This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 9. Shoulder and Elbow. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2141
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
During a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the cephalic vein is identified. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the cephalic vein to preserve its primary venous drainage?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Retract medially with the pectoralis major
Explanation
The cephalic vein is typically retracted laterally with the deltoid to preserve its major tributaries. The primary venous tributaries to the cephalic vein in this region arise from the deltoid muscle.
Question 2142
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A patient presents with winging of the scapula and an inability to elevate the shoulder above 90 degrees following a diagnostic lymph node biopsy in the posterior cervical triangle. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Long thoracic nerve
Explanation
The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) runs superficially in the posterior cervical triangle, putting it at risk during biopsies. Injury leads to trapezius paralysis, resulting in lateral scapular winging and weakness in shoulder abduction/elevation.
Question 2143
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A patient exhibits marked lateral winging of the scapula following a lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of the neck. The patient struggles to abduct the shoulder past 90 degrees. Which nerve was most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Long thoracic nerve
Explanation
The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius and is frequently injured during procedures in the posterior cervical triangle. Palsy results in lateral winging of the scapula and profound weakness in overhead shoulder abduction.
Question 2144
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
During a Bankart repair, the surgeon must address the essential capsulolabral lesion. Which of the following structures serves as the primary static restraint to anterior translation of the humeral head when the shoulder is positioned in 90 degrees of abduction and maximal external rotation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
Explanation
The anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) complex is the primary static restraint against anterior translation of the humeral head when the arm is in the abducted and externally rotated "apprehension" position.
Question 2145
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
During a standard deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the cephalic vein is identified in the interval. To optimally preserve its venous drainage, what is the standard recommended handling of this structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Retract it medially with the pectoralis major
Explanation
The cephalic vein is typically retracted laterally with the deltoid muscle during the deltopectoral approach. This preserves the primary venous tributaries which enter the vein from the lateral side.
Question 2146
Topic: Shoulder Pathology
A patient sustains an injury resulting in medial winging of the scapula. Which nerve is injured, and what are its correct nerve root origins?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinal accessory nerve, CN XI
Explanation
Medial scapular winging is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. This nerve originates from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7.
Question 2147
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague dominant shoulder pain. Examination reveals glenohumeral internal rotation of 20 degrees and external rotation of 125 degrees. Total arc of motion is symmetric to the non-throwing shoulder. Nonoperative management for this specific deficit should prioritize stretching of which anatomical structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior capsule
Explanation
This presentation describes Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD), common in overhead throwing athletes and primarily caused by posteroinferior capsular contracture. Treatment focuses on stretching the posterior capsule, often utilizing 'sleeper stretches'.
Question 2148
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 28-year-old bodybuilder feels a tearing sensation in his anterior shoulder while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals a loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. If surgical repair is planned, the sternal head of the pectoralis major must be recognized to insert on the humerus at what position relative to the clavicular head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal and deep
Explanation
The pectoralis major tendon twists 180 degrees before its insertion on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove. Due to this twist, the sternal head inserts proximal and deep relative to the clavicular head.
Question 2149
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 22-year-old baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination shows 130 degrees of external rotation and 20 degrees of internal rotation. The contralateral non-dominant shoulder has 100 degrees of external rotation and 50 degrees of internal rotation. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
Explanation
This patient has Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD), commonly caused by posterior capsular contracture in overhead athletes. The initial and most effective management is a targeted posterior stretching program (e.g., sleeper stretches).
Question 2150
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 65-year-old female presents with pseudoparalysis of the shoulder, severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis, and a massive, retracted, irreparable rotator cuff tear. Her deltoid function is completely intact. What is the most reliable surgical option to restore function and relieve pain?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is the gold standard treatment for older patients with cuff tear arthropathy and pseudoparalysis. It constrains the center of rotation and relies on the intact deltoid to elevate the arm.
Question 2151
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 60-year-old man undergoes arthroscopic evaluation for an irreparable rotator cuff tear and undergoes a biceps tenotomy. Compared to a biceps tenodesis, tenotomy is associated with a higher rate of which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior shoulder pain
Explanation
Biceps tenotomy carries a higher rate of cosmetic deformity (the 'Popeye' muscle appearance) and subjective muscle cramping compared to tenodesis. Both procedures provide similar levels of pain relief.
