Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis MCQs

When performing a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA), placing the glenosphere with an inferior tilt and slight inferior overhang relative to the native glenoid margin is done primarily to minimize the risk of which of the following postoperative complications?

A 76-year-old right-hand-dominant woman presents with a 4-part proximal humerus fracture following a mechanical fall. She is active and lives independently. Plain radiographs reveal a head-split component with significant osteopenia. She undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). Compared to hemiarthroplasty for this specific indication, RTSA has been shown to provide which of the following in the literature?

A 72-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for cuff tear arthropathy. Which of the following glenosphere positioning strategies is most effective in minimizing the risk of scapular notching?

A 72-year-old woman is 4 years status-post a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) for severe rotator cuff tear arthropathy. Routine follow-up radiographs reveal a localized radiolucent line and bony defect at the inferior aspect of the scapular neck. Which of the following prosthesis design modifications or surgical techniques has been shown to most effectively reduce the incidence of this specific radiographic finding?

A 72-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for rotator cuff tear arthropathy. Postoperatively, she develops a grade 3 scapular notch. Which of the following implant configurations is most strongly associated with preventing this complication?

A 76-year-old female sustains a 4-part proximal humerus fracture after a mechanical fall. Radiographs demonstrate severe valgus impaction, disruption of the medial hinge, and metaphyseal extension less than 8 mm. Which surgical option is shown to provide the most predictable improvement in functional outcome and pain relief in this specific demographic?

A 70-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for rotator cuff tear arthropathy. To minimize the risk of postoperative scapular notching, which of the following intraoperative techniques regarding glenosphere placement is most appropriate?

A 78-year-old woman sustains a severely comminuted 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Her history is notable for severe osteoporosis and chronic, massive rotator cuff tearing. Which surgical option is most likely to provide her with reliable forward elevation and the best functional outcome?

A 72-year-old woman undergoes reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. At her 2-year follow-up, radiographs show inferior scapular notching. Which of the following surgical techniques decreases the risk of this complication?

Scapular notching is a recognized complication following reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). Which of the following glenosphere placements is most strongly associated with an increased incidence of this complication?

A 72-year-old man undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. At 2-year follow-up, radiographs show grade 2 scapular notching. Which of the following surgical techniques minimizes this complication?

A 72-year-old man undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) for cuff tear arthropathy. At his 2-year follow-up, radiographs demonstrate inferior scapular notching that extends beyond the inferior screw of the baseplate. According to the Sirveaux classification, what grade of notching is present?

A 74-year-old woman presents with long-standing shoulder pain and inability to elevate her arm past 40 degrees. She has a positive drop arm sign and hornblower's sign. Radiographs demonstrate severe superior migration of the humeral head with articulation against the acromion.

Which of the following is the most reliable surgical option to restore active forward elevation?

A 70-year-old woman is 6 months status post a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) for massive rotator cuff tear. She was doing well until she experienced a sudden onset of superior shoulder pain without any distinct trauma.

Radiographs indicate an acromial stress fracture. Which biomechanical alteration inherent to RTSA most directly contributes to this complication?

A 72-year-old woman presents with lateral shoulder pain 2 years after undergoing a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). Radiographs reveal grade 3 scapular notching. Which of the following surgical technique modifications during the index procedure would have best minimized this complication?

In reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA), which of the following component positioning strategies is most effective in minimizing the risk of scapular notching?

According to the Walch classification, a B2 glenoid is characterized by which of the following?

In reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA), which of the following glenosphere design modifications or placements is most effective in decreasing the incidence of inferior scapular notching?

A 78-year-old right-hand-dominant woman sustains a 4-part proximal humerus fracture with severe varus collapse and significant comminution of the tuberosities. She lives independently and is medically optimized. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 72-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). At 2-year follow-up, radiographs show inferior scapular notching. Which of the following implant positioning strategies most effectively reduces the risk of this complication?