This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Elbow & Forearm. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 641
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
During an anterior approach to the proximal radius (Henry approach), the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at risk. What structure represents the most common site of PIN compression in radial tunnel syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Leash of Henry
Explanation
The Arcade of Frohse, which is the proximal fibrous edge of the superficial head of the supinator muscle, is the most common site of posterior interosseous nerve compression. Other sites include the leash of Henry and the fibrous edge of the ECRB.
Question 642
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient has posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow. Reconstruction of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is planned. The LUCL normally originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial head
Explanation
The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. It acts as the primary restraint against posterolateral rotatory instability of the elbow.
Question 643
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
An 8-year-old boy sustains a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. Six months later, he demonstrates a prominent cubitus varus deformity. What is the primary underlying cause of this malalignment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Overgrowth of the lateral condyle physis
Explanation
Cubitus varus following a supracondylar fracture is primarily a cosmetic deformity resulting from malunion. It is typically caused by failure to correct coronal plane rotation or collapse of a comminuted medial column during initial fixation.
Question 644
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
An 8-year-old boy falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a fracture of the radial neck. Radiographs demonstrate 50 degrees of angulation.
What is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immobilization in a long arm cast without reduction
Explanation
For pediatric radial neck fractures, angulation greater than 30 degrees typically requires reduction to restore forearm rotation. Initial management should be a closed reduction, followed by percutaneous manipulation or intramedullary pinning if closed reduction fails.
Question 645
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old male presents with posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow following a dislocation. Which of the following describes the origin and insertion of the primary ligamentous restraint involved in this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral epicondyle to the radial head
Explanation
The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary restraint to PLRI of the elbow. It originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts distally on the supinator crest of the ulna.
Question 646
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow presents with a clunk during extension and supination. This condition is primarily caused by insufficiency of which ligamentous structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Annular ligament
Explanation
PLRI occurs due to deficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The LUCL serves as a primary restraint preventing posterior subluxation of the radial head relative to the capitellum.
Question 647
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
An 8-year-old boy is evaluated for a cosmetic deformity of his elbow three years after sustaining a supracondylar humerus fracture that was treated nonoperatively. He has full range of motion and normal neurology. What is the most common long-term deformity following this injury, and what is its primary functional consequence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cubitus valgus leading to delayed ulnar neuropathy
Explanation
Cubitus varus (gunstock deformity) is the most common malunion following a pediatric supracondylar humerus fracture. It is primarily a cosmetic deformity that rarely causes functional impairment or tardy nerve palsies.
Question 648
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 7-year-old child presents with a Bado type I Monteggia fracture-dislocation (ulnar shaft fracture with anterior radial head dislocation). Closed reduction of the ulna is performed, but the radial head remains subluxated. What is the most critical technical factor to ensure stable reduction of the radial head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Restoring anatomic length and alignment of the ulna
Explanation
In a pediatric Monteggia fracture, the radial head dislocation is driven by ulnar deformity. Restoring the anatomic length and perfect alignment of the ulna is the most critical step to achieve and maintain spontaneous reduction of the radial head.
Question 649
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 5-year-old girl falls on her outstretched hand and sustains a displaced lateral condyle fracture of the humerus. Radiographs show 4 mm of displacement. If this fracture progresses to a symptomatic nonunion, which of the following long-term complications is most characteristic?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cubitus varus
Explanation
Nonunion of a lateral condyle fracture typically leads to progressive cubitus valgus deformity. Over time, this stretches the ulnar nerve, resulting in a tardy ulnar nerve palsy.
Question 650
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old woman falls on an outstretched hand and sustains an elbow injury. Imaging confirms a posterior elbow dislocation, a type II coronoid fracture, and a comminuted radial head fracture (the "terrible triad"). During surgical reconstruction, what is the standard recommended sequence of repair?
The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury begins deep and moves superficial, working from inside to outside. Coronoid fixation restores anterior stability, followed by radial head repair/replacement to restore the anterior column, and finally LCL repair to restore posterolateral stability.
Question 651
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
During surgical reconstruction for a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow, what is the recommended sequence of repair to best restore elbow stability?
The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury addresses the structures from deep to superficial: first fixing the coronoid, then repairing or replacing the radial head, and finally repairing the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex.
Question 652
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
During surgical decompression for recalcitrant intersection syndrome, the surgeon identifies intense tenosynovitis at the crossing point of two muscle bellies over two underlying tendons. The muscle bellies involved in this pathology belong to the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
Explanation
Intersection syndrome is a painful tenosynovitis occurring where the muscle bellies of the first dorsal compartment (APL and EPB) cross over the tendons of the second dorsal compartment (ECRL and ECRB). It typically presents with pain and swelling approximately 4 to 6 cm proximal to Lister's tubercle.
