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Question 1861

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
What is the most common fracture associated with a lateral subtalar dislocation?
. Distal fibular fracture
. Cuboid fracture
. Calcaneus fracture
. Talus fracture
. Navicular fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cuboid fracture


Explanation

The most common tarsal fracture associated with lateral dislocations is the cuboid, although the anterior process of the calcaneus and the lateral process of the talus can also be affected. In medial dislocations, the dorsomedial talar head, the posterior tubercles of the talus, and the lateral navicular are most often fractured. Post-reduction x-rays need to be scrutinized carefully for fractures of the tarsal bones as this is the most common injury associated with subtalar dislocations.

Question 1862

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

A 45-year-old previously healthy woman has experienced weakness and fatigability for 2 months. She states she feels best in the morning, but tires easily with exertion. If she sits and rests her strength improves, but she easily tires with each activity. When her fatigue is most severe, she has double vision. Physical examination is positive for ptosis with upward gaze after 20 seconds. When she holds her arms out straight she shows good initial strength, but rapidly decreasing strength with time. What is the pathologic cause of her muscle weakness? Review Topic

. Ig antibodies at the neuromuscular (NM) junction
. Decreased release of acetylcholine at the NM junction
. Decrease in myelin sheath of axonal nerves with loss of NM junction
. Absence of dystrophin with excess calcium at sarcolemma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ig antibodies at the neuromuscular (NM) junction


Explanation

The patient has myasthenia gravis, which has its onset in middle age and causes progressive weakness because of the loss of acetylcholine receptors secondary to autoimmune antibodies at the NM junction. Rest periods allow uptake of acetylcholine and initial strength, but easy fatigability. Treatment is aimed at immunomodulation; acetyl cholinesterase inhibitors often coupled with thymectomy can control symptoms. Decreased release of acetylcholine at the NM junction is the effect of a nondepolarizing drug or toxin botulinum. Patients with muscular dystrophy lack dystrophin that acts at the sarcolemma to regulate calcium channels, and onset of this condition occurs at a younger age. The decrease in myelin indicates Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease and is often seen with long axon degeneration, such as in the feet and lower legs.

Question 1863

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
On the morning of surgery, the patient reports in the preop area that she has experienced skin breakdown over the second toe for 10 days. The extensor tendon is disrupted with an exposed proximal interphalangeal joint. She has been applying antibiotic ointment to the wound and denies fever or chills. What is the best plan of care?
. Continue with plans for bunion and crossover toe correction.
. Cancel the surgery and send the patient home with empiric oral medications.
. Inform the patient that surgical joint debridement is necessary and the elective reconstructive surgery will be put on hold.
. Swab the ulcer and admit the patient for peripherally inserted central catheter line placement and intravenous antibiotics.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inform the patient that surgical joint debridement is necessary and the elective reconstructive surgery will be put on hold.


Explanation

Discussion: The clinical photograph shows a hallux valgus and a crossover toe deformity. The plantar plate must be damaged for a crossover toe deformity to develop. The surgeon must assume that the open joint is at least colonized and at significant risk for postsurgical infection; consequently, it is best to cancel elective surgery, and surgical debridement of soft tissue and bone with deep cultures is recommended.

Question 1864

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
In the Lauge-Hansen classification system, a pronation-abduction ankle fracture has what characteristic fibular fracture pattern?
. Transverse fracture at or below the level of the syndesmosis
. Short oblique fracture running from anteroinferior to posteriosuperior
. Short oblique fracture running from posteroinferior to anteriosuperior
. Comminuted fracture above the level of the syndesmosis
. Wagstaff fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Comminuted fracture above the level of the syndesmosis


Explanation

Discussion: In the Lauge-Hansen classification, the characteristic fibular fracture pattern in a pronation-abduction injury is a comminuted fibular fracture above the level of the syndesmosis. In the first stage of this injury pattern, the deltoid fails in tension, or an avulsion fracture of the medial malleolus occurs. In the second stage, the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament ruptures, or a small bony avulsion of this ligament's insertion/origin occurs. The final stage includes the creation of a comminuted fibular fracture above the level of the syndesmosis.

Question 1865

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following is a long-term complication of ankle arthrodesis for posttraumatic arthritis?
. Progressive limb-length discrepancy
. Contralateral ankle arthritis
. Ipsilateral hindfoot and midfoot arthritis
. Ipsilateral knee arthritis
. Talar osteonecrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ipsilateral hindfoot and midfoot arthritis


Explanation

Ankle arthrodesis for posttraumatic ankle arthrosis provides reliable pain relief. However, the long-term sequela of joint arthrodesis is the development of arthrosis in the surrounding joints. Over time, following ankle arthrodesis, the ipsilateral hindfoot and midfoot joints show signs of joint space wear, and this may be symptomatic.

