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Question 2161

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 40-year-old man presents with right shoulder weakness 3 weeks after a motor vehicle collision. He complains of pain at the base of his neck and shoulder. On physical examination, forward flexion of the arm against resistance results in medial translation and prominent winging of the scapula. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause?

. Spinal accessory nerve
. Long thoracic nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve


Explanation

Injury to the long thoracic nerve results in serratus anterior palsy, characterized by medial winging of the scapula. Spinal accessory nerve injury affecting the trapezius causes lateral winging.

Question 2162

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 74-year-old man presents with pseudoparalysis of the right shoulder and severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis.

Which of the following biomechanical changes is achieved by the most appropriate surgical treatment for this condition?

. Lateralization and superior migration of the center of rotation
. Medialization and inferiorization of the center of rotation
. Medialization and superior migration of the center of rotation
. Lateralization and inferiorization of the center of rotation
. Anatomic restoration of the native center of rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateralization and superior migration of the center of rotation


Explanation

The patient has cuff tear arthropathy, which is best treated with a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). RTSA medializes and inferiorizes the center of rotation, thereby increasing the deltoid moment arm and tension.

Question 2163

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 28-year-old woman presents with isolated lateral scapular winging that worsens when she abducts her arm against resistance. She had a cervical lymph node biopsy 3 months ago. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Eden-Lange procedure
. Pectoralis major transfer
. Split pectoralis minor transfer
. Physical therapy and observation for up to 1 year
. Immediate exploration and nerve grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Eden-Lange procedure


Explanation

The presentation is consistent with a spinal accessory nerve injury (trapezius palsy causing lateral winging) following a neck biopsy. Initial management for presumed neuropraxic injuries is observation and physical therapy to maintain ROM for up to 1 year.

Question 2164

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, the surgeon evaluates the long head of the biceps tendon for instability. Which of the following structures forms the primary medial restraint to medial subluxation of the biceps tendon within the bicipital groove?

. Superior glenohumeral ligament and coracohumeral ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament and supraspinatus tendon
. Transverse humeral ligament
. Pectoralis major tendon
. Middle glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior glenohumeral ligament and coracohumeral ligament


Explanation

The primary medial restraints to the long head of the biceps tendon are the superior glenohumeral ligament (SGHL) and the coracohumeral ligament (CHL), which together form a reflection pulley sling around the tendon.

Question 2165

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old man presents with pseudoparalysis of the shoulder and chronic massive, irreparable tears of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. His teres minor and subscapularis are intact. Radiographs show severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis with superior migration of the humeral head. What is the treatment of choice?

. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Arthroscopic superior capsule reconstruction
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is the treatment of choice for rotator cuff arthropathy with pseudoparalysis. It medializes and distalizes the center of rotation, allowing the deltoid to effectively elevate the arm.

Question 2166

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 28-year-old tennis player complains of shoulder weakness. On examination, there is lateral winging of the scapula, especially with attempted shoulder abduction. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

Lateral winging of the scapula is caused by trapezius dysfunction, which is innervated by the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI). Medial winging is caused by serratus anterior dysfunction, innervated by the long thoracic nerve.

Question 2167

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 75-year-old female presents with chronic right shoulder pain, inability to actively elevate her arm past 40 degrees, and normal passive range of motion. Radiographs demonstrate severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis with superior migration of the humeral head articulating with the acromion. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Superior capsular reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the gold standard for rotator cuff tear arthropathy with pseudoparalysis. It medializes and distalizes the center of rotation, allowing the deltoid to effectively elevate the arm.

Question 2168

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 68-year-old female sustains a comminuted 4-part proximal humerus fracture after a ground-level fall. She has poor bone quality and severe comminution of the tuberosities.

Which of the following treatments provides the most predictable improvement in forward elevation?

. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Nonoperative management with a sling

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty provides more predictable functional outcomes in elderly patients with complex 4-part fractures and poor bone quality, as it relies less on tuberosity healing for overhead function compared to hemiarthroplasty or ORIF.

Question 2169

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

Which of the following glenoid morphologies (Walch classification) in the setting of primary osteoarthritis is characterized by a biconcave surface and posterior subluxation of the humeral head, and carries the highest risk of early glenoid component loosening in anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty?

. Type A1
. Type A2
. Type B1
. Type B2
. Type C

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type A1


Explanation

The Walch B2 glenoid is characterized by a biconcave articular surface and posterior subluxation of the humeral head. Uncorrected posterior retroversion leads to eccentric loading and early failure of the glenoid component in anatomic TSA.

Question 2170

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 30-year-old competitive weightlifter felt a sudden "pop" in his anterior shoulder while performing a heavy bench press. He now has significant ecchymosis on his proximal arm and loss of the anterior axillary fold contour. The vast majority of these injuries occur at which anatomic location?

