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Question 101

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old man with a chronic massive rotator cuff tear presents with pseudoparalysis. Radiographs show severe superior migration of the humeral head and acetabularization of the acromion. If a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is performed, the center of rotation is altered in which direction compared to the native anatomy?

. Lateralized and superior
. Medialized and inferior
. Medialized and superior
. Lateralized and inferior
. Unchanged

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medialized and inferior


Explanation

The Grammont design principles for reverse total shoulder arthroplasty involve medializing and inferiorizing the center of rotation. This optimizes the deltoid's moment arm and resting tension, allowing it to substitute for the deficient rotator cuff.

Question 102

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old woman with severe osteoporosis presents with a closed, displaced 3-part proximal humerus fracture involving the surgical neck and greater tuberosity. The humeral head is varus and severely retroverted. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA)
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA)


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) provides more reliable outcomes and improved active elevation compared to ORIF or hemiarthroplasty for displaced 3- and 4-part fractures in elderly patients with poor bone quality. It mitigates the risk of fixation failure and relies less on tuberosity healing for overhead function.

Question 103

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 78-year-old woman with a history of severe osteoporosis sustains a displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture. She lives independently and is active. What surgical option provides the most predictable return of forward elevation and is least dependent on tuberosity healing?

. Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) with a locking plate
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA)
. Total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA)


Explanation

RTSA relies on deltoid function rather than an intact rotator cuff. It provides more predictable functional outcomes for forward elevation in elderly patients with 4-part fractures, even if the tuberosities fail to heal.

Question 104

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 65-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for cuff tear arthropathy. To minimize the risk of scapular notching, how should the glenosphere baseplate optimally be positioned?

. Superior translation with a superior tilt
. Neutral tilt with central placement
. Inferior translation with an inferior tilt
. Superior translation with neutral tilt
. Anterior version with superior translation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior translation with an inferior tilt


Explanation

Scapular notching is a frequent complication in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. Placing the baseplate with an inferior tilt and inferior translation lowers the center of rotation and prevents mechanical impingement of the humeral component against the scapular neck.

Question 105

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old man is 3 years post-operative from a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) for massive cuff tear arthropathy. Radiographs demonstrate a large radiolucent area at the inferior aspect of the glenoid neck. Which surgical technique during the index procedure most effectively minimizes this complication?

. Superior placement of the glenosphere
. Increasing the humeral retroversion to 40 degrees
. Inferior placement of the glenosphere with an inferior overhang
. Using a smaller diameter glenosphere
. Leaving the subscapularis unrepaired

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior placement of the glenosphere with an inferior overhang


Explanation

Scapular notching is a frequent complication in reverse total shoulder arthroplasty caused by the medialized humeral component mechanically abrading the inferior glenoid neck during adduction. Inferior placement of the baseplate with an inferior overhang of the glenosphere lateralizes the humerus slightly and is the most effective technique to prevent this impingement.

Question 106

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 78-year-old woman with severe osteoporosis presents with a 4-part proximal humerus fracture after a mechanical fall. The humeral head is entirely devoid of soft tissue attachments, and the tuberosities are comminuted. What is the preferred surgical treatment to maximize functional outcome and pain relief in this patient?

. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Nonoperative management with a sling

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

In elderly patients with poor bone quality and a 4-part proximal humerus fracture, reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) provides more predictable functional outcomes and pain relief compared to ORIF or hemiarthroplasty, as it does not rely on tuberosity healing for overhead function.

Question 107

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old woman with rotator cuff tear arthropathy and pseudoparalysis undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). Which of the following muscles provides the primary motive force for active elevation postoperatively?

. Supraspinatus
. Subscapularis
. Deltoid
. Pectoralis major
. Teres minor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deltoid


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty medializes and distalizes the center of rotation, increasing the moment arm and resting tension of the deltoid muscle. This allows the deltoid to effectively compensate for the deficient rotator cuff to provide active anterior elevation.