Question 1866

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old man sustains the closed injury shown in Figures 3a through 3c after falling 8 feet while rock climbing. Management should consist of
. open reduction and internal fixation via an anteromedial arthrotomy.
. talectomy.
. primary tibiotalocalcaneal arthrodesis.
. open reduction and internal fixation via a medial malleolar osteotomy and limited anterior lateral arthrotomy.
. closed reduction and a non-weight-bearing cast.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation via a medial malleolar osteotomy and limited anterior lateral arthrotomy.


Explanation

The radiographs show a comminuted talar body fracture. The goal of treatment is to minimize the risks of posttraumatic arthrosis of the ankle and subtalar joint and to maintain vascularity. Open reduction and internal fixation with an attempt at anatomic reduction will lead to improved outcomes. Attempting to repair this fracture via an arthrotomy only is extremely difficult, and the addition of a medial malleolar osteotomy is warranted.

Question 1867

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old boy who plays multiple sports has had insidious-onset heel pain while running for 4 months. On examination, he had ankle dorsiflexion of 5 degrees. The squeeze test result was positive and the Thompson test result was negative. He has no pain with forced ankle plantar flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Achilles rupture
. Gastrocnemius strain
. Calcaneal apophysitis
. Os trigonum syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneal apophysitis


Explanation

Calcaneal apophysitis (Sever disease) is a common cause of heel pain in adolescent athletes who participate in running or jumping sports. The condition occurs primarily before or during peak growth and is characterized by a tight Achilles tendon, a positive squeeze test, and tenderness over the calcaneal apophysis. Pain is localized to the heel and exacerbated by running.

Question 1868

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 29-year-old man reports severe knee instability and popliteal pain. History reveals that he had polio of the left lower extremity as a child and has been brace-free his entire life. Examination reveals that he walks with 40° of knee hyperextension and has a fixed ankle equinus deformity of 30°. He has no active motors about the knee or ankle. Which of the following methods will provide knee stability and pain relief?
. Knee-ankle-foot orthosis with locking joints
. Knee and ankle fusion
. Soft-tissue release of the ankle and a locked knee orthosis
. Soft-tissue release of the ankle and a knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked ankle and drop-lock knee joint
. Ankle fusion and a knee-ankle-foot orthosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Soft-tissue release of the ankle and a knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked ankle and drop-lock knee joint


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The ankle equinus allows the patient to keep his weight-bearing line anterior to the axis of the hyperextended knee joint. With time, pain has developed because of continued stretching and now incompetence of the posterior capsule of the knee joint. Several soft-tissue and bony procedures have been designed to provide knee stability in this situation; however, the results have been either short-lived or inconsistent. Tenodeses, capsular plications, and bony blocks have had limited success and generally fail over time. Current orthotic technology makes soft-tissue release and orthotic control the most predictable option. To decrease the hyperextension moment on the knee joint, the ankle deformity also must be corrected. The most predictable method of achieving stability and diminished pain during walking is with soft-tissue release of the ankle and a knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked ankle and drop-lock knee joint. REFERENCE: Michael JW: Lower limb orthoses, in Goldberg B, Hsu JD (eds): Atlas of Orthoses and Assistive Devices. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1997, pp 209-224.

Question 1869

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 14 is a sagittal-cut MR image from the hindfoot of a 54-year-old woman who has had plantar heel pain for 3 months. There is no history of trauma. Her pain is worse when she rises and at the end of the day. Upon examination she has localizable tenderness over the plantar medial tubercle of the calcaneus. The Achilles is intact and nontender, and subtalar joint motion is full and painless. A Tinel test result is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Calcaneal stress fracture
. Hindfoot coalition
. Insertional Achilles tendonitis
. Plantar fasciitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plantar fasciitis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Plantar fasciitis is inflammation of the plantar fascia at its insertion onto the medial calcaneus. The T2-weighted sagittal MR image reveals thickening of the plantar fascia with no evidence of a calcaneal stress fracture, coalition, or inflammation of the insertion of the Achilles tendon. RECOMMENDED READINGS: Lareau CR, Sawyer GA, Wang JH, DiGiovanni CW. Plantar and medial heel pain: diagnosis and management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 2014 Jun;22(6):372-80.

