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Question 3281

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 58-year-old male weightlifter presents with advanced glenohumeral osteoarthritis. A CT scan reveals a biconcave glenoid with severe retroversion and posterior subluxation of the humeral head. According to the Walch classification, what type of glenoid morphology does this represent?

. Type A1
. Type A2
. Type B1
. Type B2
. Type C

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type A1


Explanation

In the Walch classification for glenohumeral arthritis, a Type B2 glenoid is characterized by a biconcave surface, asymmetric posterior wear, and posterior subluxation of the humeral head. This presents a significant challenge in anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty, often requiring eccentric reaming or augmented glenoid components.

Question 3282

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A patient undergoes surgical repair of an acute distal biceps tendon rupture using a single-incision anterior approach. Postoperatively, he complains of burning pain and numbness along the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the surgical exposure?

. Superficial radial nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial radial nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is a continuation of the musculocutaneous nerve and exits laterally in the distal arm. It lies in close proximity to the cephalic vein and the lateral border of the biceps tendon, making it highly susceptible to injury or traction neuropraxia during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps repair.

Question 3283

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

The anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament (AMCL) is the primary restraint to valgus instability of the elbow. What is the precise distal insertion site of the AMCL?

. Coronoid tip
. Anteromedial facet of the coronoid
. Sublime tubercle of the ulna
. Supinator crest
. Radial neck

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronoid tip


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the MCL originates on the anterior inferior surface of the medial epicondyle and inserts on the sublime tubercle, which is located on the medial aspect of the base of the coronoid process of the ulna.

Question 3284

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 14-year-old male baseball pitcher presents with lateral elbow pain and catching. Radiographs and MRI demonstrate a detached osteochondral fragment in the capitellum with an underlying fluid signal. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

. Panner disease
. Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the capitellum
. Little League elbow
. Radial head fracture
. Lateral epicondylitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Panner disease


Explanation

Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the capitellum typically occurs in adolescent throwing athletes (ages 12-16) and can progress to loose body formation and articular cartilage damage. Panner disease is an osteochondrosis of the entire capitellum seen in younger children (typically ages 7-10) and is generally self-limiting without loose body formation.

Question 3285

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

During a radial head arthroplasty for a comminuted radial head fracture, the surgeon inadvertently overstuffs the radiocapitellar joint by 4 mm. Which of the following biomechanical consequences is most likely to occur as a direct result of this technical error?

. Accelerated osteoarthritis of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ)
. Capitellar wear and asymmetric lateral widening of the ulnohumeral joint
. Medial collateral ligament attenuation and valgus instability
. Proximal migration of the radius
. Posterior interosseous nerve palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Accelerated osteoarthritis of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ)


Explanation

Overstuffing the radial head (>2 mm) leads to excessive contact pressures on the capitellum, causing accelerated capitellar wear, loss of terminal flexion/extension, and a 'hinging' effect that results in asymmetric lateral widening of the ulnohumeral joint space.

Question 3286

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 35-year-old female presents with shoulder weakness 3 months after a posterior triangle cervical lymph node biopsy. On physical examination, the shoulder exhibits lateral winging of the scapula when she abducts her arm. Injury to which nerve is responsible for this physical finding?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius. Iatrogenic injury in the posterior triangle of the neck leads to trapezius palsy, which characteristically presents as lateral winging of the scapula (the scapula translates laterally and downward). In contrast, long thoracic nerve injury causes medial winging.

Question 3287

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 45-year-old male laborer presents with acute anterior elbow pain and ecchymosis after attempting to lift a heavy box. Examination reveals a positive hook test. During a single-incision anterior surgical repair using suture anchors, which nerve is at the highest risk of injury?

. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Median nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABC) is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision distal biceps repair due to its proximity to the surgical field and cephalic vein.

Question 3288

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 62-year-old male presents with advanced glenohumeral osteoarthritis. CT scan reveals a retroverted biconcave glenoid (Walch B2) with 20 degrees of retroversion. He has an intact rotator cuff. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Hemiarthroplasty
. Total shoulder arthroplasty with an asymmetric (posteriorly augmented) glenoid component
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Arthroscopic debridement and biologic resurfacing
. Total shoulder arthroplasty with standard symmetric glenoid and anterior release

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hemiarthroplasty


Explanation

In patients with a Walch B2 glenoid and significant retroversion (>15 degrees), an augmented glenoid component or eccentric reaming in total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA) addresses the retroversion to prevent early posterior failure. Reverse TSA is typically reserved for cuff deficiency or older age with severe deformity.

Question 3289

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 35-year-old female presents with shoulder pain and weakness 4 weeks after a posterior cervical triangle lymph node biopsy. On examination, the affected shoulder droops, and the scapula rests lateral to the midline and wings when she abducts her arm. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius; injury in the posterior triangle causes lateral scapular winging and a drooping shoulder. Long thoracic nerve injury causes medial winging.

Question 3290

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 32-year-old female complains of a recurrent clicking and giving way of her elbow when pushing up from a chair. Physical examination demonstrates apprehension with the elbow supinated, axially loaded, and moving from extension into flexion. Which ligamentous structure is primarily deficient?

. Medial ulnar collateral ligament
. Annular ligament
. Radial collateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Oblique cord

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The patient has posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI), characterized by a positive pivot-shift test. This condition is caused by a deficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL).

