This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Elbow & Forearm. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 941
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 21-year-old collegiate pitcher undergoes ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction using the docking technique with a palmaris longus autograft.
What is the most common postoperative complication associated with this procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Heterotopic ossification
Explanation
Ulnar neuropathy is the most common complication following UCL reconstruction, reported in 5% to 20% of cases, though it is usually transient. Meticulous care to protect or properly transpose the ulnar nerve is critical during the approach and tunnel drilling.
Question 942
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 40-year-old recreational tennis player has recalcitrant lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) that has failed 6 months of physical therapy, bracing, and NSAIDs. He elects to undergo a platelet-rich plasma (PRP) injection. Based on current basic science and clinical evidence, which PRP formulation is most effective for tendinopathy such as lateral epicondylitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Leukocyte-rich PRP (LR-PRP)
Explanation
Current evidence suggests that Leukocyte-Rich PRP (LR-PRP) is more effective for tendinopathies (such as lateral epicondylitis and patellar tendinopathy) due to the robust inflammatory response it induces, which helps restart the healing cascade in chronic tendinosis. Conversely, Leukocyte-Poor PRP (LP-PRP) is generally preferred for intra-articular injections (like knee osteoarthritis) to minimize an excessive inflammatory response and synoviocyte apoptosis.
Question 943
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
In the surgical management of a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, and coronoid fracture), what is the most accepted sequential order of structure repair to restore stability?
The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad is performed deep-to-superficial: coronoid fracture fixation or anterior capsular repair is performed first, followed by radial head fixation or arthroplasty, and finally the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) complex is repaired.
Question 944
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow is a clinical entity most frequently caused by insufficiency of which of the following capsuloligamentous structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial ulnar collateral ligament
Explanation
The Lateral Ulnar Collateral Ligament (LUCL) is the primary restraint to posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow. Injury to the LUCL allows the radial head to subluxate posterolaterally away from the capitellum.
Question 945
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old male undergoes a single-incision anterior approach for the repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture. Post-operatively, he complains of numbness over the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve is most likely injured during this surgical exposure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous (LABC) nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach to the distal biceps. The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is more at risk during a two-incision approach or with excessive deep retractor placement.
Question 946
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
What is the most widely accepted surgical sequence for repairing a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, and coronoid fracture)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. LCL complex repair, radial head fixation/replacement, coronoid fixation
Explanation
The standard algorithm for repairing a terrible triad injury follows a deep-to-superficial and medial-to-lateral protocol through a lateral approach: first, fixation of the coronoid (to restore the anterior buttress); second, fixation or replacement of the radial head (to restore the lateral column); and third, repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex to the lateral epicondyle.
Question 947
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
The distal biceps tendon normally inserts onto the radial tuberosity. To maximize the biomechanical supination moment arm (the 'cam effect') during an anatomical surgical repair of a distal biceps rupture, where should the tendon be optimally positioned on the tuberosity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. On the extreme anterior/volar aspect of the tuberosity.
Explanation
The native distal biceps tendon inserts on the ulnar (posterior) aspect of the radial tuberosity. Reattaching the tendon to this ulnar footprint maximizes the 'cam effect' around the radius, thereby restoring maximal supination torque. A more anterior placement results in a significant loss of supination strength.
Question 948
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
In posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow, the primary deficient structure is the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). What are the precise anatomic origin and insertion of the LUCL?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral epicondyle to the radial neck
Explanation
The LUCL originates on the lateral epicondyle, blends with the annular ligament, and inserts on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. It serves as the primary restraint to posterolateral rotatory instability.
Question 949
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient undergoes surgical repair of an acute distal biceps tendon rupture using a single-incision anterior approach. Postoperatively, he complains of burning pain and numbness along the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the surgical exposure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial radial nerve
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is a continuation of the musculocutaneous nerve and exits laterally in the distal arm. It lies in close proximity to the cephalic vein and the lateral border of the biceps tendon, making it highly susceptible to injury or traction neuropraxia during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps repair.
Question 950
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 14-year-old male baseball pitcher presents with lateral elbow pain and catching. Radiographs and MRI demonstrate a detached osteochondral fragment in the capitellum with an underlying fluid signal. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Panner disease
Explanation
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the capitellum typically occurs in adolescent throwing athletes (ages 12-16) and can progress to loose body formation and articular cartilage damage. Panner disease is an osteochondrosis of the entire capitellum seen in younger children (typically ages 7-10) and is generally self-limiting without loose body formation.
