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Question 1841

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 28a through 28d show the radiographs and MRI scans of a 20-year-old basketball player who sustained an inversion injury to his right ankle. Management should consist of
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. a short leg cast for 6 weeks.
. ankle arthroscopy, removal of the fragment, and drilling of the base of the lesion.
. ankle arthroscopy and internal fixation.
. functional ankle rehabilitation that emphasizes range of motion, peroneal strengthening, and proprioceptive training.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ankle arthroscopy, removal of the fragment, and drilling of the base of the lesion.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Osteochondral fractures involving the talar dome have been classified based on radiographic and MRI findings. A nondisplaced and incomplete fracture may be treated effectively with a short leg cast and no weight bearing for 6 weeks. This patient has a complete, separated, and displaced osteochondral fragment involving the midlateral talar dome that will most likely cause pain, mechanical symptoms, and effusion if treated nonsurgically. In addition, there is very little bone remaining on the fragment, making the likelihood of healing with open reduction and internal fixation problematic. The treatment of choice includes arthroscopy, removal of the loose fragment, curettage or drilling of the base, and a rehabilitation program that emphasizes peroneal strengthening, range of motion, and proprioceptive training. REFERENCES: Lutter LD, Mizel MS, Pfeffer GB (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 205-226. Baker CL, Morales RW: Arthroscopic treatment of tranchondral talar dome fractures: A long-term follow-up study. Arthroscopy 1999;15:197-202.

Question 1842

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following is most predictive of a medial side ankle injury in the presence of a fibula fracture above the level of the joint?
. Severe medial ankle tenderness
. Severe medial ankle ecchymosis
. Stress radiographs showing the medial clear space measuring 6 mm and the superior joint space measuring 3 mm
. Inability to ambulate
. Medial ankle swelling

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stress radiographs showing the medial clear space measuring 6 mm and the superior joint space measuring 3 mm


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Isolated Lauge-Hansen supination-external rotation-type ankle fractures comprise 20% to 40% of ankle fractures and nonsurgical management is effective for managing SER-2 ankle fractures. Tornetta and associates recently showed that medial ankle tenderness, ecchymosis, and swelling are not reliable findings when trying to determine deltoid competence. Stress radiographs showing a medial clear space of greater than 4 mm or one that is also 1 mm greater than the superior joint space, or any lateral talar subluxation are indicative of deltoid incompetence and indicative of a SER-4 ankle fracture.

Question 1843

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The patient shown in Figure 44 reports that her toes hurt when she walks. Management should consist of
. shoe modifications for comfort.
. fourth metatarsal lengthening.
. fourth metatarsophalangeal fusion.
. fourth ray resection.
. soft-tissue releases and muscle balancing.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. shoe modifications for comfort.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Brachymetatarsia is a congenital hypoplasia of one or more metatarsals. Shortening of the fourth metatarsal is the most common form of brachymetatarsia and is often bilateral. Taping and manipulative reduction attempts are ineffective, and extensor tenotomy and capsulotomy are not likely to sufficiently correct the deformity. Fusion or metatarsal lengthening result in complications and generally are not indicated. Shoe modifications, such as extra-depth or extra-wide shoes, generally will improve symptoms. If pressure and trauma persist in the older child, metatarsal lengthening or amputation may be indicated.

Question 1844

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Among the ankle arthroscopy portals described below, which portal is at highest risk for serious complications?
. Posterolateral: lateral to the Achilles tendon
. Anterolateral: lateral to the peroneus tertius tendon
. Anteromedial: medial to the tibialis anterior tendon
. Posteromedial: medial to the Achilles tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posteromedial: medial to the Achilles tendon


Explanation

All of the portals listed pose risk for some structures. Because they have been shown to be the safest, the most common anterior portals are the anteromedial and the anterolateral. The safest posterior portal is the posterolateral portal. Because of the location of the posterior medial tendons and the neurovascular bundle, the posteromedial portal is at highest risk for serious complications.