Question 3291

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 75-year-old female with osteoporosis sustains a 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Radiographs show severe comminution of the calcar and the humeral head split into two fragments. What is the most reliable surgical option to restore active elevation?

. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Non-operative management with a sling

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the most reliable option for elderly patients with complex 4-part or head-split proximal humerus fractures, especially when tuberosity healing is unpredictable and bone quality is poor.

Question 3292

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 24-year-old manual worker presents with painful crepitus and snapping at the superomedial border of his scapula. Non-operative management has failed after 6 months. Imaging reveals a skeletal prominence at the superomedial angle. What is the anatomical name of this structure commonly responsible for this syndrome?

. Coracoid process
. Spine of the scapula
. Luschka's tubercle
. Infraglenoid tubercle
. Acromion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoid process


Explanation

Luschka's tubercle is an anatomic variant featuring an enlarged superomedial angle of the scapula. It is a classic bony cause of snapping scapula syndrome.

Question 3293

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 45-year-old male hears a pop in his anterior elbow while lifting a heavy box. On examination, he has a positive hook test. He undergoes a single-incision distal biceps tendon repair. Postoperatively, he complains of numbness along the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which structure was most likely injured during the surgical exposure?

. Radial nerve
. Median nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial nerve


Explanation

The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach to the distal biceps. It exits laterally between the biceps and brachialis muscles.

Question 3294

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 30-year-old male presents with lateral elbow pain and a clicking sensation when extending and supinating the elbow. He is diagnosed with posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) and is scheduled for ligament reconstruction. What are the correct isometric points for reconstructing the primary ligament deficient in this condition?

. Medial epicondyle to the sublime tubercle
. Lateral epicondyle to the supinator crest of the ulna
. Lateral epicondyle to the radial neck
. Capitellum to the radial tuberosity
. Olecranon to the lateral epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial epicondyle to the sublime tubercle


Explanation

PLRI is caused by insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The anatomic origin of the LUCL is the lateral epicondyle, and its insertion is on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna.

Question 3295

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) relies heavily on the deltoid muscle to compensate for a deficient rotator cuff. How does the standard Grammont-style rTSA alter glenohumeral biomechanics to achieve this?

. Lateralizes and elevates the center of rotation
. Medializes and distalizes the center of rotation
. Medializes and elevates the center of rotation
. Lateralizes and distalizes the center of rotation
. Maintains the anatomic center of rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateralizes and elevates the center of rotation


Explanation

The Grammont-style rTSA medializes and distalizes the center of rotation. This increases the deltoid moment arm and tension, allowing it to effectively elevate the arm in the absence of a functional rotator cuff.

Question 3296

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old overhead athlete presents with persistent anterior shoulder apprehension. Magnetic resonance arthrography (MRA) demonstrates a "J sign" with extravasation of contrast into the axillary pouch due to an avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the humeral neck. What is the eponymous term for this lesion?

. ALPSA lesion
. Bankart lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion
. Perthes lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA lesion


Explanation

A Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament (HAGL) lesion describes the tearing of the IGHL off the humeral neck. On MRI, the normal U-shaped axillary pouch drops into a "J" shape.

Question 3297

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 35-year-old female falls onto an outstretched hand. A lateral radiograph of the elbow demonstrates a "double arc sign." What specific injury does this radiographic finding indicate?

. Type I capitellum fracture (Hahn-Steinthal)
. Type IV capitellum fracture (McKee)
. Displaced radial head fracture
. Coronoid process shear fracture
. Comminuted olecranon fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I capitellum fracture (Hahn-Steinthal)


Explanation

The double arc sign on a lateral elbow radiograph indicates a capitellum fracture that extends medially to involve the lateral ridge of the trochlea, classified as a Type IV capitellum fracture (McKee modification).

Question 3298

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 45-year-old tennis player fails 12 months of conservative management for lateral epicondylitis. An open debridement of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) is planned. Topographically, where is the ECRB origin located relative to the extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL)?

. Superficial and distal
. Superficial and proximal
. Deep and distal
. Deep and proximal
. Anterior and proximal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial and distal


Explanation

The ECRB origin is located deep and distal to the ECRL origin. The ECRL originates higher up on the lateral supracondylar ridge.

Question 3299

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 68-year-old male with severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis undergoes preoperative planning for an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. A 3D CT scan reveals a Walch B2 glenoid with 22 degrees of retroversion and significant posterior subluxation. What is the most appropriate intraoperative management of the glenoid?

. Eccentric anterior reaming to neutral version
. High-side asymmetric reaming alone
. Posterior bone grafting or use of an augmented glenoid component
. Performance of a hemiarthroplasty instead
. Resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Eccentric anterior reaming to neutral version


Explanation

For glenoid retroversion exceeding 15 degrees, eccentric anterior reaming removes too much subchondral bone, risking catastrophic glenoid loosening. An augmented component or bone grafting is required to restore version.

Question 3300

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 35-year-old male develops medial scapular winging following a prolonged viral illness. Electromyography confirms neuropathy of the affected muscle's primary nerve. Which nerve roots predominantly supply this injured nerve?

. C3-C4
. C5-C6-C7
. C8-T1
. C5-C6
. C7-C8

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C3-C4


Explanation

Medial scapular winging is caused by serratus anterior paralysis secondary to long thoracic nerve injury. The long thoracic nerve is formed by the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7.