This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Elbow & Forearm. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 581
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old man falls on his outstretched arm, sustaining an elbow dislocation with associated radial head and coronoid process fractures. After operative restoration of the coronoid and radial head, the elbow remains unstable in extension. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Repair the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL).
Explanation
The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury involves coronoid fixation, radial head repair or replacement, and LUCL repair. If the elbow remains unstable after these steps, MCL repair or a hinged external fixator may be considered.
Question 582
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old man undergoes volar locked plating for a displaced distal radius fracture. Six months later, he presents with an inability to actively extend his thumb interphalangeal joint. This complication is most likely due to rupture of which structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor pollicis longus (EPL).
Explanation
Prominent dorsal screws extending past the dorsal cortex in a volar plate construct are a common cause of extensor tendon irritation and EPL rupture. The EPL is particularly vulnerable as it curves around Lister's tubercle.
Question 583
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 28-year-old woman falls from a height, sustaining a highly comminuted, unsalvageable radial head fracture and positive ulnar variance at the wrist with distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) instability. What is the most appropriate management of the radial head in this setting?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial head arthroplasty and distal radioulnar joint pinning.
Explanation
This is an Essex-Lopresti injury involving longitudinal radioulnar dissociation. Excision of the radial head without replacement leads to proximal radial migration; therefore, radial head arthroplasty combined with DRUJ stabilization is required.
Question 584
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 40-year-old woman falls on her outstretched hand and sustains a capitellum fracture. Radiographs show a large anterior osteochondral fragment that includes the capitellum and the lateral half of the trochlea. This describes which type of fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type 4 (McKee modification).
Explanation
A Type 4 capitellum fracture (McKee modification of the Bryan and Morrey classification) involves a coronal shear fracture that includes the capitellum and the lateral half of the trochlea. It often requires stable anatomic fixation to prevent post-traumatic arthrosis.
Question 585
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old female presents with a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow consisting of an elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, and coronoid fracture. What is the standard sequence of repair during surgical reconstruction?
The standard surgical sequence for terrible triad injuries addresses structures from deep to superficial: coronoid fixation first, followed by radial head repair or replacement, and finally lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) repair.
Question 586
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 40-year-old weightlifter undergoes an anterior single-incision repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture. Postoperatively, he reports numbness over the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
Explanation
The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LACN) is the terminal sensory branch of the musculocutaneous nerve and courses near the cephalic vein in the lateral forearm. It is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior distal biceps repair.
Question 587
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand, sustaining a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. During surgical reconstruction, what is the generally recommended sequence of repair to restore elbow stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid, then radial head, then lateral collateral ligament complex
Explanation
The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury is repairing deep to superficial. This involves addressing the coronoid first, followed by the radial head (repair or replace), and finally the lateral collateral ligament complex.
Question 588
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
In the surgical management of a "terrible triad" injury of the elbow, which of the following represents the most accepted sequence of repair after exposing the joint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid fixation, LCL repair, radial head repair
Explanation
Standard protocol for the terrible triad includes coronoid fixation, radial head repair or replacement, followed by lateral collateral ligament (LCL) repair. This inside-out sequence restores anterior skeletal stability before addressing the lateral ligamentous restraints.
Question 589
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 35-year-old woman sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, and coronoid fracture). Surgical fixation is planned. What is the generally accepted sequence of repair to restore stability?
The standard surgical algorithm for a terrible triad injury proceeds from deep to superficial: coronoid fixation first, followed by the radial head, and finally the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex. MCL repair is only considered if the elbow remains grossly unstable after these steps.
Question 590
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 30-year-old male presents with elbow clicking and apprehension when pushing up from a chair. Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) is diagnosed. The primary deficient structure originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supinator crest of the ulna
Explanation
Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) results from insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The LUCL originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna, acting as the primary restraint to varus and external rotatory stress.
Question 591
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with an inability to actively extend their thumb interphalangeal joint. Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon is suspected. The EPL tendon normally routes around Lister's tubercle, separating which two dorsal extensor compartments?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Compartments 2 and 3
Explanation
Lister's tubercle acts as a mechanical pulley for the EPL tendon, which resides in the 3rd dorsal compartment. It separates the 2nd dorsal compartment (containing the ECRL and ECRB) from the 3rd compartment.
Question 592
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
The distal biceps tendon normally inserts on the radial tuberosity. To maximize supination strength during a surgical repair of a ruptured tendon, it should be reattached to which specific footprint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior aspect of the radial tuberosity
Explanation
The native distal biceps tendon inserts on the ulnar/posterior aspect of the radial tuberosity. Reattaching it as posterior as possible maximizes the supination moment arm and restores functional strength.
Question 593
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 28-year-old gymnast sustains an elbow dislocation. After closed reduction, she has persistent posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI). Deficiency of which of the following structures is the primary cause of this instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
Explanation
The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary stabilizer against posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow. It originates from the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the supinator crest of the ulna.
Question 594
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient presents with posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow following a dislocation. This condition is primarily caused by insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). Where does the LUCL anatomically insert?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supinator crest of the ulna
Explanation
The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary restraint to posterolateral rotatory instability of the elbow. It originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna.
Question 595
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
During the proximal portion of the volar (Henry) approach to the forearm, supination of the forearm is performed to protect a major nerve. Which muscle's insertion is stripped and elevated to expose the proximal radius, and what is the anatomical relationship of the at-risk nerve to this muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supinator; the nerve lies within the substance of the muscle between its superficial and deep heads.
Explanation
In the volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius, the supinator muscle is elevated to expose the bone. Supinating the forearm protects the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN), which safely moves laterally away from the surgical field as it courses between the superficial and deep heads of the supinator.
Question 596
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
Posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow is primarily caused by insufficiency of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). What is the precise insertion of the LUCL?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supinator crest of the ulna
Explanation
The LUCL originates on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus, blends with the annular ligament, and inserts on the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. Its insufficiency is the primary lesion in posterolateral rotatory instability.
Question 597
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
The lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) is the primary stabilizer against posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow. Where does the LUCL typically insert?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral epicondyle
Explanation
The LUCL originates from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and inserts onto the supinator crest of the proximal ulna. Disruption of this ligament leads to posterolateral rotatory instability.
Question 598
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 2-year-old girl presents with her arm held closely to her side in slight flexion and pronation. Her father reports pulling her by the arm to prevent a fall. Radiographs are normal. What anatomical structure is subluxated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Annular ligament
Explanation
Nursemaid's elbow is a radial head subluxation caused by axial traction on a pronated and extended forearm. The annular ligament slips over the radial head and becomes interposed between the radius and the capitellum.
Question 599
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
In a patient with a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow (elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, coronoid fracture), what is the most appropriate surgical sequence to restore elbow stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair
Explanation
The standard surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury works deep to superficial. This involves fixation of the coronoid first, followed by radial head repair or replacement, and finally repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex.
Question 600
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient falls on an outstretched hand and complains of lateral elbow pain. Radiographs show a comminuted radial head fracture. There is also marked tenderness over the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). If the radial head is excised without replacement, what complication is most likely to occur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal migration of the radius
Explanation
The patient has an Essex-Lopresti lesion, consisting of a radial head fracture, interosseous membrane disruption, and DRUJ injury. Excision of the radial head without prosthetic replacement in this setting will lead to profound proximal radial migration and chronic wrist pain.
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