Question 1845

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 7-year-old girl reports foot pain and has difficulty ambulating. History reveals that she fell off a scooter 1 week ago, and there is possible exposure to a tick bite. A radiograph is shown in Figure 29. What is the best course of action?
. Consultation with an infectious disease specialist
. Symptomatic treatment, with a full return to activities in 4 to 6 weeks
. Cast immobilization for 6 to 12 weeks with the expectation of full recovery
. A rheumatologic work-up with the expectation of significant long-term sequelae
. Bone biopsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cast immobilization for 6 to 12 weeks with the expectation of full recovery


Explanation

The child has Kohlerโ€™s disease. This is a self-limiting osteochondritis of the navicular. It is treated symptomatically with initial cast immobilization for 6 to 12 weeks, followed possibly by orthotic management. Findings shown in the radiograph usually will normalize within 1 year, and there are no long-term sequelae.

Question 1846

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 50-year-old woman reports a burning sensation on the plantar aspect of her left forefoot, distal to the metatarsal heads between her third and fourth digits. Palpation of the third web space recreates her symptoms. Which of the following will most accurately aid in confirming a diagnosis?
. History and physical examination
. Ultrasonography
. MRI
. Radiographs
. Nerve conduction velocity studies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. History and physical examination


Explanation

The diagnosis of an interdigital neuroma is best made by a thorough history and careful physical examination. Radiographs are helpful in excluding other pathologic processes such as a metatarsal stress fracture. MRI and ultrasound have both been reported to aid in the diagnosis of an interdigital neuroma.

Question 1847

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 65-year-old woman with a history of diabetes mellitus and plantar ulcers has an erythematous and swollen right foot and ankle. Despite IV antibiotics, the erythema spreads to her lower calf within 24 hours. She has a systolic blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 120. Laboratory studies show a creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL. Initial management should consist of
. continued IV antibiotics and observation.
. hyperbaric oxygen treatment.
. rapid IV fluid boluses.
. surgical debridement.
. whirlpool therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. surgical debridement.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Necrotizing fasciitis is an aggressive and rapidly spreading soft-tissue infection, usually caused by group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes. Presentation is typical of a rapidly ascending cellulitis, recalcitrant to antibiotic treatment. Differentiation between cellulitis and impetigo is difficult, and success depends on a high level of suspicion. The skin and subcutaneous tissues are affected, with sparing of the muscles. Septic shock and multi-organ system failure can be fatal. Treatment is aggressive surgical debridement with broad-spectrum antibiotics. Repeat irrigation and debridement may be necessary. Hyperbaric oxygen studies have shown inconsistent results.

Question 1848

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 32-year-old woman has had progressive left foot pain over the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. Footwear is becoming problematic. There is full range of motion of the first MTP with medial eminence pain. Her weightbearing radiograph reveals a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 35 degrees and a 1-2 intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 10 degrees. What is the best next step?
. Distal metatarsal osteotomy
. Distal soft-tissue reconstruction
. Proximal metatarsal osteotomy
. Lapidus bunionectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal metatarsal osteotomy


Explanation

Patients with painful progressive hallux valgus are surgical candidates. Presurgical evaluation includes radiographic examination. The IMA between the first and second metatarsals as well as the HVA must be measured. If the IMA is smaller than 15 degrees and the HVA is smaller than 35 degrees, a distal osteotomy is preferred. Distal soft-tissue reconstruction is only useful for IMAs smaller than 11 degrees and HVAs smaller than 25 degrees. Proximal osteotomies and the Lapidus bunionectomy are reserved for larger hallux valgus deformities with IMAs exceeding 15 degrees and HVAs exceeding 35 degrees.

Question 1849

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 44-year-old patient who has had a proximal first metatarsal osteotomy has recurrent pain and difficulty wearing many types of shoes. Radiographs show a large 1-2 intermetatarsal angle (IMA).

