This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Elbow & Forearm. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 221
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 45-year-old female presents with a comminuted radial head fracture, acute wrist pain, and tenderness along the forearm interosseous membrane following a fall on an outstretched hand. Which of the following treatments is contraindicated in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial head arthroplasty
Explanation
This presentation is classic for an Essex-Lopresti injury (longitudinal radioulnar dissociation). Excision of the radial head without replacement removes the primary remaining stabilizer against proximal radial migration, inevitably leading to severe ulnocarpal impaction.
Question 222
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
In the surgical management of a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow, what is the generally accepted and most biomechanically sound sequence of repair?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid fixation, radial head fixation/replacement, LCL repair
Explanation
The standard deep-to-superficial surgical sequence for a terrible triad injury is fixation of the coronoid fracture first, followed by repair or replacement of the radial head, and finally repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex.
Question 223
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 25-year-old sustains a highly comminuted Essex-Lopresti injury. The radial head is deemed unreconstructible. What is the most appropriate management to prevent proximal migration of the radius?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Metallic radial head arthroplasty
Explanation
Essex-Lopresti injuries involve a radial head fracture, interosseous membrane tear, and DRUJ disruption. A metallic radial head arthroplasty is required to restore the lateral column and prevent proximal radial migration.
Question 224
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
In the surgical treatment of a Dubberley Type IV capitellum fracture, which surgical approach provides optimal visualization of the capitellum, lateral trochlea, and the posterior aspect of the lateral column?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extended lateral (Kocher) approach
Explanation
The extended lateral (Kocher) approach utilizes the internervous plane between the extensor carpi ulnaris and anconeus, providing excellent exposure of the capitellum, lateral trochlea, and posterior lateral column for rigid fixation.
Question 225
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient presents with a Type I Monteggia fracture-dislocation. Following anatomic open reduction and internal fixation of the ulna, the radial head remains subluxated. What is the most common anatomical structure blocking the reduction of the radial head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Interposed annular ligament
Explanation
The annular ligament is the most common structure to become interposed and physically block the reduction of the radial head in Monteggia fracture-dislocations even after ulnar length has been anatomically restored.
Question 226
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 38-year-old female presents after a fall on an outstretched hand. Radiographs demonstrate a coronal shear fracture of the distal humerus. The lateral radiograph displays a 'double arc' sign. Based on this radiographic finding, which of the following anatomical structures are involved?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The capitellum and the lateral ridge of the trochlea (McKee modification)
Explanation
The 'double arc' sign on a lateral radiograph is pathognomonic for a Type IV capitellum fracture (McKee modification). It indicates extension of the coronal shear fracture into the trochlea.
Question 227
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 24-year-old male sustained a highly displaced midshaft fracture of the radius. The surgeon elects to use the dorsal Thompson approach. During the deep dissection to expose the proximal half of the radius, the intermuscular interval lies between which of the following muscle bellies?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis and Extensor Digitorum Communis
Explanation
The superficial interval of the Thompson approach to the dorsal radius is between the Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB) and the Extensor Digitorum Communis (EDC). The deep dissection requires splitting or elevating the supinator.
Question 228
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 42-year-old woman falls from a height and sustains a severely comminuted, unfixable radial head fracture along with acute, severe wrist pain. Clinical exam reveals gross instability of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the proximal injury to prevent chronic disability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial head arthroplasty
Explanation
This patient has an Essex-Lopresti injury (radial head fracture, interosseous membrane tear, DRUJ dissociation). Radial head arthroplasty (metallic) is mandatory to restore the longitudinal column of the forearm and prevent proximal migration of the radius.
Question 229
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
Restoration of the forearm's axis of rotation is critical during ORIF of both-bone forearm fractures. Anatomically and biomechanically, the normal axis of forearm pronation and supination passes through which of the following landmarks?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Center of the radial head proximally to the fovea of the ulnar head distally
Explanation
The longitudinal axis of rotation of the forearm runs obliquely from the center of the radial head proximally to the center of the ulnar head (fovea) distally.
Question 230
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 31-year-old female presents with a 'terrible triad' injury of the elbow. Surgical management is planned. According to standard treatment algorithms for this injury pattern, what is the most widely accepted sequence of reconstruction to restore elbow stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid fixation/replacement, followed by radial head fixation/replacement, then LCL repair
Explanation
The standard sequence of reconstruction for a terrible triad injury proceeds from deep to superficial: fixation or replacement of the coronoid first, followed by the radial head, and finally repair of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex.
