This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Elbow & Forearm. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 681
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 42-year-old male weightlifter feels a pop in his anterior elbow while performing a heavy deadlift. Clinical examination reveals a positive Hook test. If surgical repair of the ruptured distal biceps tendon is performed via a single anterior incision technique, which of the following nerves is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps tendon repair, with reported injury or neuropraxia rates ranging from 10% to 30%. The LABCN exits the deep fascia just lateral to the biceps tendon in the antecubital fossa. While the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is also at risk (particularly with errant placement of retractors around the radial neck), LABCN injury is much more frequent. A two-incision approach classically reduced the risk of PIN injury but historically carried a higher risk of radioulnar synostosis.
Question 682
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old man falls from a height and sustains a traumatic elbow dislocation. After closed reduction, radiographs reveal a displaced radial head fracture, a small type 1 coronoid tip fracture, and a lateral collateral ligament (LCL) tear. He is scheduled for operative fixation. What is the standard and most appropriate sequence of surgical repair for this 'terrible triad' injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair, followed by MCL repair if still unstable
Explanation
The standard surgical protocol for a terrible triad injury of the elbow proceeds from deep to superficial. The typical sequence is: 1) Coronoid fixation or anterior capsule repair, 2) Radial head fixation or replacement, 3) Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair. If the elbow remains unstable after these steps, the medial collateral ligament (MCL) may be repaired or a hinged external fixator applied.
Question 683
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 38-year-old woman falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a 'terrible triad' injury to her right elbow. Which of the following represents the most appropriate sequence of surgical reconstruction to effectively restore joint stability?
The standard surgical protocol for a terrible triad injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, coronoid fracture) typically proceeds from deep to superficial and medial to lateral (if approached from a single lateral incision). The widely accepted sequence is: 1) fixation of the coronoid process to restore the anterior buttress, 2) repair or replacement of the radial head to restore the anterior and valgus buttress, and 3) repair of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) to restore posterolateral rotatory stability. If the elbow remains unstable after these steps, the medial collateral ligament (MCL) may be repaired or a hinged external fixator applied.
Question 684
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 6-year-old boy sustains a Bado Type I Monteggia fracture-dislocation. Radiographs show a plastic deformation of the ulna and an anterior dislocation of the radial head. During closed reduction, the radial head reduces when the forearm is supinated and the elbow is flexed, but it repeatedly subluxates upon pronation. What is the most critical step to ensure stable maintenance of the radial head reduction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Annular ligament reconstruction
Explanation
In pediatric Monteggia fractures, the stability of the radial head is entirely dependent on the length and anatomic alignment of the ulna. If the radial head subluxates or fails to remain reduced, it is almost always due to incomplete correction of the ulnar deformity (including plastic deformation). Operative correction of the ulna is required to restore length and alignment, which will spontaneously stabilize the radial head.
Question 685
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 40-year-old man sustains a terrible triad injury to his left elbow following a fall from a height. Intraoperatively, through a lateral approach, the radial head is replaced and the coronoid fracture is anatomically fixed. However, during range of motion testing, the elbow tends to subluxate posteriorly when brought into extension. Which of the following structures must be addressed next to restore stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament (MCL)
Explanation
The standard surgical algorithm for terrible triad injuries of the elbow involves stabilizing the coronoid, restoring the radial head, and repairing the lateral ligamentous complex, specifically the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The LUCL is the primary lateral stabilizer against posterolateral rotatory instability. If the elbow remains unstable after coronoid, radial head, and LUCL repair, then repair of the medial collateral ligament (MCL) or application of a hinged external fixator should be considered.
Question 686
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old man undergoes repair of an acute distal biceps tendon rupture via a single-incision anterior approach.
Postoperatively, he notes a patch of numbness on the radial aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured or stretched during the surgical exposure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN)
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps repair. It runs in the subcutaneous tissue near the cephalic vein in the lateral aspect of the antecubital fossa and is highly vulnerable during superficial dissection and retraction. While the PIN is at risk during deep retractor placement radially or in a two-incision approach, the LABCN is overall the most frequently affected.
