This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3301
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A macrosomic newborn presents with decreased spontaneous motion of the left upper extremity after a difficult breech delivery. Radiographs show a normal glenohumeral relationship but medial displacement of the proximal humeral shaft relative to the glenoid. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis or management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate closed reduction and spica casting
Explanation
This presentation is highly suspicious for a proximal humerus physeal separation, often confused with a shoulder dislocation in newborns. Ultrasound is the imaging modality of choice to visualize the unossified epiphysis and confirm the diagnosis.
Question 3302
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 4.5 kg neonate is delivered via normal vaginal delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia. Postnatally, the infant exhibits absent active movement of the right hand and fingers, a claw-like hand deformity, and ptosis and miosis of the right eye. The shoulder and elbow movements are relatively preserved. Which nerve roots are most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C5, C6
Explanation
Klumpke's palsy involves the lower roots (C8, T1), presenting with intrinsic hand muscle paralysis and an absent grasp reflex. The associated Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) confirms T1 sympathetic root preganglionic involvement.
Question 3303
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 36-year-old recreational athlete feels a pop in his antecubital fossa while lifting weights. He has pain, swelling, and deformity. Representative sagittal and coronal MRI slices are shown in Figures 1 and 2, respectively. What is the most common major complications associated with surgical repair of this structure?
The MRI scan shows a distal biceps tendon rupture with retraction. Tendon rerupture and PIN palsy are the two most common major complications following distal biceps repair surgery. Major complication rates are not found to differ by sex, history of tobacco use, age, exposure type (single versus twoincisions), tear morphology (full versus partial), or type of fixation used.
Question 3304
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 58-year-old man has right shoulder pain. An examination reveals full range of motion in all planes but 4/5 forward elevation strength (Figures 90a and 90b).
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Humeral head resurfacing/shoulder hemiarthroplasty
Explanation
- Rotator cuff repair_
Question 3305
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 78-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for cuff tear arthropathy. Her preoperative, 3-month postoperative, and
Correct Answer & Explanation
. year postoperative radiographs are shown in Figures 1 through
Explanation
The patient underwent a reverse arthroplasty for cuff tear arthropathy. Her preoperative radiograph shows some superior glenoid wear, which was not corrected at the time of surgery. This has resulted in superior tilt to the glenosphere, which has been identified as a risk factor for scapular notching. This occurs as a result of mechanical impingement between the medial humerus and scapular neck during arm adduction. The Beta angle and reverse shoulder angle have been proposed as measurements that can help identify pathologic glenoid tilt preoperatively. Risk factors for scapular notching include superior tilt of the glenosphere, superior placement of the glenoid baseplate on the glenoid, a 155° humeral implant angle, and incomplete lateralization of the construct.The humeral component appears well-positioned in this radiograph. Over tensioning of the deltoid and excessive humeral lateralization would risk an acromial stress fracture and could limit shoulder range of motion. This is an inlay humeral stem, which does not lateralize the humerus.
Question 3306
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old coach sustains a complete distal biceps tendon rupture at the elbow. Surgical repair is most indicated to:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. restore full supination strength.
Explanation
The biceps is primarily responsible for supination of the forearm. The brachialis muscle is primarily responsible for elbow flexion strength. Failure to repair the distal biceps tendon will result in loss of 40% supination strength and 10% loss in flexion strength. Therefore, surgical repair of a complete distal biceps tendon rupture is most indicated to maximize supination strength.
Question 3307
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old female falls from a ladder and sustains an injury to her right elbow. Radiographs similar to the typical appearance of this injury pattern
demonstrate a posterior elbow dislocation, a radial head fracture, and a coronoid fracture. According to the standard lateral-to-medial surgical protocol (e.g., Pugh et al.), what is the correct sequence of structural fixation?
In the surgical management of a terrible triad injury of the elbow, a deep-to-superficial, anterior-to-posterior, or medial-to-lateral progression is generally utilized. The widely accepted standard sequence from a lateral or global approach is: 1) fixation of the coronoid fracture and anterior capsule, 2) fixation or replacement of the radial head, and 3) repair of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). If the elbow remains unstable after this sequence, the MCL may be explored and repaired.
