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Question 2141

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the cephalic vein is identified. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the cephalic vein to preserve its primary venous drainage?

. Retract medially with the pectoralis major
. Retract laterally with the deltoid
. Ligate it as it has no significant consequence
. Retract superiorly
. Retract inferiorly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Retract medially with the pectoralis major


Explanation

The cephalic vein is typically retracted laterally with the deltoid to preserve its major tributaries. The primary venous tributaries to the cephalic vein in this region arise from the deltoid muscle.

Question 2142

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A patient presents with winging of the scapula and an inability to elevate the shoulder above 90 degrees following a diagnostic lymph node biopsy in the posterior cervical triangle. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Thoracodorsal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) runs superficially in the posterior cervical triangle, putting it at risk during biopsies. Injury leads to trapezius paralysis, resulting in lateral scapular winging and weakness in shoulder abduction/elevation.

Question 2143

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A patient exhibits marked lateral winging of the scapula following a lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of the neck. The patient struggles to abduct the shoulder past 90 degrees. Which nerve was most likely injured?

. Long thoracic nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Dorsal scapular nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Thoracodorsal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long thoracic nerve


Explanation

The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius and is frequently injured during procedures in the posterior cervical triangle. Palsy results in lateral winging of the scapula and profound weakness in overhead shoulder abduction.

Question 2144

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During a Bankart repair, the surgeon must address the essential capsulolabral lesion. Which of the following structures serves as the primary static restraint to anterior translation of the humeral head when the shoulder is positioned in 90 degrees of abduction and maximal external rotation?

. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Inferior glenohumeral ligament complex
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Subscapularis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

The anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) complex is the primary static restraint against anterior translation of the humeral head when the arm is in the abducted and externally rotated "apprehension" position.

Question 2145

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

During a standard deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the cephalic vein is identified in the interval. To optimally preserve its venous drainage, what is the standard recommended handling of this structure?

. Retract it medially with the pectoralis major
. Retract it laterally with the deltoid
. Ligate it at the superior aspect of the incision
. Ligate it at the inferior aspect of the incision
. Mobilize it entirely into the subdeltoid space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Retract it medially with the pectoralis major


Explanation

The cephalic vein is typically retracted laterally with the deltoid muscle during the deltopectoral approach. This preserves the primary venous tributaries which enter the vein from the lateral side.

Question 2146

Topic: Shoulder Pathology

A patient sustains an injury resulting in medial winging of the scapula. Which nerve is injured, and what are its correct nerve root origins?

. Spinal accessory nerve, CN XI
. Long thoracic nerve, C5-C7
. Suprascapular nerve, C5-C6
. Dorsal scapular nerve, C5
. Thoracodorsal nerve, C6-C8

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinal accessory nerve, CN XI


Explanation

Medial scapular winging is caused by paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle, which is innervated by the long thoracic nerve. This nerve originates from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7.

Question 2147

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague dominant shoulder pain. Examination reveals glenohumeral internal rotation of 20 degrees and external rotation of 125 degrees. Total arc of motion is symmetric to the non-throwing shoulder. Nonoperative management for this specific deficit should prioritize stretching of which anatomical structure?

. Anterior capsule
. Posterior capsule
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Pectoralis minor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior capsule


Explanation

This presentation describes Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD), common in overhead throwing athletes and primarily caused by posteroinferior capsular contracture. Treatment focuses on stretching the posterior capsule, often utilizing 'sleeper stretches'.

Question 2148

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 28-year-old bodybuilder feels a tearing sensation in his anterior shoulder while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals a loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. If surgical repair is planned, the sternal head of the pectoralis major must be recognized to insert on the humerus at what position relative to the clavicular head?

. Proximal and deep
. Proximal and superficial
. Distal and deep
. Distal and superficial
. Directly medial

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal and deep


Explanation

The pectoralis major tendon twists 180 degrees before its insertion on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove. Due to this twist, the sternal head inserts proximal and deep relative to the clavicular head.

Question 2149

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 22-year-old baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination shows 130 degrees of external rotation and 20 degrees of internal rotation. The contralateral non-dominant shoulder has 100 degrees of external rotation and 50 degrees of internal rotation. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Anterior capsulorrhaphy
. Posterior capsular stretching program
. Subacromial decompression
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair


Explanation

This patient has Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD), commonly caused by posterior capsular contracture in overhead athletes. The initial and most effective management is a targeted posterior stretching program (e.g., sleeper stretches).

Question 2150

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 65-year-old female presents with pseudoparalysis of the shoulder, severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis, and a massive, retracted, irreparable rotator cuff tear. Her deltoid function is completely intact. What is the most reliable surgical option to restore function and relieve pain?

. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Superior capsular reconstruction
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Arthroscopic subacromial decompression and debridement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is the gold standard treatment for older patients with cuff tear arthropathy and pseudoparalysis. It constrains the center of rotation and relies on the intact deltoid to elevate the arm.

Question 2151

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 60-year-old man undergoes arthroscopic evaluation for an irreparable rotator cuff tear and undergoes a biceps tenotomy. Compared to a biceps tenodesis, tenotomy is associated with a higher rate of which of the following?

. Anterior shoulder pain
. Cosmetic deformity (Popeye sign)
. Postoperative stiffness
. Biceps tendon rerupture
. Adhesive capsulitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior shoulder pain


Explanation

Biceps tenotomy carries a higher rate of cosmetic deformity (the 'Popeye' muscle appearance) and subjective muscle cramping compared to tenodesis. Both procedures provide similar levels of pain relief.