Question 231
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 42-year-old female presents with a Bado Type I Monteggia fracture-dislocation. She undergoes anatomic rigid plate fixation of the ulnar shaft, but intraoperatively the radial head remains anteriorly dislocated. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loosen the ulnar plate and reassess ulnar reduction and length
Explanation
In a Monteggia fracture, the radial head typically reduces spontaneously once the ulna is anatomically restored in length and alignment. If the radial head remains dislocated, the surgeon must suspect ulnar malreduction and reassess the ulnar fixation before attempting open reduction of the radial head.
Question 232
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
During ORIF of a middle-third diaphyseal fracture of the radius using a dorsal (Thompson) approach, the surgeon must identify and protect the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN). The PIN typically exits the supinator muscle and runs distally between which two muscle bellies in the proximal forearm?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. ECRB and EDC
Explanation
During the dorsal (Thompson) approach to the proximal radius, the PIN is at risk. It courses out of the distal edge of the supinator muscle and travels distally in the intermuscular plane between the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) and the extensor digitorum communis (EDC).
Question 233
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 60-year-old female sustains a coronal shear fracture of the distal humerus involving the capitellum and extending medially to include the lateral trochlear ridge. According to the Bryan and Morrey classification modified by McKee, what type of fracture is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type IV
Explanation
A Type IV Bryan-Morrey fracture (McKee's modification) is a coronal shear fracture that involves the capitellum and extends medially to include the majority of the trochlea (lateral trochlear ridge). This extension requires rigorous internal fixation to prevent joint subluxation.
Question 234
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 38-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a fall onto an outstretched hand with his forearm supinated, experiencing an axial load and valgus stress on his elbow. Clinical examination and imaging confirm a terrible triad injury. Based on the described mechanism, which of the following structures is most likely the *initial* ligamentous injury to occur in this sequential pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral Ulnar Collateral Ligament (LUCL)
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case explicitly states that the terrible triad injury (TTI) typically results from a fall onto an outstretched hand with the forearm supinated, leading to an axial load, valgus stress, and external rotation moment. This mechanism initiates a sequential pattern of soft tissue and bony injury,beginning with the LUCL complex, progressing to the radial head, and finally involving the coronoid. The LUCL is the primary stabilizer against posterolateral rotatory subluxation and is invariably disrupted in TTI.Options A and B are incorrect because the MCL complex is typically spared in a primary TTI, although its integrity must always be assessed. Options D and E are components of the lateral collateral ligament complex, but the LUCL is specifically identified as the primary stabilizer against posterolateral rotatory subluxation and the initial structure to fail in this injury pattern.
Question 235
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A terrible triad injury involves a combination of radial head fracture, coronoid process fracture, and disruption of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL) complex. Each of these components contributes to elbow stability. Which of the following bony structures is described as a key anterior stabilizer, primarily resisting posterior displacement of the ulna relative to the humerus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronoid process
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case states under 'Surgical Anatomy & Biomechanics' that the 'Coronoid process is a key anterior stabilizer, resisting posterior displacement of the ulna relative to the humerus. Fractures of the coronoid significantly compromise this inherent bony stability.' This highlights its crucial role in preventing posterior dislocation of the elbow.The radial head (Option A) contributes to valgus stability and resistance to axial loading. The olecranon process (Option B) forms the posterior part of the trochlear notch but is not the primary anterior buttress. The lateral epicondyle (Option D) is an origin for ligaments and muscles, not a primary anterior bony stabilizer. The capitellum (Option E) is part of the distal humerus and articulates with the radial head, but it is not an anterior stabilizer of the ulna.
Question 236
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 55-year-old patient presents with a suspected terrible triad injury after a fall. Initial plain radiographs confirm an elbow dislocation and a comminuted radial head fracture. The surgeon is planning for operative intervention.
Based on the provided image and the case description, which imaging modality is *absolutely essential* for comprehensive pre-operative planning in this case, and what specific information does it provide?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Computed Tomography (CT) scan with 3D reconstructions to detail coronoid and radial head fracture morphology.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case explicitly states under 'Diagnostic Workup' that a 'Computed Tomography (CT) Scan:Absolutely essential.A high-resolution CT scan with 3D reconstructions provides invaluable information regarding: Coronoid fracture morphology (size, comminution, displacement, and involvement of the sublime tubercle); Radial head fracture pattern (number of fragments, displacement, articular step-off, and associated impaction); Humerus and ulna integrity; Congruity of reduction.' The image provided is an example of such a CT scan, further emphasizing its importance.Option A (MRI) can provide detailed information about ligamentous injuries but is not routinely required acutely and is described as supplementary. Option B (Ultrasound) is useful for soft tissue and vascular assessment but does not provide the detailed bony architecture needed for surgical planning of complex fractures. Option D (Stress radiographs) can confirm instability but does not provide the detailed fracture morphology. Option E (Arthrography) is rarely used acutely for TTI and is less informative than CT for bony injuries.