Question 3308
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 74-year-old male complains of right shoulder pain and an inability to elevate his arm actively beyond 30 degrees (pseudoparalysis). Radiographs demonstrate superior migration of the humeral head with severe acromiohumeral narrowing (Hamada grade 4). MRI confirms a massive, retracted, unrepairable tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with fatty infiltration. The deltoid muscle is fully intact, and axillary nerve function is normal. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic superior capsular reconstruction
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is the gold standard for elderly patients with rotator cuff arthropathy and pseudoparalysis, provided the deltoid and axillary nerve are intact. By medializing the center of rotation and placing the humerus distally, it increases the deltoid moment arm, allowing for functional arm elevation despite a deficient rotator cuff.
Question 3309
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old male undergoes a single-incision anterior approach for repair of a complete distal biceps tendon rupture. During the post-operative follow-up, he complains of numbness and tingling over the lateral aspect of his proximal forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured or stretched by retraction during this procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is the most frequently injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps tendon repair due to its superficial course lateral to the biceps tendon. While the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at risk, it is more classically injured during the second (lateral) incision of a two-incision approach if dissection splits the supinator incorrectly.
Question 3310
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 30-year-old female falls onto an outstretched hand. A radiograph reveals a coronal shear fracture. According to the current classification systems, a coronal shear fracture of the capitellum that extends medially to include a large contiguous portion of the trochlea is classified as:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. McKee modification (Type IV)
Explanation
The McKee modification describes a Type IV capitellar fracture, which is a coronal shear fracture that involves not only the capitellum but extends medially to include the lateral ridge and a significant portion of the trochlea. Type I (Hahn-Steinthal) involves a large fragment of the capitellum with subchondral bone. Type II (Kocher-Lorenz) is an articular cartilage fragment with minimal bone. Type III is a comminuted fracture.
Question 3311
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 35-year-old laborer with an irreparable brachial plexus injury (affecting the C5-C6 roots) and a flail shoulder but functional hand and elbow undergoes a glenohumeral arthrodesis. To maximize postoperative functional outcome, allowing the patient to reach his mouth and perineum, the arthrodesis should be secured in which of the following positions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 30 degrees of abduction, 30 degrees of flexion, and 30 degrees of internal rotation
Explanation
The optimal position for a shoulder arthrodesis is generally considered to be 20-30 degrees of abduction, 20-30 degrees of forward flexion, and 20-30 degrees of internal rotation. This position allows the hand to reach the mouth (via elbow flexion) and the back pocket/perineum, maximizing the functional workspace for activities of daily living.
Question 3312
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 35-year-old male falls from a ladder and sustains an elbow dislocation. Radiographs demonstrate a posterior elbow dislocation associated with a radial head fracture and a coronoid process fracture. What is the standard algorithmic sequence of surgical reconstruction for this injury pattern to restore elbow stability?
This patient has a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, and coronoid fracture). The standard surgical sequence proposed by Pugh and McKee is 1) Fixation or replacement of the coronoid (to restore the anterior buttress), 2) Repair or replacement of the radial head (to restore the anterior and lateral column), and 3) Repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex to its isometric origin on the lateral epicondyle. MCL repair is rarely necessary unless the elbow remains unstable in extension after the first three steps are completed.
Question 3313
Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis
A 72-year-old male is 2 years post-operative from a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). Routine radiographs reveal prominent inferior scapular notching.
Which of the following surgical techniques or implant choices during the index procedure would have best minimized the risk of developing this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior placement of the glenosphere
Explanation
Scapular notching is a common complication following Grammont-style reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, caused by mechanical impingement of the humeral component against the inferior scapular neck during adduction. Techniques to minimize scapular notching include inferior translation of the glenosphere (overhanging the inferior rim by 2-4 mm), inferior tilt of the glenosphere, and using lateralized components (either a lateralized glenosphere or bony-increased offset [BIO] RTSA) to increase clearance between the humeral metaphysis and the scapular neck.
Question 3314
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 25-year-old female presents with lateral elbow pain and a sensation of the elbow 'clunking' out of place when pushing herself up from a chair with her forearms supinated. Physical examination demonstrates apprehension and subluxation during a lateral pivot shift test. This condition is primarily caused by insufficiency of which ligamentous structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Annular ligament
Explanation
The patient's history and positive lateral pivot shift test are classic for posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow. PLRI is caused by insufficiency or rupture of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The LUCL originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the supinator crest of the ulna, acting as the primary restraint to varus and external rotation stress of the elbow.