Question 2152

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 72-year-old female presents with severe shoulder pseudoparalysis. Radiographs show advanced glenohumeral osteoarthritis with superior migration of the humeral head abutting the acromion. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic massive rotator cuff repair
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Humeral hemiarthroplasty
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic massive rotator cuff repair


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the definitive treatment for rotator cuff tear arthropathy with pseudoparalysis. It medializes and distalizes the center of rotation, allowing the deltoid to elevate the arm without a functioning cuff.

Question 2153

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 50-year-old female with poorly controlled diabetes presents with severe shoulder stiffness and night pain. Passive and active external rotation are equally and severely restricted. What is the primary pathophysiologic hallmark of her condition?

. Degeneration of the articular cartilage
. Fibroblastic proliferation and capsular fibrosis
. Full-thickness tearing of the supraspinatus tendon
. Calcific deposition in the supraspinatus tendon
. Hypertrophy of the coracoacromial ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Degeneration of the articular cartilage


Explanation

Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) is characterized by fibroblastic proliferation, profound capsular thickening, and fibrosis, particularly involving the coracohumeral ligament and rotator interval.

Question 2154

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

An 8-year-old boy is evaluated for a cosmetic deformity of his elbow three years after sustaining a supracondylar humerus fracture that was treated nonoperatively. He has full range of motion and normal neurology. What is the most common long-term deformity following this injury, and what is its primary functional consequence?

. Cubitus valgus leading to delayed ulnar neuropathy
. Cubitus varus with minimal functional impairment
. Cubitus varus leading to acute radial neuropathy
. Genu recurvatum leading to median neuropathy
. Cubitus valgus with minimal functional impairment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cubitus valgus leading to delayed ulnar neuropathy


Explanation

Cubitus varus (gunstock deformity) is the most common malunion following a pediatric supracondylar humerus fracture. It is primarily a cosmetic deformity that rarely causes functional impairment or tardy nerve palsies.

Question 2155

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 9-year-old boy healed from a supracondylar humerus fracture sustained at age 5 but developed a prominent cubitus varus deformity. Which of the following statements regarding cubitus varus following supracondylar humerus fractures is true?

. It typically results from a growth arrest of the lateral condyle physis.
. It severely limits elbow flexion and extension arcs.
. It is primarily a cosmetic deformity with low risk of late functional impairment.
. It resolves spontaneously with skeletal remodeling.
. It is best treated with an immediate medial opening wedge osteotomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It typically results from a growth arrest of the lateral condyle physis.


Explanation

Cubitus varus ("gunstock deformity") is usually caused by malunion (internal rotation and medial tilt), not growth arrest. While cosmetically displeasing, it rarely affects elbow range of motion or function.

Question 2156

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 7-year-old child presents with a Bado type I Monteggia fracture-dislocation (ulnar shaft fracture with anterior radial head dislocation). Closed reduction of the ulna is performed, but the radial head remains subluxated. What is the most critical technical factor to ensure stable reduction of the radial head?

. Restoring anatomic length and alignment of the ulna
. Performing an open reduction of the radial head
. Reconstructing the annular ligament
. Pinning the radiocapitellar joint
. Hyperflexing the elbow to 120 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Restoring anatomic length and alignment of the ulna


Explanation

In a pediatric Monteggia fracture, the radial head dislocation is driven by ulnar deformity. Restoring the anatomic length and perfect alignment of the ulna is the most critical step to achieve and maintain spontaneous reduction of the radial head.

Question 2157

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 5-year-old girl falls on her outstretched hand and sustains a displaced lateral condyle fracture of the humerus. Radiographs show 4 mm of displacement. If this fracture progresses to a symptomatic nonunion, which of the following long-term complications is most characteristic?

. Cubitus varus
. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy
. Radial head dislocation
. Median nerve palsy
. Recurrent elbow dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cubitus varus


Explanation

Nonunion of a lateral condyle fracture typically leads to progressive cubitus valgus deformity. Over time, this stretches the ulnar nerve, resulting in a tardy ulnar nerve palsy.

Question 2158

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

A 45-year-old woman falls on an outstretched hand and sustains an elbow injury. Imaging confirms a posterior elbow dislocation, a type II coronoid fracture, and a comminuted radial head fracture (the "terrible triad"). During surgical reconstruction, what is the standard recommended sequence of repair?

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair, radial head fixation, coronoid fixation
. Coronoid fixation, radial head repair or replacement, followed by LCL repair
. Radial head replacement, medial collateral ligament (MCL) repair, coronoid fixation
. LCL repair, MCL repair, coronoid fixation
. Coronoid fixation, MCL repair, LCL repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair, radial head fixation, coronoid fixation


Explanation

The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury begins deep and moves superficial, working from inside to outside. Coronoid fixation restores anterior stability, followed by radial head repair/replacement to restore the anterior column, and finally LCL repair to restore posterolateral stability.

Question 2159

Topic: Elbow & Forearm

During surgical reconstruction for a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow, what is the recommended sequence of repair to best restore elbow stability?

. Radial head, lateral collateral ligament, coronoid
. Coronoid, radial head, lateral collateral ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament, coronoid, radial head
. Radial head, coronoid, lateral collateral ligament
. Coronoid, lateral collateral ligament, radial head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial head, lateral collateral ligament, coronoid


Explanation

The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury addresses the structures from deep to superficial: first fixing the coronoid, then repairing or replacing the radial head, and finally repairing the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex.

Question 2160

Topic: 9. Shoulder and Elbow

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe left shoulder pain following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. On examination, his arm is locked in internal rotation, and he has 0 degrees of external rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a 'lightbulb' sign on the AP view. A CT scan reveals an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture involving 30% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Closed reduction and sling immobilization
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and sling immobilization


Explanation

This patient has a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with a reverse Hill-Sachs defect of 30%. The modified McLaughlin procedure, which involves transferring the lesser tuberosity and subscapularis into the defect, is indicated for defects between 25% and 40%.