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Question 2641

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 32-year-old competitive weightlifter feels a sudden "pop" in his anterior shoulder while performing a heavy bench press. Examination demonstrates an asymmetric chest wall with loss of the anterior axillary fold. If surgical repair is performed to restore function, to which anatomic footprint should the torn tendon be reattached?

. Medial lip of the bicipital groove
. Lateral lip of the bicipital groove
. Lesser tuberosity
. Coracoid process
. Sublime tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral lip of the bicipital groove


Explanation

The patient has ruptured the pectoralis major tendon. The anatomic insertion of the pectoralis major is on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove. Surgical repair to this footprint is indicated in young, active patients.

Question 2642

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 28-year-old man sustains a blunt trauma to the posterior triangle of the neck. He presents with an inability to comfortably abduct his arm above 90 degrees and a drooping shoulder. Examination shows prominent lateral scapular winging. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve


Explanation

The spinal accessory nerve innervates the trapezius muscle. Injury to this nerve leads to a drooping shoulder and lateral scapular winging. Medial scapular winging is caused by serratus anterior paralysis (long thoracic nerve).

Question 2643

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During the physical examination of a patient with insidious onset of shoulder pain, which of the following findings is the most reliable clinical indicator to differentiate early "freezing" stage adhesive capsulitis from rotator cuff impingement syndrome?

. Pain elicited by the Neer impingement test
. Weakness in resisted internal rotation
. Significant limitation in passive external rotation with the arm at the side
. A positive O'Brien active compression test
. Localized pain over the acromioclavicular joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Significant limitation in passive external rotation with the arm at the side


Explanation

A hallmark of adhesive capsulitis is a global restriction of both active and passive range of motion. A significant loss of passive external rotation with the arm at the side is the most consistent and defining early physical exam finding compared to impingement syndrome.

Question 2644

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 38-year-old overhead athlete presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and paresthesias over the lateral deltoid. MRI of the shoulder reveals isolated fatty atrophy of the teres minor muscle. Which vascular structure passes through the exact same anatomical space as the compromised nerve?

. Circumflex scapular artery
. Anterior humeral circumflex artery
. Posterior humeral circumflex artery
. Suprascapular artery
. Profunda brachii artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior humeral circumflex artery


Explanation

The patient has quadrilateral space syndrome, which involves compression of the axillary nerve and the posterior humeral circumflex artery. It typically presents with teres minor atrophy and lateral shoulder sensory changes.

Question 2645

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

In the surgical technique of reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, which of the following glenoid baseplate configurations has been most strongly associated with a decreased incidence of inferior scapular notching?

. Superior tilt and medialization
. Inferior tilt and lateralization
. Superior tilt and lateralization
. Neutral tilt and medialization
. Superior translation of the baseplate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior tilt and lateralization


Explanation

Scapular notching is a well-known complication of reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. Placing the baseplate with an inferior tilt and lateralizing the glenosphere helps clear the inferior scapular neck and significantly reduces mechanical impingement.

Question 2646

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 70-year-old female presents with severe shoulder pain and pseudoparalysis. Radiographs show superior migration of the humeral head and glenohumeral osteoarthritis. She undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). Postoperatively, she has persistent external rotation weakness and a positive hornblower's sign. Which of the following preoperative factors most likely predicts this specific postoperative deficit?

. Teres minor fatty infiltration
. Subscapularis fatty infiltration
. Supraspinatus tendon retraction
. Biceps tendon rupture
. Coracoacromial ligament deficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres minor fatty infiltration


Explanation

In reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, the deltoid compensates for elevation, but external rotation heavily depends on the teres minor. Severe teres minor fatty infiltration (grade 3 or 4) preoperatively predicts poor external rotation recovery and persistent hornblower's sign postoperatively.

Question 2647

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 75-year-old female sustains a comminuted 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Due to her age, poor bone quality, and comminution, she is treated with a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) rather than open reduction and internal fixation. Compared to hemiarthroplasty for this indication, RTSA is associated with:

. Higher reliance on tuberosity healing for forward elevation
. More predictable and reliable active forward elevation
. Lower risk of scapular notching
. Greater improvement in internal rotation
. Shorter operative time and lower blood loss

Correct Answer & Explanation

. More predictable and reliable active forward elevation


Explanation

RTSA provides more predictable pain relief and active forward elevation compared to hemiarthroplasty for complex proximal humerus fractures in the elderly, as its function does not strictly rely on tuberosity healing. However, hemiarthroplasty may offer better rotation if the tuberosities heal anatomically.

