. It does not maintain the reduction on its own and should not be expected to do so. Rigid immobilization or pin fixation across the joint delays early motion and is contraindicated.
Question 3890
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
The provided arthroscopic view of the radiocapitellar joint is obtained from an anterior medial portal. When performing a capsular excision in the midportion of the capitellum, which of the following nerves is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial nerve
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe radial nerve lies directly on the anterior elbow capsule at the midportion of the capitellum. It is at significant risk for injury when capsular excision or release is performed in this specific region during elbow arthroscopy.
Question 3891
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 28-year-old man with a history of severe traumatic brain injury presents with a stiff, painful elbow one month after a closed reduction of an elbow dislocation. Radiographs show extensive heterotopic ossification. What is the primary role of the hinged elbow fixator in the definitive surgical management of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To protect the reconstruction while allowing early protected range of motion.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CIn the surgical management of chronic elbow dislocation with heterotopic ossification (HO), the treatment of choice is open reduction, HO excision, capsular release, and application of a dynamic hinged fixator. The fixator's primary role is to protect the soft-tissue reconstruction and allow early protected range of motion. It does not maintain the reduction itself, nor does it prevent HO recurrence. Pin fixation across the joint would delay early motion and is contraindicated.
Question 3892
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 28-year-old man presents with a chronic elbow dislocation and heterotopic ossification following a severe head injury, as seen in the radiograph. He is scheduled for open reduction, heterotopic bone excision, and capsular releases. What is the primary biomechanical purpose of applying a dynamic hinged elbow fixator in this setting?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To protect the reconstruction while allowing early protected range of motion.
Explanation
Correct Answer: BIn a young individual with a chronic dislocation of the elbow and heterotopic bone formation, the treatment of choice is open reduction, heterotopic bone excision, anterior and posterior capsular releases, and a dynamic hinged fixator to begin protected early postoperative range of motion. It is important to understand that the fixator protects the reconstruction and allows early range of motion, but it does not maintain the reduction and should not be expected to do so. Pin fixation across the elbow delays early motion and is not recommended.
Question 3893
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
The arthroscopic view of the elbow shown is taken from an anterior medial portal, visualizing the radiocapitellar joint. When performing a capsular excision in the midportion of the capitellum, which neurovascular structure is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial nerve
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe image shows a view of the radiocapitellar joint from an anterior medial portal. The radial nerve lies on the elbow capsule at the midportion of the capitellum. It is at risk for injury when capsular excision is performed in this region.
Question 3894
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 28-year-old man presents with a chronic elbow dislocation and heterotopic ossification following a severe head injury, as shown in the radiograph. He is scheduled for open reduction, heterotopic bone excision, and capsular releases. What is the primary purpose of applying a dynamic hinged elbow fixator in this setting?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To protect the reconstruction while allowing early protected range of motion.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CIn a young individual with a chronic dislocation of the elbow and heterotopic bone formation, the treatment of choice is open reduction, heterotopic bone excision, anterior and posterior capsular releases, and a dynamic hinged fixator to begin protected early postoperative range of motion. It is important to understand that the fixator protects the reconstruction and allows early range of motion, but it does not maintain the reduction and should not be expected to do so. Pin fixation across the elbow delays early motion and is not recommended.
Question 3895
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old man with a history of recurrent acute podagra and visible tophi on his elbows is started on long-term medical therapy to lower his serum uric acid. He is prescribed a medication that inhibits xanthine oxidase. Which of the following drugs fits this mechanism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Allopurinol
Explanation
Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used for the chronic management of gout to decrease uric acid production. Colchicine inhibits microtubule polymerization, while Probenecid is a uricosuric agent that increases renal excretion of uric acid.
Question 3896
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Which joint is most frequently affected by primary synovial chondromatosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Knee
Explanation
Primary synovial chondromatosis most commonly affects large monoarticular joints. The knee is by far the most frequently involved joint, followed by the hip and elbow.
Question 3897
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Which major articulation is overwhelmingly the most common site of involvement for primary synovial chondromatosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Knee
Explanation
The knee is the most commonly affected joint in primary synovial chondromatosis, accounting for approximately 50-70% of cases, followed by the hip, elbow, and shoulder.
Question 3898
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 12-year-old boy presents with progressive back pain and bilateral hip pain. Radiographs show mild platyspondyly with a characteristic 'hump-shaped' build-up of bone on the central and posterior portions of the vertebral endplates. His maternal uncle has a similar history of early-onset osteoarthritis. What is the inheritance pattern of this specific skeletal dysplasia?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. X-linked recessive
Explanation
Correct Answer: X-linked recessiveThe clinical and radiographic presentation (hump-shaped vertebral endplates, male patient, maternal uncle affected) is classic for Spondyloepiphyseal Dysplasia (SED) Tarda. SED Tarda is caused by mutations in the TRAPPC2 gene and is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. It typically presents in late childhood or adolescence with back pain and premature osteoarthritis of the hips and shoulders.
Question 3899
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 72-year-old male presents with severe shoulder pain, inability to elevate his arm above 45 degrees (pseudoparalysis), and hornblower's sign. Radiographs show superior migration of the humeral head with severe glenohumeral arthritis and acetabularization of the acromion (Hamada Stage IV). What is the optimal surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
This patient has advanced rotator cuff tear arthropathy (Hamada Stage IV) complicated by pseudoparalysis. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is indicated because it medializes the center of rotation and distalizes the humerus, allowing the deltoid to compensate for the deficient cuff.
Question 3900
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. He was the restrained driver and his hands were on the steering wheel at the time of impact. He complains of severe left shoulder pain and an inability to move the arm. On examination, his arm is locked in internal rotation. Which of the following positions most commonly predisposes the shoulder to this type of dislocation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adduction, flexion, and internal rotation
Explanation
Correct Answer: BPosterior shoulder dislocations classically occur when an axial load is applied to the arm while it is in a position of adduction, flexion, and internal rotation. This is the typical position of the arms when holding a steering wheel during a front-end motor vehicle collision (dashboard injury). It is also the mechanism seen in seizures and electrocution due to intense muscle contractions.
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