. Avulsion from the sternum
. Avulsion from the clavicle
. Tear at the musculotendinous junction
. Tear at the humeral insertion
. Tear within the muscle belly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avulsion from the sternum


Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures in weightlifters almost exclusively occur at or near the humeral insertion. Early surgical repair yields the best return of strength and cosmesis in active patients.

Question 2171

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A 45-year-old female underwent a lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of her neck 3 weeks ago. She now complains of a severe ache in her shoulder and difficulty lifting her arm overhead. Physical examination reveals lateral winging of the scapula. Which nerve was most likely injured?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

The spinal accessory nerve innervates the trapezius and is vulnerable during procedures in the posterior cervical triangle. Its injury causes lateral scapular winging, whereas long thoracic nerve injury causes medial winging.

Question 2172

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 50-year-old female with poorly controlled type II diabetes presents with an insidious onset of severe diffuse shoulder pain and a profound loss of both active and passive motion, particularly external rotation. Radiographs are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Calcific tendinitis
. Posterior shoulder dislocation
. Adhesive capsulitis
. Rotator cuff tear
. Glenohumeral osteoarthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcific tendinitis


Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) classically presents with a painful, global loss of both active and passive range of motion, with normal radiographs. Diabetes mellitus is a major risk factor for this condition.

Question 2173

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 78-year-old female with osteoporosis sustains a highly comminuted 4-part proximal humerus fracture with a split humeral head.

What is the most appropriate surgical management to maximize her functional outcome?

. Sling immobilization and early passive range of motion
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sling immobilization and early passive range of motion


Explanation

In elderly patients with complex 4-part fractures or head-splitting variants, reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) provides more predictable pain relief and functional restoration than ORIF or hemiarthroplasty. RTSA relies on the deltoid rather than the often unpredictable healing of osteoporotic tuberosities.

Question 2174

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 75-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm above 45 degrees. Radiographs demonstrate an acromiohumeral distance of 3 mm. MRI reveals massive, retracted tears of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with grade 4 fatty infiltration, while the subscapularis and deltoid are intact. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Superior capsular reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for elderly patients with cuff tear arthropathy or massive irreparable rotator cuff tears with pseudoparalysis. Anatomic TSA is contraindicated due to the deficient rotator cuff, which would lead to eccentric glenoid wear.

Question 2175

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 45-year-old woman undergoes arthroscopy for persistent anterior shoulder pain. The surgeon notes medial subluxation of the long head of the biceps tendon and a tear of the coracohumeral ligament. Which of the following additional structures must be torn to allow this biceps subluxation?

. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Transverse humeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Middle glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

The biceps pulley stabilizes the long head of the biceps in the bicipital groove. It is primarily formed by the superior glenohumeral ligament (SGHL) and the coracohumeral ligament (CHL), along with the upper fibers of the subscapularis.

Question 2176

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 68-year-old woman with severe osteoporosis sustains a 4-part proximal humerus fracture with a head-split component. She is functionally independent and active. What is the most appropriate treatment to optimize her functional outcome and minimize complications?

. Nonoperative management with a sling
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonoperative management with a sling


Explanation

In elderly patients with poor bone quality and complex fractures (like a 4-part head-split), reverse total shoulder arthroplasty provides a more reliable and predictable functional outcome compared to ORIF or hemiarthroplasty, primarily because it does not rely on tuberosity healing for overhead function.

Question 2177

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 25-year-old man presents with an acute anterior shoulder dislocation. After reduction, an MR arthrogram reveals disruption of the inferior glenohumeral ligament at its insertion onto the anatomic neck of the humerus, with contrast leaking into the axillary pouch. What is this lesion called?

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. HAGL lesion
. GLAD lesion
. Perthes lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bankart lesion


Explanation

A HAGL (Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament) lesion involves the avulsion of the IGHL complex from the humeral neck. This creates a classic 'J-sign' on MR arthrography as the normal U-shaped axillary pouch is disrupted.

Question 2178

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During biomechanical testing of the glenohumeral joint, which capsuloligamentous structure is the primary restraint to anterior translation when the arm is positioned in 90 degrees of abduction and maximum external rotation?

. Coracohumeral ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracohumeral ligament


Explanation

The anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) complex is the primary static restraint to anterior, inferior, and posterior translation of the humeral head at 90 degrees of abduction.

Question 2179

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 75-year-old female sustains a comminuted 4-part proximal humerus fracture with severe osteoporosis and poor tuberosity bone quality. What is the most reliable surgical option to restore active elevation?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Percutaneous pinning
. Intramedullary nailing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is favored in the elderly with 4-part fractures and poor bone quality because functional outcomes rely on deltoid function rather than reliable tuberosity healing.

Question 2180

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

In a patient with a massive, chronic rotator cuff tear, which structure becomes the primary static restraint to anterosuperior translation of the humeral head?

. Coracohumeral ligament
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Long head of the biceps
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracohumeral ligament


Explanation

The coracoacromial (CA) ligament acts as the primary restraint to anterosuperior humeral head escape in a rotator cuff deficient shoulder. It should never be routinely sectioned or released in these patients.