Elbow & Forearm MCQs

A 28-year-old male sustained a midshaft humerus fracture 6 months ago resulting in a complete radial nerve palsy with no signs of recovery on recent EMG. For surgical reconstruction, a tendon transfer is planned. The pronator teres (PT) is most commonly transferred to which structure to restore wrist extension?

In a patient with an irreversible high radial nerve palsy, multiple tendon transfers are planned. What is the standard transfer utilized to restore active wrist extension?

A 42-year-old female sustains a "terrible triad" injury of the elbow. She is taken to the operating room for definitive fixation. To optimize stability and clinical outcomes, what is the generally recommended sequence of surgical reconstruction?

A 50-year-old female falls onto an outstretched hand and sustains an isolated coronal shear fracture of the capitellum. Radiographs reveal a large osseous fragment consisting of the capitellum and the lateral half of the trochlea without posterior comminution. According to the Dubberley classification, what type of fracture is this?

A 40-year-old weightlifter feels a pop in his elbow while doing heavy curls. Physical examination demonstrates a positive Hook test. When repairing a distal biceps tendon rupture using a single anterior incision approach, which nerve is at highest risk of injury?

A 35-year-old male bodybuilder feels a 'pop' in his anterior elbow during a deadlift. Examination reveals a positive hook test. If an anterior single-incision surgical repair using cortical button fixation is chosen, which nerve is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury?

A 35-year-old male sustains an acute distal biceps tendon rupture and undergoes surgical repair via a classic two-incision approach. Which of the following complications is more commonly associated with this technique compared to a single anterior incision approach?

A 35-year-old male sustains a midshaft humerus fracture. Examination reveals an inability to extend the wrist and digits. He is diagnosed with a radial nerve palsy. If tendon transfers are required due to lack of recovery, which of the following combinations is the classic Boyes transfer for radial nerve palsy?

A patient sustained a humerus fracture resulting in a persistent high radial nerve palsy. When planning a standard set of tendon transfers to restore function, which muscle is typically transferred to the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) to restore wrist extension?

In a patient undergoing tendon transfers for a high radial nerve palsy, the pronator teres (PT) is typically transferred to restore wrist extension. Why is the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) preferred as the recipient tendon over the extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL)?

A patient with a chronic, irreparable high radial nerve palsy is undergoing tendon transfers to restore wrist, finger, and thumb extension. The surgeon plans to transfer the Pronator Teres to the Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (PT to ECRB) for wrist extension, and the Flexor Carpi Radialis to the Extensor Digitorum Communis (FCR to EDC) for finger extension. What is the standard tendon transfer utilized in this set to restore thumb extension (EPL)?

A 35-year-old male sustained a mid-shaft humerus fracture resulting in an irreparable radial nerve palsy. He is undergoing a classic 'standard' (Jones) tendon transfer to restore function. In this specific transfer arrangement, which muscle is most commonly transferred to the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) to restore thumb extension?

In a patient with a high radial nerve palsy undergoing tendon transfers, the pronator teres (PT) is most commonly transferred to which of the following tendons to restore functional wrist extension?

A 32-year-old male presents with an irreversible high radial nerve palsy following a humerus fracture. To restore wrist extension, which tendon transfer is most commonly utilized and provides the best biomechanical advantage?

A surgeon is planning a lateral collateral ligament (LCL) reconstruction for a patient with severe posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow.

The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL), the primary restraint to PLRI, originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on which of the following structures?

A 25-year-old male undergoes open reduction and internal fixation for a pronation-external rotation (PER) ankle fracture. After fibular plating and medial malleolus fixation, a 'hook test' (Cotton test) is performed intraoperatively, demonstrating 4 mm of lateral translation of the fibula relative to the tibia. What is the most appropriate next step?

A 45-year-old female falls onto an outstretched hand and sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. Which of the following describes the most widely accepted surgical sequence for reconstruction?

A 35-year-old male falls onto an outstretched hand, sustaining a severely comminuted radial head fracture, acute wrist pain, and instability of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). The radial head is deemed unsalvageable. What is the most appropriate definitive management of the elbow in this patient?

A 50-year-old female falls onto her outstretched hand and presents with elbow pain. A lateral radiograph reveals a 'double arc sign'. What specific fracture pattern does this classic radiographic sign indicate?