Question 2152
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 72-year-old female presents with severe shoulder pseudoparalysis. Radiographs show advanced glenohumeral osteoarthritis with superior migration of the humeral head abutting the acromion. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic massive rotator cuff repair
Explanation
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the definitive treatment for rotator cuff tear arthropathy with pseudoparalysis. It medializes and distalizes the center of rotation, allowing the deltoid to elevate the arm without a functioning cuff.
Question 2153
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 50-year-old female with poorly controlled diabetes presents with severe shoulder stiffness and night pain. Passive and active external rotation are equally and severely restricted. What is the primary pathophysiologic hallmark of her condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Degeneration of the articular cartilage
Explanation
Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) is characterized by fibroblastic proliferation, profound capsular thickening, and fibrosis, particularly involving the coracohumeral ligament and rotator interval.
Question 2154
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
An 8-year-old boy is evaluated for a cosmetic deformity of his elbow three years after sustaining a supracondylar humerus fracture that was treated nonoperatively. He has full range of motion and normal neurology. What is the most common long-term deformity following this injury, and what is its primary functional consequence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cubitus valgus leading to delayed ulnar neuropathy
Explanation
Cubitus varus (gunstock deformity) is the most common malunion following a pediatric supracondylar humerus fracture. It is primarily a cosmetic deformity that rarely causes functional impairment or tardy nerve palsies.
Question 2155
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 9-year-old boy healed from a supracondylar humerus fracture sustained at age 5 but developed a prominent cubitus varus deformity. Which of the following statements regarding cubitus varus following supracondylar humerus fractures is true?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It typically results from a growth arrest of the lateral condyle physis.
Explanation
Cubitus varus ("gunstock deformity") is usually caused by malunion (internal rotation and medial tilt), not growth arrest. While cosmetically displeasing, it rarely affects elbow range of motion or function.
Question 2156
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 7-year-old child presents with a Bado type I Monteggia fracture-dislocation (ulnar shaft fracture with anterior radial head dislocation). Closed reduction of the ulna is performed, but the radial head remains subluxated. What is the most critical technical factor to ensure stable reduction of the radial head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Restoring anatomic length and alignment of the ulna
Explanation
In a pediatric Monteggia fracture, the radial head dislocation is driven by ulnar deformity. Restoring the anatomic length and perfect alignment of the ulna is the most critical step to achieve and maintain spontaneous reduction of the radial head.
Question 2157
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 5-year-old girl falls on her outstretched hand and sustains a displaced lateral condyle fracture of the humerus. Radiographs show 4 mm of displacement. If this fracture progresses to a symptomatic nonunion, which of the following long-term complications is most characteristic?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cubitus varus
Explanation
Nonunion of a lateral condyle fracture typically leads to progressive cubitus valgus deformity. Over time, this stretches the ulnar nerve, resulting in a tardy ulnar nerve palsy.
Question 2158
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old woman falls on an outstretched hand and sustains an elbow injury. Imaging confirms a posterior elbow dislocation, a type II coronoid fracture, and a comminuted radial head fracture (the "terrible triad"). During surgical reconstruction, what is the standard recommended sequence of repair?
The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury begins deep and moves superficial, working from inside to outside. Coronoid fixation restores anterior stability, followed by radial head repair/replacement to restore the anterior column, and finally LCL repair to restore posterolateral stability.
Question 2159
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
During surgical reconstruction for a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow, what is the recommended sequence of repair to best restore elbow stability?
The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury addresses the structures from deep to superficial: first fixing the coronoid, then repairing or replacing the radial head, and finally repairing the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex.
Question 2160
Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow
A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe left shoulder pain following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. On examination, his arm is locked in internal rotation, and he has 0 degrees of external rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a 'lightbulb' sign on the AP view. A CT scan reveals an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture involving 30% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Closed reduction and sling immobilization
Explanation
This patient has a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with a reverse Hill-Sachs defect of 30%. The modified McLaughlin procedure, which involves transferring the lesser tuberosity and subscapularis into the defect, is indicated for defects between 25% and 40%.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.