. Lapidus procedure
. First metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint arthrodesis and lesser metatarsal head resection
. Proximal first metatarsal osteotomy
. Distal first metatarsal chevron osteotomy
. Biplanar distal first metatarsal osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lapidus procedure


Explanation

Question 1850

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
  • The stability of the longitudinal arch of the foot during standing with equal weight on both feet is due primarily to
. plantar fascia and quadratus plantae tendon.
. ligamentous structures connecting the tarsal bones.
. shape of the tarsal bones and the intervening joints.
. activity of the intrinsic muscles of the foot.
. activity of the posterior tibialis and the peroneus longus muscles.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ligamentous structures connecting the tarsal bones.


Explanation

The longitudinal arch is stabilized by heavy ligamentous structures surrounding the tarsal joints with passive assistance from the plantar aponeurosis. EMG studies have shown little or no intrinsic muscle activity during quiet standing.

Question 1851

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A patient undergoes the procedure shown in Figure A. This patient is most likely to be Review Topic

. year-old man with subtalar arthritis
. year-old girl with congenital vertical talus
. year-old male with talocalcaneal coalition involving less than 50% of middle facet and hindfoot valgus
. year-old male with cavovarus foot and Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
. year-old male with equinovalgus foot and spastic diplegic cerebral palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. year-old male with talocalcaneal coalition involving less than 50% of middle facet and hindfoot valgus


Explanation

The procedure shown is subtalar arthroereisis. It is used as an adjunct spacer/distractor following tarsal coalition excision if hindfoot valgus remains following resection.In the pediatric population, arthroereisis is one option to restore the alignment of the hindfoot after talocalcaneal coalition. Hindfoot deformity correction is required because resection of the coalition alone will often increase the hindfoot valgusdeformity. The arthroereisis implant prevents this valgus collapse. Another alternative to correct the hindfoot valgus deformity is a calcaneal lateral column lengthening osteotomy.Khoshbin et al. reviewed the long-term outcomes of coalition resection in 24 patients (32 coalitions). Resected talocalcaneal (TC) coalitions had less inversion/eversion postoperatively than resected calcaneonavicular (CN) coalitions but there was no difference in outcome scores. They obtained favorable results when even resecting talocalcaneal coalition with >50% involvement of the middle facet and hindfoot valgus angles >16 ยฐ, which were considered historical contraindications to resection.Zaw et al. reviewed tarsal coalitions. Radiographic signs of CN coalition include the anteater sign (elongated anterior calcaneal process), decreased CN gap, reverse anteater sign (elongated lateral navicular) and hypoplastic lateral talar head. Radiographic signs of TC coalition include obliterated middle facet on a Harris view (osseous coalition), irregular cortices/dysplastic sustentaculum tali on a Harris view (nonosseous), C-sign on a lateral view, talar beaking, short talar neck with concave inferior surface, narrow posterior facet, and non-visibility of the middle facet.Giannini et al. reviewed subtalar arthroereisis with coalition resection in 14 feet in patients aged 9-18 years. They achieved 57% excellent, 21% good and 21% fair results. Regarding pain, 86% had improvement and 14% had no change. Regarding ROM, 93% had improvement, and 7% had no change. Better scores were seen in patients <14 years.Figure A shows the implantation of an arthroereisis implant in the sinus tarsi. Illustration A comprises coronal CT images of talocalcaneal coalition.Incorrect Answers:

Question 1852

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 18a and 18b show the radiographs of a patient who has pain with walking. On careful questioning, it is determined that the discomfort occurs at push-off, or when the patient attempts to climb stairs. What nonsurgical option is most likely to ameliorate the symptoms?
. Neutral posted rigid custom foot orthosis
. Custom rigid UCBL foot orthosis
. Ankle-foot orthosis with the ankle locked at 90 degrees
. Shoe modification with a cushioned heel and rocker sole
. Metal hinged/leather short ankle โ€œArizonaโ€ orthosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shoe modification with a cushioned heel and rocker sole


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a malunion of an attempted open reduction of a Lisfranc dislocation. The pain occurs during the terminal stance phase of gait as load is being transferred from the hindfoot to the forefoot. The bending moment can be best neutralized with shoe modification with a cushioned heel and rocker sole, which best unloads the tarsal-metatarsal junction.