Question 1870

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which Morton neuroma histology is most common?
. Perineural fibrosis
. Wallerian degeneration
. Distal axonopathy
. Segmental demyelination

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perineural fibrosis


Explanation

Morton neuroma is a compressive neuropathy of the interdigital nerves of the forefoot that most commonly is noted in the third web space. Perineural fibrosis is commonly noted on microscopic examination of resected tissue. This accounts for the relatively higher failure rate of neuroma decompression by transection of the intermetatarsal ligament as opposed to resection. Wallerian degeneration is seen following axonal transection in the distal part of the nerve. Distal axonopathy is degeneration of the axon and myelin and is associated with "stocking-glove" distribution neuropathy. Segmental demyelination is characterized by breakdown of myelin with an intact axon and is associated with lead poisoning and hereditary sensory motor neuropathy.

Question 1871

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

The injection shown in Figures 1a and 1b would most benefit a patient who reports which of the following symptoms? Review Topic

. Dorsal foot pain extending into the great toe
. Foot pain extending along the lateral border of the foot
. Pain extending into the foot in a stocking distribution
. Anterior thigh and shin pain ending at the ankle
. Lateral foot paresthesias

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal foot pain extending into the great toe


Explanation

The images demonstrate a L5 selective root block as it exits the L5-S1 foramen. This root block best helps relieve pain or paresthesias in the L5 distribution, which is the dorsal first web space and the great toe. The lateral foot is an S1 distribution and would need to be blocked through the posterior first sacral foramen. The anterior shin and thigh represent the L4 root which exits a level above this at the L4-5 foramen. A stocking distribution is nonanatomic and not indicative of a specific root.

Question 1872

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 61-year-old woman has increasing pain in her left great toe. She states that she has had discomfort for years but now has pain with all shoe wear. A radiograph is shown. To provide the most predictable pain-free result, treatment should consist of:
. distal chevron bunionectomy.
. proximal first metatarsal osteotomy with distal soft-tissue realignment.
. dorsal cheilectomy of the first metatarsophalangeal joint.
. arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint.
. silicone arthroplasty.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint.


Explanation

Because the patient has a hallux valgus with increased intermetatarsal and hallux valgus angles and advanced degenerative arthritis of the joint, arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint will provide the most predictable pain-free result. An attempt to correct the bunion with a bunionectomy or osteotomy would most likely fail. The hallux valgus and advanced degenerative changes put the foot beyond the indications for a cheilectomy. Long-term results with silicone arthroplasty have been disappointing.

Question 1873

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
What nerve is most likely to develop a traumatic neuroma following open reduction and internal fixation of a talar neck fracture via a posterolateral approach?
. Dorsal intermediate cutaneous
. Sural
. Saphenous
. Medial plantar
. Lateral plantar (Baxter)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sural


Explanation

The preferred approach is posterolateral, placing the sural nerve most at risk. The dorsal intermediate cutaneous nerve is anterolateral to the ankle, and the medial and lateral plantar branches are medial and inferior to the surgical site. The saphenous nerve is anteromedial and away from the surgical approach.

Question 1874

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 40-year-old man fell 10 feet from a tree and sustained the closed isolated injury shown. Management consists of splinting. At his 2-week follow-up visit, he clinically passes the wrinkle test. He agrees to open reduction and internal fixation. What is the best surgical approach to obtain anatomic reduction and limit wound dehiscence?
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral approach, extensile right-angled lateral incision, vertical limb 0.5 cm anterior to the Achilles tendon, and horizontal limb at the junction of the lateral skin and the plantar glabrous skin
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral approach, extensile right-angled lateral incision, vertical limb 2.0 cm anterior to the Achilles tendon, and horizontal limb 2.0 cm proximal to the line marking the plantar glabrous skin
. Sinus tarsi approach
. Ollier approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral approach, extensile right-angled lateral incision, vertical limb 0.5 cm anterior to the Achilles tendon, and horizontal limb at the junction of the lateral skin and the plantar glabrous skin


Explanation

The current extensile lateral approach was described by Zwipp and associates. The surgical exposure uses an L-shaped incision, with the vertical component positioned one half a finger’s breadth anterior to the Achilles tendon and extending distally to the junction of the lateral skin and the plantar skin. Borrelli and Lashgari mapped the angiosome of the lateral calcaneal flap and found that the major arterial blood supply to this flap consisted of three arteries: the lateral calcaneal artery, the lateral malleolar artery, and the lateral tarsal artery. The lateral calcaneal artery appeared to be responsible for most of the blood supply to the corner of the flap. This was found 1.5 cm anterior to the Achilles tendon. Division of this artery with inaccurate placement of the vertical limb of the incision can cause ischemia of the lateral skin flap.

Question 1875

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 6-year-old girl is brought in for orthopaedic examination because she “walks funny” and occasionally trips. Her feet are normal in appearance. Internal rotation of her hips is 60 degrees and external rotation is 40 degrees bilaterally. The thigh-foot angle on the right is -20 degrees, and +10 degrees on the left. What is the source of her gait abnormality?