Question 951
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
During a radial head arthroplasty for a comminuted radial head fracture, the surgeon inadvertently overstuffs the radiocapitellar joint by 4 mm. Which of the following biomechanical consequences is most likely to occur as a direct result of this technical error?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Accelerated osteoarthritis of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ)
Explanation
Overstuffing the radial head (>2 mm) leads to excessive contact pressures on the capitellum, causing accelerated capitellar wear, loss of terminal flexion/extension, and a 'hinging' effect that results in asymmetric lateral widening of the ulnohumeral joint space.
Question 952
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old male laborer presents with acute anterior elbow pain and ecchymosis after attempting to lift a heavy box. Examination reveals a positive hook test. During a single-incision anterior surgical repair using suture anchors, which nerve is at the highest risk of injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Median nerve
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABC) is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision distal biceps repair due to its proximity to the surgical field and cephalic vein.
Question 953
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 32-year-old female complains of a recurrent clicking and giving way of her elbow when pushing up from a chair. Physical examination demonstrates apprehension with the elbow supinated, axially loaded, and moving from extension into flexion. Which ligamentous structure is primarily deficient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial ulnar collateral ligament
Explanation
The patient has posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI), characterized by a positive pivot-shift test. This condition is caused by a deficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL).
Question 954
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old male hears a pop in his anterior elbow while lifting a heavy box. On examination, he has a positive hook test. He undergoes a single-incision distal biceps tendon repair. Postoperatively, he complains of numbness along the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which structure was most likely injured during the surgical exposure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial nerve
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach to the distal biceps. It exits laterally between the biceps and brachialis muscles.
Question 955
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 30-year-old male presents with lateral elbow pain and a clicking sensation when extending and supinating the elbow. He is diagnosed with posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) and is scheduled for ligament reconstruction. What are the correct isometric points for reconstructing the primary ligament deficient in this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial epicondyle to the sublime tubercle
Explanation
PLRI is caused by insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The anatomic origin of the LUCL is the lateral epicondyle, and its insertion is on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna.
Question 956
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old female falls onto an outstretched hand. A lateral radiograph of the elbow demonstrates a "double arc sign." What specific injury does this radiographic finding indicate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type I capitellum fracture (Hahn-Steinthal)
Explanation
The double arc sign on a lateral elbow radiograph indicates a capitellum fracture that extends medially to involve the lateral ridge of the trochlea, classified as a Type IV capitellum fracture (McKee modification).
Question 957
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old tennis player fails 12 months of conservative management for lateral epicondylitis. An open debridement of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) is planned. Topographically, where is the ECRB origin located relative to the extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial and distal
Explanation
The ECRB origin is located deep and distal to the ECRL origin. The ECRL originates higher up on the lateral supracondylar ridge.
Question 958
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 36-year-old recreational athlete feels a pop in his antecubital fossa while lifting weights. He has pain, swelling, and deformity. Representative sagittal and coronal MRI slices are shown in Figures 1 and 2, respectively. What is the most common major complications associated with surgical repair of this structure?
The MRI scan shows a distal biceps tendon rupture with retraction. Tendon rerupture and PIN palsy are the two most common major complications following distal biceps repair surgery. Major complication rates are not found to differ by sex, history of tobacco use, age, exposure type (single versus twoincisions), tear morphology (full versus partial), or type of fixation used.
Question 959
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old female falls from a ladder and sustains an injury to her right elbow. Radiographs similar to the typical appearance of this injury pattern
demonstrate a posterior elbow dislocation, a radial head fracture, and a coronoid fracture. According to the standard lateral-to-medial surgical protocol (e.g., Pugh et al.), what is the correct sequence of structural fixation?
In the surgical management of a terrible triad injury of the elbow, a deep-to-superficial, anterior-to-posterior, or medial-to-lateral progression is generally utilized. The widely accepted standard sequence from a lateral or global approach is: 1) fixation of the coronoid fracture and anterior capsule, 2) fixation or replacement of the radial head, and 3) repair of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). If the elbow remains unstable after this sequence, the MCL may be explored and repaired.
Question 960
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old male undergoes a single-incision anterior approach for repair of a complete distal biceps tendon rupture. During the post-operative follow-up, he complains of numbness and tingling over the lateral aspect of his proximal forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured or stretched by retraction during this procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is the most frequently injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps tendon repair due to its superficial course lateral to the biceps tendon. While the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at risk, it is more classically injured during the second (lateral) incision of a two-incision approach if dissection splits the supinator incorrectly.
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