Question 108

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 78-year-old woman with severe osteoporosis sustains a comminuted 4-part proximal humerus fracture. The humeral head is split, and the tuberosities are widely displaced. She is treated with a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). Healing of which structure is most critical to restore active external rotation?

. Subscapularis
. Lesser tuberosity
. Greater tuberosity
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Pectoralis major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater tuberosity


Explanation

In RTSA for proximal humerus fractures, anatomic healing of the greater tuberosity is crucial for restoring active external rotation, as it serves as the attachment point for the infraspinatus and teres minor. Failure of greater tuberosity healing often results in a significant external rotation lag.

Question 109

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 75-year-old osteoporotic woman sustains a displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture. The articular surface is subluxated, and the tuberosities are widely displaced. Which treatment modality is associated with the most reliable return of forward elevation?

. Nonoperative management with a sling
. ORIF with a locking plate
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Intramedullary nailing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

In elderly patients with severe osteoporosis and displaced 4-part proximal humerus fractures, reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) provides more reliable pain relief and functional restoration than hemiarthroplasty or ORIF. It relies on deltoid function rather than predictable tuberosity healing.

Question 110

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 75-year-old woman with severe osteoporosis sustains a displaced, 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Examination of preoperative imaging suggests severe valgus impaction and poor tuberosity bone stock. Which of the following surgical interventions will provide the most predictable outcome for postoperative functional elevation and pain relief?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) provides more predictable functional outcomes and pain relief than hemiarthroplasty or ORIF in elderly patients with 4-part proximal humerus fractures. It relies on the deltoid rather than a functional rotator cuff, circumventing the issue of non-healing tuberosities.

Question 111

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old woman with pseudoparalysis and severe rotator cuff arthropathy is scheduled for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). The biomechanical advantage of RTSA relies on shifting the center of rotation in which directions compared to the native shoulder?

. Lateral and superior
. Lateral and inferior
. Medial and inferior
. Medial and superior
. Anterior and superior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral and superior


Explanation

RTSA medializes and inferiorizes the center of rotation. This increases the lever arm of the deltoid muscle and improves its resting tension, allowing the deltoid to effectively elevate the arm in the absence of a functional rotator cuff.

Question 112

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 58-year-old woman sustains a severely displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture. The humeral head is noted to be entirely devascularized on advanced imaging. When comparing hemiarthroplasty to reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) for this patient, RTSA has been shown in the literature to provide which of the following advantages?

. Lower complication rate
. Decreased operative time
. More predictable active forward elevation
. Better restoration of anatomic tuberosity footprint
. Lower rate of scapular notching

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower complication rate


Explanation

In elderly patients with 4-part proximal humerus fractures, RTSA provides more predictable active forward elevation and better functional outcomes compared to hemiarthroplasty, primarily because RTSA outcomes are less reliant on the anatomic healing of the tuberosities.

Question 113

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A patient is evaluated 2 years after receiving a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA). Radiographs reveal a progressive lucency and bone loss on the inferior scapular neck. What is the primary mechanical cause of this scapular notching?

. Impingement of the greater tuberosity on the acromion
. Impingement of the humeral polyethylene cup on the inferior scapular neck
. Osteolysis secondary to polyethylene wear debris
. Subscapularis failure with anterior subluxation
. Glenosphere baseplate screw pullout

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Impingement of the greater tuberosity on the acromion


Explanation

Scapular notching after RTSA is primarily caused by mechanical impingement of the medial humeral metaphysis or polyethylene liner against the inferior scapular neck during adduction. Inferior baseplate positioning and lateralization can help minimize this risk.

Question 114

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 78-year-old woman presents with a 4-part proximal humerus fracture. She has severe osteoporosis and a sedentary lifestyle. The fracture involves significant displacement of the tuberosities and valgus impaction of the humeral head. Which of the following is the primary advantage of reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) over hemiarthroplasty for this patient?

