Question 781
Topic: Elbow & ForearmCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Capitellum, radial head, and medial epicondyle
Practice Set 40 of 57
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Elbow & Forearm. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Capitellum, radial head, and medial epicondyle
A 25-year-old male sustains a midshaft humerus fracture and presents with an inability to extend his wrist and fingers. The injured nerve normally pierces the lateral intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the arm at approximately what distance proximal to the lateral epicondyle?
. 10 cm
A 40-year-old bodybuilder sustains a distal biceps tendon rupture. During surgical repair through a single anterior incision, the surgeon must be mindful of a nerve that crosses the surgical field deep to the brachioradialis. Which nerve is most at risk?
. Posterior interosseous nerve
A patient exhibits posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow. Reconstruction of the primary deficient ligament is planned. What is the anatomic insertion of this key stabilizing ligament?
. Supinator crest of the ulna
A 12-year-old boy with Osteogenesis Imperfecta Type V presents with progressive loss of forearm pronation and supination. Radiographs reveal calcification of the interosseous membrane and a dislocated radial head. He reports mild pain but significant functional limitation. What is the most appropriate orthopedic management of the radial head dislocation in this specific patient population?
. Observation and occupational therapy.
A 34-year-old female presents with recurrent elbow clicking and a sensation of the elbow "giving out" when she pushes herself up from a chair. She has a history of a prior elbow dislocation treated non-operatively 2 years ago. Which of the following physical examination maneuvers is most specific for diagnosing her underlying pathology?
. Lateral pivot-shift test of the elbow
. Type II (Kocher-Lorenz)
A 45-year-old male is undergoing surgical reconstruction for a "Terrible Triad" injury of the elbow (posterior dislocation, radial head fracture, and coronoid fracture). To systematically restore elbow stability, what is the most widely accepted sequence of surgical repair?
. Coronoid fixation, followed by radial head fixation or replacement, followed by LUCL repair.
A 45-year-old female undergoes surgical debridement of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) origin for refractory lateral epicondylitis. Which of the following best describes the characteristic histological findings expected in the excised tissue?
. Angiofibroblastic tendinosis with disorganized collagen and neovascularization.
A 45-year-old weightlifter undergoes a single-incision anterior approach for the repair of an acute distal biceps tendon rupture. Postoperatively, he demonstrates an inability to extend his fingers at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints, but his wrist extension is preserved, albeit with radial deviation. Which nerve was most likely injured during the surgical procedure?
. Posterior interosseous nerve
A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent elbow clicking and a sensation of the elbow "giving out" when pushing himself up from a chair. A pivot-shift test of the elbow is positive. The primary ligamentous restraint that is deficient in this patient originates from the lateral epicondyle and inserts onto which of the following anatomic structures?
. Supinator crest of the ulna
An 8-year-old male gymnast presents with a 3-month history of insidious onset lateral right elbow pain, exacerbated by weight-bearing activities. Radiographs demonstrate diffuse sclerosis, fragmentation, and flattening of the entire capitellar ossification center. There are no loose bodies identified on imaging. Based on the most likely diagnosis, what is the expected natural history and appropriate management?
. Spontaneous resolution and reossification with rest and activity modification.
A 45-year-old male falls from a ladder, sustaining a 'Terrible Triad' injury of the elbow. He is taken to the operating room for surgical reconstruction. The surgeon first addresses the coronoid fracture with a suture lasso technique, followed by replacement of the highly comminuted radial head with a metallic prosthesis. Upon testing, the elbow remains unstable and readily subluxates when extended in supination. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the surgical algorithm?
. Repair the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) complex.
A 45-year-old male sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. During surgical reconstruction, what is the most widely accepted sequence of fixation to systematically restore elbow stability?
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation or replacement, LUCL repair
A 38-year-old bodybuilder undergoes a two-incision distal biceps tendon repair. Which of the following complications is significantly more common with this technique compared to a single anterior incision approach?
. Heterotopic ossification resulting in radioulnar synostosis
A surgeon performs a distal biceps tendon repair using a single anterior incision technique. Postoperatively, the patient lacks active MCP joint extension of the fingers and thumb, but wrist extension is preserved with radial deviation. Injury to a nerve during which specific maneuver is the most likely cause?
. Plunging the drill through the posterior cortex of the radius
A 50-year-old active female presents with chronic lateral elbow pain exacerbated by gripping and lifting. She has failed 6 months of conservative treatment including physical therapy, bracing, and corticosteroid injections. Physical examination reveals tenderness over the common extensor origin, pain with resisted wrist extension, and no neurological deficits. MRI shows tendinosis and partial tearing of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) origin. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
. Open release of the common extensor origin with debridement of the ECRB and decortication.
A 10-year-old girl with multiple hereditary exostoses presents with progressive deformity of her left forearm. Radiographs demonstrate a large distal ulnar osteochondroma. Which of the following patterns of deformity is most characteristic of this condition in the forearm?
. Ulnar shortening, radial bowing, and radial head dislocation
A 10-year-old boy with multiple hereditary exostoses presents with a progressive forearm deformity. Radiographic evaluation is most likely to demonstrate which of the following patterns?
. Shortening of the ulna, bowing of the radius, and ulnar deviation of the carpus.
A 12-year-old boy with multiple hereditary exostoses presents with progressive forearm deformity. Radiographs reveal a large osteochondroma at the distal ulna, relative shortening of the ulna, bowing of the radius, and ulnar deviation of the carpus. What is the primary biomechanical cause of the radial head dislocation often seen in this condition?
. Tethering effect of the shortened ulna causing increased compressive forces on the radius