Question 1853

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following are considered appropriate nonsurgical bracing/orthotic options for a supple adult-acquired flatfoot deformity with forefoot abduction, secondary to posterior tibial tendon insufficiency?
. Rigid orthotic with a lateral post
. Custom-molded leather and polypropylene orthosis (Arizona brace)
. UCBL with lateral posting
. One quarter-inch lateral heel and sole wedge applied to the shoe
. Three-quarter heel lift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Custom-molded leather and polypropylene orthosis (Arizona brace)


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The initial stages of posterior tibial tendon insufficiency, where the deformity remains supple, may be treated with bracing or an orthotic for pain relief. The Arizona brace was introduced in 1988, and assists in pain relief and deformity correction by minimizing hindfoot valgus alignment, lateral calcaneal displacement, and medial ankle collapse. It is particularly helpful in those patients with advanced disease that cannot tolerate an ankle-foot orthosis. All other choices are incorrect because of the addition of lateral posting, which is not advantageous in valgus deformities. The addition of medial posting to any of the above choices would render them correct alternatives. A heel lift is applicable in Achilles tendon disorders, not posterior tibial tendon disorders. REFERENCES: Chao W, Wapner KL, Lee TH, et al: Nonoperative management of posterior tibial tendon dysfunction. Foot Ankle Int 1996;17:736-741. Imhauser CW, Abidi NA, Frankel DZ, et al: Biomechanical evaluation of the efficacy of external stabilizers in conservative treatment of acquired flat foot deformity. Foot Ankle Int 2002;23:727-737.

Question 1854

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot

Which gene correlates with severity of disease in spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)? Review Topic

. Peripheral myelin protein 22 (PMP22)
. Survival motor neuron I (SMN1)
. Survival motor neuron II (SMN2)
. Dystrophin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Survival motor neuron II (SMN2)


Explanation

SMA is caused by a deficiency in SMN protein. Deficiency of SMN protein leads to progressive loss of anterior horn cells and progressive muscle weakness. The severity of disease is directly related to the amount of reduction in circulating levels of SMN proteins, which are encoded by 2 alleles of the SMN1 gene and multiple copies of the SMN2 genes on chromosome 5. Affected patients with all types of SMA will have functional loss of both SMN1 genes, so this does not differentiate disease severity. Disease severity depends on the number of functional copies of SMN2 that remain. Patients with SMA1 have only 1 functioning SMN2 gene, whereas the milder forms, SMA types 2 and 3, have multiple copies that produce higher levels of SMN protein. The other choices are not associated with spinal muscular atrophy. Defects in PMP22 are the cause of 70% to 80% of cases of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. Mutations in the dystrophin gene cause Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

Question 1855

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The so-called high ankle sprain from an external rotation mechanism of injury typically involves injury to which of the following structures?
. Posterior talofibular ligament
. Deltoid ligament
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament
. Calcaneofibular ligament
. Extensor retinaculum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Ankle sprains most commonly involve injury to the lateral collateral ligaments of the ankle (anterior talofibular, posterior talofibular, and calcaneofibular) from an inversion mechanism of injury. A different entity has been more recently described that involves an external rotation mechanism of injury that widens the ankle mortise and disrupts the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament. Deltoid ligament and extensor retinaculum injuries do occur, although infrequently, and involve eversion and extreme plantar flexion mechanisms, respectively.

Question 1856

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
What is the principal advantage of surgical repair for the lesion shown in Figure 19?
. Less risk of repeat rupture
. Less pain
. Greater motion
. Quicker recovery
. Greater dorsiflexion strength

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Less risk of repeat rupture


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The MRI scan shows a rupture of the Achilles tendon. The substantiated advantages of repair are less risk of re-rupture and greater plantar flexion strength. Dorsiflexion strength is not influenced. Motion, pain, and period of recovery are not specifically improved as a consequence of surgery.