Question 687
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 38-year-old male weightlifter undergoes surgical repair of a complete distal biceps tendon rupture via a single-incision anterior approach. Postoperatively, he complains of numbness and tingling over the anterolateral aspect of his forearm. Motor function of the hand and wrist is completely intact. Which nerve is most likely injured, and what is its anatomic relationship to the biceps tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior interosseous nerve; it crosses anterior to the radial neck
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN), which is the terminal sensory branch of the musculocutaneous nerve, is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps repair. It emerges from beneath the lateral edge of the biceps muscle, passing between the biceps and brachialis, making it highly vulnerable during retraction. The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is more commonly injured during a two-incision approach or if retractors are placed blindly around the radial neck.
Question 688
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old man falls from a height and sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. During surgical reconstruction, the surgeon successfully fixes the coronoid fracture and replaces the highly comminuted radial head. However, the elbow remains persistently unstable in extension and supination. Which of the following is the most critical next step to restore stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Application of a hinged external fixator
Explanation
The terrible triad of the elbow consists of an elbow dislocation, a radial head fracture, and a coronoid fracture. The standard surgical sequence involves addressing the coronoid, fixing or replacing the radial head, and repairing the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex—specifically the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)—to its isometric origin on the lateral epicondyle. The LUCL is the primary restraint to posterolateral rotatory instability and is virtually always torn in this injury mechanism. Repairing the MUCL or applying an external fixator is generally reserved for residual instability after the LUCL has been properly repaired.
Question 689
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 42-year-old bodybuilder undergoes a single-incision anterior approach for the repair of a complete acute distal biceps tendon rupture. In the recovery room, he complains of numbness and tingling along the lateral (radial) border of his forearm. Motor function is fully intact. Which nerve was most likely injured or compressed by retractors during the surgical exposure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) is the terminal sensory branch of the musculocutaneous nerve. It exits the deep fascia lateral to the biceps tendon and is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps repair due to retraction or direct trauma. Injury results in paresthesias or numbness along the lateral aspect of the forearm. While the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is the most dreaded motor nerve injury (causing weak finger/thumb extension), the patient's intact motor function and specific sensory distribution point to the LABCN.
Question 690
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old man sustains a fall on an outstretched hand, resulting in a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. Intraoperatively, the coronoid is found to have a small tip fracture, which is treated with anterior capsular repair. A radial head arthroplasty is performed for a comminuted radial head fracture. Following these steps, the elbow remains persistently unstable in extension and supinates when extended. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Repair of the medial ulnar collateral ligament (MUCL)
Explanation
The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad injury involves restoring the anterior column (coronoid), the lateral column (radial head), and the lateral stabilizing structures (LCL complex, specifically the LUCL). If the elbow remains unstable after addressing the coronoid and radial head, the LUCL must be repaired. MUCL repair or hinged external fixation is generally reserved for cases where the elbow remains unstable despite a secure LUCL repair.
Question 691
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old man sustains a fall from a height and presents with a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. Which of the following correctly describes the typical deep surgical sequence for operative repair of this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral collateral ligament repair, coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement
Explanation
The terrible triad of the elbow consists of an elbow dislocation, a radial head fracture, and a coronoid fracture. The standard 'inside-out' protocol for surgical management involves: 1) repairing or fixing the coronoid fracture to restore the anterior buttress, 2) fixing or replacing the radial head to restore the anterior and valgus buttress, and 3) repairing the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) to restore posterolateral rotatory stability. The medial collateral ligament is only addressed if profound instability persists after the standard sequence.
Question 692
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old bodybuilder undergoes a two-incision (modified Boyd-Anderson) repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture. Compared to a single anterior incision approach, he is at an increased risk for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve palsy
Explanation
The two-incision technique for distal biceps tendon repair was developed to decrease the risk of posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) injury, which was a historic concern with the single anterior incision approach. However, the two-incision approach carries a significantly higher risk of heterotopic ossification (specifically radioulnar synostosis), especially if the interosseous membrane is heavily breached or muscle bellies are traumatized. The single anterior incision is most commonly associated with lateral antebrachial cutaneous (LABC) nerve neurapraxia.
Question 693
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 38-year-old construction worker falls from a ladder and sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. He is taken to the operating room for surgical stabilization. To optimize stability and functional outcomes, what is the most widely accepted sequence for repairing the injured structures?
The terrible triad of the elbow consists of an elbow dislocation, a radial head fracture, and a coronoid fracture. The standard surgical protocol dictates a 'deep to superficial' approach. The sequence begins with restoring the anterior column by fixing the coronoid fracture or anterior capsule, followed by restoring the lateral column by fixing or replacing the radial head, and finally repairing the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex to the lateral epicondyle.