Question 237
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A 42-year-old patient presents with an elbow dislocation, a Mason Type III radial head fracture, and an O'Driscoll Type II coronoid fracture involving 15% of the coronoid height. After closed reduction, the elbow remains grossly unstable through a 30-130 degree arc of motion with gentle valgus and rotational stress. The patient is medically fit for surgery. Based on the case description, what is the most appropriate management strategy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) of the radial head, coronoid repair, and LUCL repair.
Explanation
The case states that all terrible triad injuries, by definition, involve a combination of radial head fracture, coronoid fracture, and LUCL disruption leading to gross elbow instability, necessitating surgical stabilization. It further specifies operative indications for Mason Type III radial head fractures and O'Driscoll Type II coronoid fractures (especially if >10-15% of coronoid height is involved), and the necessity of LUCL repair. The description of gross instability after reduction is a definitive indication for surgery.
Question 238
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A surgeon is addressing a terrible triad injury in a 60-year-old patient. The radial head is found to be severely comminuted (Mason Type IV) and unreconstructible, making ORIF unfeasible. Referring to the intra-operative field shown and the principles outlined in the case, which of the following is the preferred management strategy for this radial head fracture in the context of a terrible triad injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial head arthroplasty to restore radial length and provide a buttress against valgus stress.
Explanation
Radial head arthroplasty is the preferred option for severely comminuted or unreconstructible Mason Type III or IV fractures. Implants can be metal or pyrocarbon. The goal is to restore the correct radial length and provide a buttress against valgus stress. Radial head excision is generally contraindicated in TTI due to profound loss of valgus and axial stability.
Question 239
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
Following successful repair of the coronoid and radial head in a terrible triad injury, the surgeon proceeds to address the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL). The LUCL is found to be avulsed from its humeral origin at the lateral epicondyle, with good tissue quality.
Based on the typical surgical sequence and the principles outlined in the case, which of the following best describes the next step for LUCL repair and its appropriate tensioning?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Direct repair using suture anchors into the lateral epicondyle, with the forearm in pronation and elbow flexed to 60-90 degrees.
Explanation
Correct Answer: BThe case, under 'Lateral Ulnar Collateral Ligament (LUCL) Repair/Reconstruction', states: 'If the tissue quality is good and the ligament can be reapproximated to its anatomic origin on the lateral epicondyle, suture anchors (typically 2-3) are placed into the epicondyle. Non-absorbable sutures are passed through the avulsed ligamentous tissue and tied down with the forearm inpronation and the elbow flexed to 60-90 degrees to tension the LUCL appropriately.' The image shows a post-operative radiograph consistent with internal fixation and likely ligamentous repair, supporting the surgical approach.Option A is incorrect because the forearm should be in pronation and the elbow flexed to tension the LUCL correctly, not supination and full extension. Option C (reconstruction) is for severely damaged or chronic LUCL tissue, not good quality tissue. Option D (excision) and Option E (non-operative management) are incorrect as LUCL repair is crucial for posterolateral rotatory stability and is a core component of TTI management.
Question 240
Topic: Elbow & Forearm
A patient has undergone successful surgical repair of a terrible triad injury, including coronoid fixation, radial head arthroplasty, and LUCL repair. Post-operatively, the elbow is initially immobilized in a posterior splint. In the immediate post-operative protective phase (Weeks 0-6), which of the following rehabilitation principles is most critical for optimizing outcomes while protecting the surgical repairs?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Early, controlled active-assisted range of motion within a stable arc, often favoring pronation.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case, under 'Post-Operative Rehabilitation Protocols', emphasizes 'Early Motion: Initiate controlled range of motion as soon as possible to prevent adhesion formation and stiffness.' Specifically, for the Protective Phase (Weeks 0-6): 'Active-assisted and gentle passive ROM: Initiated within the first few days to a week. The brace's range of motion is progressively increased... Forearm Rotation: Gentle pronation/supination within comfort and stability limits, often favoring pronation initially to protect the LUCL.'Option A (aggressive passive ROM into full extension) is incorrect as it risks stressing the LUCL repair and causing instability. Option B (immediate full weight-bearing and strengthening) is too aggressive and would jeopardize the repairs. Option D (complete immobilization for 6 weeks) is incorrect as it would lead to severe stiffness, which is a common complication. Option E (MUA at 2 weeks) is a treatment for acute stiffness, not a routine part of immediate post-operative rehabilitation.
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