Question 2648

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 68-year-old man presents with insidious onset of shoulder stiffness and mild pain two years after an anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty. Inflammatory markers (ESR, CRP) are normal. Aspiration yields no growth at 3 days. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosing a potential Cutibacterium acnes infection?

. Repeat aspiration and hold cultures for 14-21 days
. Immediate single-stage revision arthroplasty
. Empiric treatment with intravenous vancomycin
. Diagnostic arthroscopy with synovectomy
. Treat non-operatively for adhesive capsulitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Repeat aspiration and hold cultures for 14-21 days


Explanation

Cutibacterium acnes is a slow-growing, indolent, anaerobic organism commonly responsible for late periprosthetic shoulder infections. Cultures must be held for 14 to 21 days to reliably detect and isolate this organism.

Question 2649

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 52-year-old female with type 1 diabetes presents with progressive shoulder stiffness and pain over 5 months. She has lost significant active and passive range of motion, particularly in external rotation. She is diagnosed with adhesive capsulitis in the "freezing" phase. What is the characteristic histologic finding in the joint capsule of this condition?
. Extensive acute neutrophilic infiltration
. Monosodium urate crystal deposition
. Fibroblastic proliferation and dense type III collagen accumulation
. Hyaline cartilage necrosis
. Giant cell granulomas with central caseation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibroblastic proliferation and dense type III collagen accumulation


Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis is characterized by synovial inflammation followed by dense capsular fibrosis. Histologically, it demonstrates fibroblastic proliferation and an accumulation of type III collagen, sharing similarities with Dupuytren's disease.

Question 2650

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 40-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motorcycle accident and sustains an intra-articular glenoid fracture. Operative intervention is typically indicated for an intra-articular step-off greater than:

. 1 mm
. 4 mm
. 10 mm
. 15 mm
. 20 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 4 mm


Explanation

Surgical fixation for intra-articular glenoid fractures is generally indicated if there is a step-off of 4 mm or greater to prevent post-traumatic glenohumeral arthritis. Other indications include significant instability or greater than 25% anterior bone loss.

Question 2651

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 48-year-old female presents with sudden, agonizing right shoulder pain over the past 24 hours. She has no history of trauma. Radiographs reveal a large, fluffy, amorphous calcific deposit in the supraspinatus tendon. She is in the resorptive phase of calcific tendinitis. Which of the following biologic environments is responsible for the intense pain during this phase?

. Cartilage metaplasia creating a rigid intratendinous block
. Macrophage-mediated phagocytosis and vascular proliferation
. Dense collagen type I synthesis compressing local nerve endings
. Osteoclastic activity resulting in focal bone erosion at the footprint
. Anaerobic bacterial fermentation producing local lactic acid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Macrophage-mediated phagocytosis and vascular proliferation


Explanation

The resorptive phase of calcific tendinitis is extremely painful due to intense inflammatory cascades, neovascularization, and macrophage-mediated phagocytosis. During this phase, the body attempts to break down and resorb the calcium deposit, which appears fluffy on radiographs.

Question 2652

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. At her 2-year follow-up, radiographs show grade 2 scapular notching. Which of the following implant configurations or surgical techniques is most closely associated with a decreased incidence of scapular notching?

. Superior placement of the glenosphere
. Medialization of the center of rotation without inferior tilt
. Inferior translation and inferior tilt of the glenosphere
. Decreased humeral neck-shaft angle combined with a superiorly placed glenosphere
. Using a smaller diameter glenosphere

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior translation and inferior tilt of the glenosphere


Explanation

Inferior placement and inferior tilt of the glenosphere in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty decrease the risk of scapular notching. Lateralization of the glenosphere and a decreased humeral neck-shaft angle also help reduce impingement.

Question 2653

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 21-year-old collegiate pitcher complains of vague posterior shoulder pain. Physical examination shows a 25-degree loss of internal rotation and a 15-degree gain of external rotation compared to the contralateral side. Total arc of motion is decreased by 10 degrees. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic posterior capsular release
. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Sleeper stretch and cross-body adduction stretches
. Anterior capsulorrhaphy
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sleeper stretch and cross-body adduction stretches


Explanation

Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) involves a loss of internal rotation with a contracted posterior inferior capsule. Initial management is always nonoperative, emphasizing posteroinferior capsular stretching.