Question 653
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient is evaluated for posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow following a dislocation. This condition is primarily associated with incompetence of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). What is the exact distal insertion site of the LUCL?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial tuberosity
Explanation
The LUCL originates on the lateral epicondyle and passes posterior to the radial head to insert on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. It acts as the primary restraint against posterolateral subluxation of the radial head.
Question 654
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 25-year-old female sustains a closed distal humerus fracture involving the capitellum and lateral trochlea extending into the lateral column. Which classification best describes this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bryan-Morrey Type I
Explanation
The Bryan-Morrey Type IV fracture involves a shear fracture of the capitellum that extends medially to include most of the trochlea. This is also known as a Hahn-Steinthal fracture with lateral trochlear extension.
Question 655
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 30-year-old man sustains a Bado Type I Monteggia fracture-dislocation. The ulnar shaft fracture is anatomically reduced and plated, but the radial head remains dislocated anteriorly. What is the most common anatomic structure blocking the reduction of the radial head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Biceps tendon
Explanation
In Monteggia fracture-dislocations, anatomic fixation of the ulna typically reduces the radial head. If the radial head remains unreduced, the most common structure interposed and blocking reduction is the annular ligament.
Question 656
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old man presents with a "terrible triad" injury of the elbow following a fall. What is the widely accepted standard sequence for surgical reconstruction of this injury?
The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad injury works from deep to superficial: repair the coronoid first, then fix or replace the radial head, and finally repair the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The MCL is only addressed if the elbow remains grossly unstable after lateral-sided repair.
Question 657
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 6-year-old boy presents with a Bado Type I Monteggia fracture-dislocation. Closed reduction of the ulna correctly restores length and alignment, but the radial head remains anteriorly dislocated on radiographs. What is the most common anatomical block to the reduction of the radial head in this scenario?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Interposition of the annular ligament
Explanation
In Bado Type I Monteggia injuries where the ulna is anatomically reduced but the radial head remains dislocated, the most common block to reduction is interposition of the annular ligament or joint capsule. Open reduction of the radiocapitellar joint is required to clear the interposed tissue.
Question 658
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old female falls onto an outstretched hand and sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. Which of the following represents the most accepted surgical sequence for reconstructing this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fixation of the coronoid, followed by radial head repair/replacement, then lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair
Explanation
The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury works deep to superficial from lateral to medial. It involves fixing the coronoid first, addressing the radial head (repair or replacement), and finally repairing the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL).
Question 659
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A professional baseball pitcher presents with chronic medial elbow pain and decreased throwing velocity. He describes a "pop" during a pitch several months ago. Examination reveals tenderness over the medial epicondyle, a positive valgus stress test at 30 degrees of elbow flexion, and a positive moving valgus stress test. Radiographs show no acute fractures but reveal subtle calcification within the medial collateral ligament. What is the MOST likely diagnosis and definitive treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial epicondylitis; PRP injection
Explanation
The presentation is classic for ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) insufficiency in an overhead athlete: acute "pop" during throwing, chronic medial elbow pain, decreased velocity, tenderness over the UCL, and positive valgus stress tests (both static and moving). Subtle calcification within the ligament supports chronic injury. Medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow) typically causes pain with resisted wrist flexion/pronation and is less associated with acute instability or a 'pop'. Ulnar nerve entrapment would present with paresthesias in the ring/small fingers. Flexor-pronator strain is possible but less likely to cause instability on valgus stress. Olecranon stress fractures cause pain primarily with extension. For a professional athlete with symptomatic UCL insufficiency, UCL reconstruction (Tommy John surgery) is the definitive treatment to restore stability and allow return to high-level throwing.
Question 660
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old male bodybuilder experiences a sudden, sharp pain in his elbow while lifting a heavy weight. He notices a "pop" and immediate weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination. Examination reveals a palpable defect in the distal biceps tendon, ecchymosis in the antecubital fossa, and a positive "hook test". What is the MOST appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Conservative management with sling immobilization
Explanation
The patient's presentation is classic for an acute distal biceps tendon rupture (sudden pain, "pop," weakness in flexion and supination, palpable defect, positive hook test). For active individuals, especially those involved in heavy lifting, surgical repair is the gold standard treatment to restore strength and endurance in elbow flexion and forearm supination. The repair involves reattaching the ruptured tendon to its anatomical insertion on the radial tuberosity. Conservative management leads to significant functional deficits. Reattachment to the brachialis is not anatomically correct and will not restore supination strength. Debridement is insufficient. Corticosteroid injections are contraindicated as they can weaken tendons and increase rupture risk.
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