Question 3315
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 22-year-old rugby player sustains a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. After reduction, he experiences recurrent instability.
An MR arthrogram demonstrates a 'J-sign' on the coronal oblique view with extravasation of contrast inferiorly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 'J-sign' on an MR arthrogram coronal oblique view is pathognomonic for a Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) lesion. Normally, the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) forms a U-shaped dependent pouch. When it avulses from its humeral attachment, the contrast extends inferiorly down the humeral shaft, converting the 'U' shape into a 'J' shape. Arthroscopically, this exposes the bare muscle belly of the subscapularis.
Question 3316
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old male undergoes a single-incision anterior approach repair for an acute distal biceps tendon rupture. Postoperatively, he has an excellent return of flexion and supination strength but complains of numbness and tingling radiating down the radial aspect of his volar forearm. Which nerve is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN), which is the terminal sensory branch of the musculocutaneous nerve, is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps tendon repair. It exits laterally from beneath the biceps muscle belly and courses distally in the subcutaneous tissue, making it highly susceptible to injury or retraction neuropraxia. In contrast, the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is more at risk during a two-incision approach or if dissection proceeds too far radially or if retractors are placed aggressively against the radius.
Question 3317
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 32-year-old male sustains a fall onto his extended arm and presents with an elbow injury. CT imaging reveals a fracture of the anteromedial facet of the coronoid process. This specific fracture pattern is highly associated with which of the following injury mechanisms and instability patterns?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Valgus overload and medial collateral ligament (MCL) rupture
Explanation
Fractures of the anteromedial facet of the coronoid (O'Driscoll Type 2) are pathognomonic for a varus posteromedial rotatory instability mechanism. As the elbow undergoes varus stress, the anteromedial facet of the coronoid impacts the medial trochlea, causing the fracture. This mechanism inevitably causes rupture of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex from the lateral epicondyle. Treatment often requires fixation of the anteromedial facet (to restore the medial buttress) and repair of the LCL.
Question 3318
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 12-year-old right-hand-dominant baseball pitcher presents with chronic medial elbow pain that worsens during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing.
Radiographs demonstrate widening and irregularity of the medial epicondyle apophysis. What is the primary pathophysiologic biomechanical mechanism responsible for this condition (Little Leaguer's elbow)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Repetitive varus stress leading to lateral compression
Explanation
Little Leaguer's elbow encompasses a spectrum of injuries in the skeletally immature overhead athlete, most classically medial epicondyle apophysitis. The biomechanical mechanism is repetitive valgus overload during the throwing motion, which creates excessive tensile stress across the medial elbow structures (causing traction apophysitis of the medial epicondyle) and simultaneous compressive stress across the lateral radiocapitellar joint (which can lead to osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum).
Question 3319
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 75-year-old female undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) for a highly comminuted, osteoporotic 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Despite surgical efforts, the tuberosities fail to heal to the shaft postoperatively. Compared to patients with healed tuberosities, what functional deficit is most prominent in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Severe limitation in active forward elevation
Explanation
In the setting of a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for a proximal humerus fracture, healing of the greater tuberosity is highly correlated with improved clinical outcomes. Because the deltoid is highly tensioned and mechanically advantaged by the RTSA construct, active forward elevation is generally preserved even if the tuberosities resorb. However, failure of the greater tuberosity (and attached infraspinatus/teres minor) to heal results in a significant deficit in active external rotation and lower patient satisfaction scores.
Question 3320
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 30-year-old male powerlifter feels a 'tearing' sensation in his anterior axilla while performing a one-rep max bench press. He presents with extensive ecchymosis, loss of the anterior axillary fold contour, and weakness in internal rotation and adduction. In a complete rupture of the pectoralis major during this specific athletic activity, which anatomic segment typically fails first?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Clavicular head
Explanation
Pectoralis major ruptures almost exclusively occur during eccentric loading, most commonly the bench press. Due to the 180-degree twist of the pectoralis major tendon at its insertion, the inferior fibers of the sternocostal head insert most superiorly on the humerus. During the eccentric phase of a bench press (shoulder extended, abducted, externally rotated), the inferior (sternal) fibers are placed under maximal stretch and tension, causing them to rupture first, followed by the superior (clavicular) head in a complete tear.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.