Question 1857

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Optimal management of the injury shown in Figure 31 should include which of the following?
. Cast immobilization in equinus
. Open reduction and internal fixation once the acute soft-tissue swelling has resolved
. Urgent reduction and fixation
. Arthroscopic-assisted percutaneous fixation
. Open reduction and internal fixation with primary subtalar arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent reduction and fixation


Explanation

The radiograph shows a displaced calcaneal beak fracture, a tongue-type fracture variant. The fracture fragment typically includes the insertion point of the Achilles tendon, which places marked tension on the thin overlying soft-tissue envelope and can lead to full-thickness necrosis if not acutely addressed. Cast immobilization does not adequately address the increased soft-tissue tension, as the fragment will be difficult to control. Arthroscopic-assisted techniques or primary arthrodesis are not indicated because calcaneal beak fractures are typically extra-articular.

Question 1858

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Figure 1 is the anteroposterior radiograph of a 20-year-old dancer who fell during his routine and injured his right foot. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Closed reduction and cast
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. In situ percutaneous pinning
. Posterior splint immobilization and controlled ankle motion (CAM) walker ambulationThis patient has sustained a Lisfranc fracture dislocation of the forefoot. To fully restore foot function, an open reduction and internal fixation should be performed to anatomically reduce this dislocation. Closed reduction is unlikely to restore normal foot biomechanics and would likely result in delayed arthritis and joint incongruity. Posterior splint immobilization, CAM walker ambulation, and in situ percutaneous pinning will not adequately reduce the fracture and restore normal function to the foot.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and cast


Explanation

A 38-year-old woman underwent left knee anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with patellar tendon autograft and medial meniscus repair 11 years ago. She has no complaints of instability since surgery. She presents with left knee pain, swelling and the inability to extend her knee after getting up from a kneeling position one week prior. She reports feeling a pop in her knee at the time of injury. On examination she lacks 5ยฐ of extension and has a symmetric Lachman test. Figure 1 is the radiograph of her knee. Figures 2 through 4 show the findings at the time of arthroscopy. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Question 1859

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 17-year-old girl with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease reports the development of progressive instability when walking on uneven surfaces. Her involved heel is positioned in varus when viewed from behind. Examination reveals that she walks on the outer border of the involved foot. She has full passive motion of the ankle and hindfoot joints. She is able to dorsiflex the ankle against resistance. The heel varus fully corrects with the Coleman block test. Standing radiographs reveal a cavus deformity with valgus of the forefoot. She would like to avoid using an ankle-foot orthosis. What is the best surgical option?
. Dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first metatarsal
. Dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first metatarsal combined with anterior transfer of the tibialis posterior
. Triplanar osteotomy at the apex of the deformity
. Triplanar osteotomy at the apex of the deformity combined with valgus calcaneal osteotomy
. Triplanar osteotomy at the apex of the deformity combined with anterior transfer of the tibialis posterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first metatarsal


Explanation

This deformity is early in the disease process. The foot is still flexible, as evidenced by correction with the Coleman block test. A simple dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first metatarsal should provide a plantigrade foot. More complex osteotomies are required later in the disease process when the foot is not flexible and the deformity does not correct with the Coleman block test. The patient may also require a tibialis anterior transfer later in the disease process but not at the present time.

Question 1860

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following orthotic features best reduces pain in patients with hallux rigidus?
. Plastazote layer to absorb shock
. Medial posting to offload the medial forefoot
. Rigid shank or forefoot rocker
. Metatarsal bar to offload the first metatarsal head
. Full length as opposed to three-quarter length

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid shank or forefoot rocker


Explanation

Nonsurgical care for hallux rigidus involves limiting the motion of the first metatarsophalangeal joint during toe-off and ensuring that there is a deep enough toe box to accommodate dorsal osteophytes. A rigid shank or forefoot rocker both help to reduce the forces of extension during toe-off.