Question 694
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old weightlifter feels a sudden 'pop' in his anterior elbow during a heavy biceps curl. Examination demonstrates a positive hook test. He undergoes a single-incision distal biceps tendon repair. Which of the following is the most commonly reported complication specifically associated with this surgical approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) neuropraxia
Explanation
The single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps tendon repair is most commonly associated with neuropraxia of the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN) due to its proximity to the superficial surgical dissection. The two-incision approach has a historically higher risk of radioulnar synostosis and heterotopic ossification. While PIN injury can occur with both approaches, it is less frequent than LABCN injury in the single-incision technique.
Question 695
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 34-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a coronal shear fracture of the capitellum that extends medially to include the majority of the trochlea (McKee modification Type IV). Which surgical approach and fixation strategy is considered most appropriate for direct visualization and anatomic reconstruction of this specific fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior approach with olecranon osteotomy and posterior-to-anterior headless screws
Explanation
Capitellar and trochlear shear fractures (Bryan and Morrey types, including the McKee modification Type IV) are articular fractures requiring anatomic reduction and rigid fixation. An extensile lateral approach (e.g., extended Kocher or Kaplan) provides excellent visualization of the capitellum and lateral trochlea. Fixation is classically achieved using headless compression screws placed from anterior to posterior, burying the heads beneath the articular cartilage to allow early range of motion without impinging on the radial head.
Question 696
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 42-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a posterior elbow dislocation, a radial head fracture, and a coronoid process fracture. During the surgical reconstruction of this "terrible triad" injury, what is the generally recommended sequence of repair to restore elbow stability?
The standard surgical sequence for treating a terrible triad injury of the elbow typically proceeds from deep to superficial, or "inside-out." The recommended sequence is fixation of the coronoid (to restore the anterior buttress), followed by repair or replacement of the radial head (to address anterior and lateral stability), and finally repair of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) complex. If the elbow remains unstable after these steps, the medial collateral ligament (MCL) may be repaired or a hinged external fixator applied.
Question 697
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
Following a radial head fracture, a surgeon must assess the blood supply to the radial head. The primary blood supply to the radial head is derived from which artery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Brachial artery
Explanation
The radial head primarily receives its blood supply from the radial recurrent artery, which is a branch of the radial artery. This artery forms an anastomosis around the elbow joint. While other arteries contribute to the overall elbow circulation, the radial recurrent artery is specifically responsible for the majority of the blood supply to the radial head. This is clinically relevant in complex radial head fractures where comminution or displacement can compromise this delicate blood supply, leading to avascular necrosis.
Question 698
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow typically results from an insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). To effectively reconstruct this ligament, the surgeon must anatomically recreate its attachments. What are the correct anatomical origin and insertion of the LUCL?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Origin: Medial epicondyle; Insertion: Sublime tubercle of the ulna
Explanation
The lateral collateral ligament complex of the elbow consists of the radial collateral ligament, the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL), and the annular ligament. The LUCL is the primary restraint to posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI). It originates from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and inserts onto the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. For context, the sublime tubercle is the insertion site for the anterior band of the medial ulnar collateral ligament.
Question 699
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 32-year-old female presents with recurrent posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of her right elbow following a traumatic dislocation 6 months ago. Reconstruction of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is planned. What are the correct anatomical origin and insertion sites for the LUCL?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral epicondyle to the radial head
Explanation
The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary restraint to posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow. It originates on the lateral epicondyle (blending with the lateral collateral ligament complex) and courses distally and posteriorly to insert on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. The anterior band of the medial collateral ligament (MCL) originates on the medial epicondyle and inserts on the sublime tubercle of the coronoid.
Question 700
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 32-year-old male sustains a Monteggia fracture-dislocation. He undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of the ulna with closed reduction of the radial head. Postoperatively, he is unable to actively extend his thumb and fingers at the metacarpophalangeal joints. Wrist extension is preserved but occurs with radial deviation. Compression or injury to the affected nerve most commonly occurs at which of the following anatomic structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ligament of Struthers
Explanation
The patient is exhibiting symptoms of a posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) palsy. The PIN innervates the finger and thumb extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU). Because the extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL) and brevis (ECRB) are often innervated by the radial nerve proximal to the PIN branch, wrist extension is preserved but deviates radially. The most common site of PIN compression is the Arcade of Frohse, which is the thickened proximal tendinous edge of the superficial head of the supinator muscle.
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