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Question 2661

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 24-year-old male sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation during a rugby match. After successful closed reduction, he is noted to have weakness in shoulder abduction and decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of his shoulder. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause of these findings?

. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve
. Long thoracic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during an anterior shoulder dislocation. It courses inferiorly to the glenohumeral joint capsule and wraps around the surgical neck of the humerus. Injury to the axillary nerve results in weakness of the deltoid and teres minor muscles (impairing shoulder abduction and external rotation) and decreased sensation over the lateral shoulder (regimental badge area) supplied by the superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm, a terminal branch of the axillary nerve.

Question 2662

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

In the standard deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the cephalic vein is identified within the interval. To minimize bleeding from venous tributaries, the cephalic vein is ideally retracted in which direction?

. Medially with the pectoralis major
. Laterally with the deltoid
. Superiorly with the clavicular head
. Inferiorly with the short head of the biceps
. It must be routinely ligated to prevent hematoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Laterally with the deltoid


Explanation

The cephalic vein receives a majority of its tributaries from the deltoid muscle. Retracting it laterally with the deltoid preserves these branches and reduces bleeding.

Question 2663

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow commonly occurs due to insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). What is the specific distal insertion site of the LUCL?

. Radial tuberosity
. Annular ligament
. Coronoid process
. Supinator crest of the ulna
. Olecranon tip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supinator crest of the ulna


Explanation

The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) originates at the lateral epicondyle and inserts distally on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. It acts as a stabilizing sling for the radial head, preventing posterolateral rotatory subluxation.

Question 2664

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A patient with subacromial impingement syndrome is scheduled for an arthroscopic subacromial decompression. The coracoacromial ligament is a key structure in the roof of the subacromial space. Which of the following is true regarding its anatomy?

. It connects two different bones to provide glenohumeral stability.
. It connects the coracoid process to the acromion, both being parts of the scapula.
. It prevents inferior translation of the humeral head.
. It originates from the lesser tuberosity and inserts on the acromion.
. It is the primary restraint to anterior shoulder dislocation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It connects the coracoid process to the acromion, both being parts of the scapula.


Explanation

The coracoacromial ligament forms the coracoacromial arch over the humeral head. Uniquely, it connects two parts of the same bone (the coracoid process and the acromion of the scapula) rather than bridging a joint.

Question 2665

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A patient presents with the inability to flex the interphalangeal joint of the thumb and the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger, but has normal upper extremity sensation. Which of the following muscles will likely also exhibit weakness on examination?

. Lumbricals to the index and long fingers
. Flexor carpi radialis
. Pronator quadratus
. Abductor pollicis brevis
. Opponens pollicis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronator quadratus


Explanation

The patient has an anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) palsy, presenting with weakness of the FPL and FDP to the index finger. The AIN also innervates the pronator quadratus, which can be tested by resisting forearm pronation with the elbow fully flexed.

Question 2666

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A collegiate baseball pitcher undergoes a Tommy John procedure (ulnar collateral ligament reconstruction). To correctly reconstruct the primary restraint to valgus stress, the graft must be anchored to the anatomical insertion of the anterior bundle of the MCL. What is this ulnar insertion site?

. Tip of the coronoid process
. Sublime tubercle
. Olecranon fossa
. Radial tuberosity
. Sigmoid notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sublime tubercle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow. It originates on the anterior-inferior aspect of the medial epicondyle and inserts on the sublime tubercle of the ulna.

Question 2667

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A patient presents with scapular winging and inability to efficiently retract the scapula. EMG reveals a lesion isolated to the dorsal scapular nerve. Which of the following muscles are primarily affected?

. Serratus anterior
. Latissimus dorsi
. Rhomboid major and levator scapulae
. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Teres major and minor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rhomboid major and levator scapulae


Explanation

The dorsal scapular nerve arises from the C5 root of the brachial plexus and innervates the rhomboid major, rhomboid minor, and the levator scapulae. Denervation leads to weakness in scapular retraction and elevation.

Question 2668

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A patient sustains a deep penetrating injury immediately anterior to the anterior scalene muscle in the lower neck. Which of the following structures is most likely injured in this specific location?

. Subclavian artery
. Subclavian vein
. Upper trunk of the brachial plexus
. Middle trunk of the brachial plexus
. Long thoracic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subclavian vein


Explanation

The subclavian vein passes anterior to the anterior scalene muscle. In contrast, the subclavian artery and the roots/trunks of the brachial plexus pass through the interscalene triangle, which is located between the anterior and middle scalene muscles.

Question 2669

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

Which of the following is the primary anatomic footprint for the distal attachment of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)?

. Radial tuberosity
. Sublime tubercle
. Supinator crest of the ulna
. Coronoid process
. Annular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supinator crest of the ulna


Explanation

The LUCL originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. It acts as the primary restraint to posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow.

Question 2670

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

An anatomic repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture requires reattachment to its native footprint. Which of the following best describes the normal anatomical insertion of the distal biceps tendon?

. Anterior aspect of the radial tuberosity
. Posterior-ulnar aspect of the radial tuberosity
. Coronoid process of the ulna
. Brachialis tuberosity
. Interosseous crest of the radius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior-ulnar aspect of the radial tuberosity


Explanation

The distal biceps tendon inserts onto the posterior-ulnar aspect of the radial tuberosity. This specific anatomical location maximizes its mechanical advantage as a supinator of the forearm.

