Question 541
Topic: Elbow & ForearmCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Type IV (McKee modification)
Practice Set 28 of 57
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Elbow & Forearm. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Type IV (McKee modification)
A 45-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a terrible triad injury of the elbow. What is the recommended surgical sequence for repairing these injuries?
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation, LCL repair
A 45-year-old man sustains a terrible triad injury of the elbow consisting of an elbow dislocation, radial head fracture, and coronoid fracture. What is the generally recommended surgical sequence of reconstruction?
. Coronoid fixation, LCL repair, radial head repair or replacement
A 45-year-old man sustains a terrible triad injury to his elbow. During surgical reconstruction, what is the recommended sequence of repair to restore elbow stability?
. Coronoid, radial head, LUCL
A 42-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a "terrible triad" injury to his elbow. During surgical reconstruction, what is the recommended sequence of repair to restore elbow stability?
. Coronoid, radial head, lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
A 35-year-old woman sustains a displaced type I (Hahn-Steinthal) capitellum fracture. What is the most appropriate management?
. Open reduction and internal fixation with headless compression screws
A 40-year-old man sustains a highly comminuted radial head fracture, an interosseous membrane disruption, and a DRUJ dislocation. What is the most appropriate management strategy?
. Radial head arthroplasty and DRUJ stabilization
A 45-year-old male falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. During surgical intervention, what is the most appropriate standard sequence of repair?
. Coronoid, radial head, lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
During a single-incision anterior approach for a distal biceps tendon repair, injury to which nerve is the most frequently reported complication?
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
A 40-year-old male sustains an Essex-Lopresti injury characterized by a comminuted radial head fracture, interosseous membrane tear, and DRUJ disruption. If the radial head is unreconstructible, what is the most appropriate management?
. Radial head arthroplasty and DRUJ stabilization
A 35-year-old male presents with a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow after a fall from a ladder. When performing surgical stabilization, what is the generally accepted optimal sequence of repair for the injured structures?
. Coronoid, Radial Head, Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Radial head arthroplasty
A 40-year-old male falls from a height and sustains a highly comminuted, unsalvageable radial head fracture, accompanied by distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) instability. What is the most appropriate management of the radial head?
. Radial head arthroplasty
A 35-year-old female presents with an isolated coronal shear fracture of the capitellum with no posterior comminution. If open reduction and internal fixation with headless compression screws is planned, what is the biomechanically optimal screw trajectory?
. Posterior to anterior
A 45-year-old falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a terrible triad injury of the elbow. Which of the following is the recommended surgical sequence of fixation?
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation, LCL repair
A 35-year-old woman sustains a comminuted radial head fracture with more than 3 articular fragments that cannot be anatomically reconstructed. There is an associated disruption of the medial collateral ligament. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
. Radial head arthroplasty
. Tear of the interosseous membrane (Essex-Lopresti injury)
In the O'Driscoll classification of coronoid fractures, an anteromedial facet fracture is most commonly associated with which specific mechanism and injury pattern?
. Varus posteromedial rotatory instability (VPMRI)
A 45-year-old female presents with a coronal shear fracture of the capitellum extending into the trochlea (Hahn-Steinthal or Bryan and Morrey Type I).
What is the optimal surgical approach and internal fixation strategy?

. Lateral approach with headless compression screws placed anterior-to-posterior
A 35-year-old male sustains a terrible triad injury to the elbow after a fall from a ladder. During the standard surgical reconstruction, what is the generally recommended sequence of repair?
. Coronoid, radial head, lateral collateral ligament