. Increased femoral anteversion
. Increased femoral retroversion
. Internal tibial torsion, right
. External tibial torsion, left

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased femoral anteversion


Explanation

Normal rotation in the hips should total approximately 100 degrees. Hip internal rotation is usually greater than external rotation, especially in girls. The thigh-foot angle is measured in a prone position and measures the angle the midaxis of the foot subtends with the midline of the thigh. The thigh-foot angle quantifies tibial rotation. Normal adult thigh-foot angle is approximately 10 to 15 degrees. This patient has increased internal rotation of the right tibia compared with the left; this is the likely cause of her gait problem.

Question 1876

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Where is the watershed zone for tarsal navicular vascularity?
. Medial one third
. Central one third
. Lateral one third
. Tuberosity
. Inferior pole

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central one third


Explanation

The central one third has been established as the watershed zone by angiographic studies, and has been borne out in clinical conditions involving the navicular, such as stress fractures and osteonecrosis.

Question 1877

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 17-year-old high school football player injures his right ankle during a game. Examination reveals swelling and a closed ankle deformity, with normal foot circulation and sensation. Radiographs are shown in Figures 10a and 10b. In addition to closed reduction, management should include
. cast immobilization.
. delayed fixation of the medial malleolus.
. immediate fixation of the medial malleolus and plating of the fibula.
. immediate fixation of the medial malleolus, plating of the fibula, and placement of a syndesmotic screw.
. immediate fixation of the medial malleolus and placement of a syndesmotic screw.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. immediate fixation of the medial malleolus and plating of the fibula.


Explanation

The examination and radiographs reveal a closed fracture-dislocation of the ankle with tibiofibular diastasis. Immediate fixation of the medial malleolus and plating of the fibula are indicated. If residual tibiofibular diastasis occurs with lateral translation of the fibula after plating, a syndesmotic screw is placed to stabilize the syndesmosis. Ankle fracture-dislocations associated with a proximal fibular fracture (Maisonneuve fracture) require syndesmotic fixation, but the fibula is not plated. Unstable ankle fractures require surgical treatment. If swelling is severe (fracture blisters, loss of skin wrinkling), a compressive splint is applied and surgery is delayed for 5 to 7 days.

Question 1878

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 25a and 25b show the radiographs of a 66-year-old man who has had a long history of bilateral painful flatfoot deformities. Examination reveals that his foot is partially correctable passively, albeit with discomfort, and he has an Achilles tendon contracture. An ankle-foot orthosis has failed to provide relief. Treatment should now consist of
. UCBL orthoses.
. triple arthrodesis with Achilles tendon lengthening.
. medial calcaneal osteotomy with posterior tibial tendon reconstruction and flexor digitorum longus tendon transfer.
. medial calcaneal osteotomy with posterior tibial tendon reconstruction, flexor digitorum longus tendon transfer, and lateral column lengthening.
. gastrocnemius lengthening and serial casting.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. triple arthrodesis with Achilles tendon lengthening.


Explanation

The patient has a pronounced deformity with pain and degenerative arthritis; therefore, triple arthrodesis is the treatment of choice. Gastrocnemius or Achilles tendon lengthening may be a necessary adjunct to the triple arthrodesis, but alone is inadequate to allow for correction.

Question 1879

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An elite gymnast injured her ankle in an awkward dismount 36 hours ago. Examination reveals weakness on single leg step-up. A clinical photograph of the medial ankle is shown in Figure 15. Plain radiographs are normal. To help confirm the diagnosis, the next step in evaluation should consist of
. MRI to assess for posterior tibialis tendon damage.
. enhanced CT to assess for an osteochondral fracture.
. tenography of the peroneal tendons to assess for tendon sheath tearing with subluxation.
. a bone scan to assess for occult fracture.
. arthroscopy of the ankle to assess for articular cartilage damage.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI to assess for posterior tibialis tendon damage.


Explanation

Ecchymosis on the medial side of the ankle is distributed in the posterior tibialis tendon sheath location, posterior to the medial malleolus, and extending inferiorly to the tendon’s attachment on the navicular. MRI is the imaging study of choice to determine the extent of tendon damage.

Question 1880

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A patient notes pain under the first metatarsophalangeal joint following a soccer injury. The MRI scans reveal what pathologic finding?
. Sesamoid fracture
. Phalangeal fracture
. Osteochondral lesion
. Disruption of the plantar plate
. Rupture of the flexor hallucis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Disruption of the plantar plate


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The MRI scans show a complete disruption of the sesamoid complex with proximal retraction of the medial sesamoid and high signal originating from the site normally occupied by the plantar plate (metatarsophalangeal ligament). This injury is the result of a hyperextension injury and is a severe variant of a turf toe.