Question 2671

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A patient develops posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow following a dislocation. The primary deficient structure originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on which of the following structures?

. Radial tuberosity
. Coronoid process of the ulna
. Supinator crest of the ulna
. Radial head
. Tip of the olecranon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supinator crest of the ulna


Explanation

PLRI is caused by deficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The LUCL originates from the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the supinator crest of the ulna, acting as the primary restraint to posterolateral subluxation of the radial head.

Question 2672

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 32-year-old man presents with chronic elbow instability. Examination reveals apprehension during supination, valgus stress, and axial loading of the elbow. Which structure is most likely deficient, and what is its normal anatomic insertion site?

. Ulnar collateral ligament; sublime tubercle
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament; supinator crest of the ulna
. Annular ligament; radial notch of the ulna
. Radial collateral ligament; annular ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament; sublime tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament; supinator crest of the ulna


Explanation

The patient's clinical presentation is classic for posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI), which is caused by deficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The LUCL originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the supinator crest of the ulna.

Question 2673

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 20-year-old collegiate javelin thrower is evaluated for medial elbow pain. The moving valgus stress test is highly positive at 90 degrees of flexion.

Which specific structure is the primary restraint to valgus stress at this angle of elbow flexion?

. Posterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Transverse bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
. Radial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. The posterior bundle is a secondary restraint.

Question 2674

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher is diagnosed with a Type II superior labrum anterior and posterior (SLAP) tear. During which phase of throwing does the 'peel-back' mechanism place maximal strain on the biceps anchor?

. Wind-up
. Early cocking
. Late cocking
. Acceleration
. Follow-through

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Late cocking


Explanation

The 'peel-back' mechanism occurs during the late cocking phase of throwing when the shoulder is in maximum abduction and external rotation. This position causes a posterior and inferior shift of the biceps vector, peeling the labrum off the glenoid.

Question 2675

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction of the elbow, the graft is typically anchored to the anatomic footprints. The anterior bundle of the UCL originates from the anteroinferior medial epicondyle and inserts onto the:

. Sublime tubercle of the coronoid process
. Olecranon process
. Radial head
. Annular ligament
. Supinator crest

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sublime tubercle of the coronoid process


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow and inserts onto the sublime tubercle, located on the medial aspect of the coronoid process.

Question 2676

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain and decreased velocity. Pain is most severe during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. Which bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) is most likely injured and serves as the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of flexion?

. Anterior bundle
. Posterior bundle
. Transverse bundle
. Oblique bundle
. Radiocapitellar ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at the elbow, particularly between 30 and 120 degrees of flexion. It is most vulnerable during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing.

Question 2677

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 30-year-old overhead athlete undergoes an arthroscopic Type II SLAP repair. Six months postoperatively, he complains of persistent pain and a significant loss of external rotation. What is the most common iatrogenic cause of this complication?

. Suprascapular nerve entrapment
. Overtightening of the posterior capsule
. Inadvertent tenodesis of the long head of the biceps
. Anterior-inferior anchor placement capturing the middle glenohumeral ligament
. Missed posterior labral tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior-inferior anchor placement capturing the middle glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

Capturing the anterosuperior capsule or the middle glenohumeral ligament (MGHL) during a SLAP repair can severely restrict external rotation. Suture anchors must be placed meticulously to avoid tethering these essential anterior stabilizing structures.

Question 2678

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain during the late cocking phase of throwing and a decrease in velocity. Physical examination reveals a positive moving valgus stress test. An MRI arthrogram demonstrates a partial thickness tear of the UCL. Which bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 90 degrees of flexion?

. Posterior bundle
. Transverse bundle
. Anterior band of the anterior bundle
. Posterior band of the anterior bundle
. Accessory collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior band of the anterior bundle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress. Within it, the anterior band is tightest in extension, whereas the posterior band is the primary restraint at 60 to 90 degrees of flexion.

Question 2679

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 35-year-old heavy laborer sustains an acute distal biceps tendon rupture. During a single-incision anterior repair using cortical button fixation, the surgeon must be particularly careful to protect which of the following nerves as it pierces the supinator muscle?

. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior interosseous nerve


Explanation

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) courses through the arcade of Frohse into the supinator muscle. It is at significant risk during the drilling and placement of a cortical button in single-incision distal biceps repairs.

Question 2680

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 21-year-old collegiate swimmer complains of anterior shoulder pain. On examination, there is a positive O'Brien's test. During arthroscopy, an anterosuperior labral variant is noted where the labrum is absent from the 1 to 3 o'clock position with a cord-like middle glenohumeral ligament. What is the appropriate management of this anatomic variant?

. SLAP repair with suture anchors
. Biceps tenodesis
. Debridement of the middle glenohumeral ligament
. No operative intervention
. Remplissage procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. No operative intervention


Explanation

The described finding is a Buford complex, a normal anatomic variant. It should be left alone, as attempting to repair the cord-like middle glenohumeral ligament to the glenoid will severely restrict external rotation.