Question 2654

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 45-year-old woman presents with right shoulder weakness following a lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of the neck. On examination, the affected scapula is laterally translated and there is a droop of the shoulder. She has difficulty abducting her arm past 90 degrees. Which nerve is injured?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve


Explanation

Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) injury, often iatrogenic from posterior triangle neck surgery, denervates the trapezius, leading to lateral scapular winging. Long thoracic nerve injury causes medial winging.

Question 2655

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 62-year-old woman with severe rheumatoid arthritis is undergoing total shoulder arthroplasty. Preoperative radiographs and CT show central glenoid wear with medialization of the joint line. The rotator cuff is intact. Which of the following components of the surgical technique is most important to optimize outcomes and component longevity?

. Using a keeled glenoid component without bone grafting
. Lateralizing the glenosphere
. Correction of glenoid retroversion and medialization with eccentric reaming or bone grafting
. Performing a superior capsular reconstruction simultaneously
. Using a hemiarthroplasty instead of total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Correction of glenoid retroversion and medialization with eccentric reaming or bone grafting


Explanation

In patients with RA and central glenoid wear, restoring the anatomic joint line and correcting version is critical for TSA longevity. This may require bone grafting or augmented glenoid components to prevent altered rotator cuff mechanics and early loosening.

Question 2656

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Figure 15 shows the radiograph of a 72-year-old woman with an acute 4-part proximal humerus fracture and significant osteoporosis. She has a history of pseudoparalysis prior to the injury. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Nonoperative management in a sling
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locked plate
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

In elderly patients with poor bone quality and a 4-part proximal humerus fracture (especially with pre-existing pseudoparalysis), reverse total shoulder arthroplasty yields more predictable functional outcomes. It relies on deltoid function rather than rotator cuff tuberosity healing, which frequently fails in hemiarthroplasty.

Question 2657

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

Figure 9 shows the AP radiograph of a 74-year-old male with chronic right shoulder pain, pseudoparalysis, and limited active forward elevation to 45 degrees. The radiograph reveals superior migration of the humeral head and acetabularization of the acromion. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

The radiograph and clinical presentation describe rotator cuff tear arthropathy. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the gold standard for this condition, using the deltoid to restore elevation and stability by medializing the center of rotation.

Question 2658

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 35-year-old female presents with aching shoulder pain and fatigue when working overhead. Physical examination demonstrates medial winging of the scapula that is accentuated when she pushes against a wall. Which nerve and corresponding muscle are primarily affected?

. Spinal accessory nerve; Trapezius
. Long thoracic nerve; Serratus anterior
. Dorsal scapular nerve; Rhomboids
. Suprascapular nerve; Supraspinatus
. Thoracodorsal nerve; Latissimus dorsi

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve; Serratus anterior


Explanation

Medial winging of the scapula, accentuated by wall push-ups, indicates serratus anterior dysfunction caused by a long thoracic nerve palsy. In contrast, lateral winging is typically associated with spinal accessory nerve and trapezius palsy.

Question 2659

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 52-year-old female presents with progressive, severe shoulder stiffness and diffuse pain over the past 4 months. Examination shows significant loss of both active and passive range of motion, particularly external rotation. Which of the following systemic conditions is most strongly associated with the development of this pathology?

. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Hypothyroidism
. Diabetes mellitus
. Chronic kidney disease
. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Diabetes mellitus


Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) is heavily associated with diabetes mellitus, affecting up to 20% of diabetic patients. These patients typically experience a longer clinical course and higher rates of recurrence compared to the general population.

Question 2660

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
Figure 10 shows the axillary radiograph of a 68-year-old male 7 years post-anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty, who presents with increasing pain. The radiograph demonstrates radiolucent lines >2 mm around the entirety of the glenoid component. Which underlying factor is most predictive of early glenoid component loosening?
. Use of a keeled rather than pegged glenoid
. Uncorrected posterior glenoid retroversion
. Subscapularis repair failure
. Over-reaming of the humeral head
. Anterior glenohumeral instability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Uncorrected posterior glenoid retroversion


Explanation

Failure to correct posterior glenoid retroversion (such as in a Walch B2 glenoid) during anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty results in eccentric posterior loading. This eccentric loading, or "rocking horse" effect, is a leading cause of early glenoid component loosening.