. Less risk of infection
. Lower intraoperative blood loss
. Outcomes are less dependent on tuberosity healing
. Preservation of the native glenoid articular cartilage
. Shorter surgical time

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Less risk of infection


Explanation

The primary advantage of RTSA over hemiarthroplasty for complex proximal humerus fractures in the elderly is that functional outcomes are less dependent on anatomic tuberosity healing. The reverse prosthesis design relies primarily on the deltoid muscle for elevation.

Question 115

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 72-year-old male presents with long-standing shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm above 45 degrees. Radiographs demonstrate an acromiohumeral distance of 3 mm.

MRI reveals massive, retracted supraspinatus and infraspinatus tears with grade 4 fatty infiltration. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic superior capsular reconstruction
. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic superior capsular reconstruction


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) is the treatment of choice for elderly patients with massive, irreparable rotator cuff tears and pseudoparalysis or cuff tear arthropathy. RTSA relies on the deltoid to restore active elevation.

Question 116

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

Which of the following best describes the fundamental biomechanical alteration achieved by a classic Grammont-style reverse total shoulder arthroplasty in a patient with advanced rotator cuff arthropathy?

. Lateralization and superior translation of the joint center of rotation
. Medialization and inferior translation of the joint center of rotation
. Medialization and superior translation of the joint center of rotation
. Lateralization and inferior translation of the joint center of rotation
. Preservation of the anatomic center of rotation with constraint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateralization and superior translation of the joint center of rotation


Explanation

The Grammont-style reverse total shoulder arthroplasty shifts the joint's center of rotation medially and inferiorly. This medialization increases the deltoid moment arm, while inferiorization tensions the deltoid fibers, allowing it to efficiently compensate for the deficient rotator cuff.

Question 117

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

Which of the following best describes the biomechanical alterations achieved by a standard Grammont-style reverse total shoulder arthroplasty?

. Lateralization and superiorization of the center of rotation
. Medialization and inferiorization of the center of rotation
. Medialization and superiorization of the center of rotation
. Lateralization and inferiorization of the center of rotation
. Anatomic restoration of the center of rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateralization and superiorization of the center of rotation


Explanation

A Grammont-style reverse total shoulder arthroplasty medializes and inferiorizes the center of rotation. This effectively lengthens the deltoid moment arm and increases its tension, allowing it to compensate for a deficient rotator cuff.

Question 118

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

Which of the following glenoid morphologies (Walch classification) in the setting of primary osteoarthritis is characterized by a biconcave surface and posterior subluxation of the humeral head, and carries the highest risk of early glenoid component loosening in anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty?

. Type A1
. Type A2
. Type B1
. Type B2
. Type C

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type A1


Explanation

The Walch B2 glenoid is characterized by a biconcave articular surface and posterior subluxation of the humeral head. Uncorrected posterior retroversion leads to eccentric loading and early failure of the glenoid component in anatomic TSA.

Question 119

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 78-year-old female with osteoporosis sustains a highly comminuted 4-part proximal humerus fracture with a split humeral head.

What is the most appropriate surgical management to maximize her functional outcome?

. Sling immobilization and early passive range of motion
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sling immobilization and early passive range of motion


Explanation

In elderly patients with complex 4-part fractures or head-splitting variants, reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA) provides more predictable pain relief and functional restoration than ORIF or hemiarthroplasty. RTSA relies on the deltoid rather than the often unpredictable healing of osteoporotic tuberosities.

Question 120

Topic: Shoulder Arthroplasty & Arthritis

A 75-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain and an inability to actively elevate his arm above 45 degrees. Radiographs demonstrate an acromiohumeral distance of 3 mm. MRI reveals massive, retracted tears of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with grade 4 fatty infiltration, while the subscapularis and deltoid are intact. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Superior capsular reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is the treatment of choice for elderly patients with cuff tear arthropathy or massive irreparable rotator cuff tears with pseudoparalysis. Anatomic TSA is contraindicated due to the deficient rotator cuff, which would lead to eccentric glenoid wear.