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Question 621

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 29-year-old male presents with severe medial ankle pain after a twisting injury playing soccer. Radiographs show a widened medial clear space, but no fractures are visible around the ankle mortise. What is the most critical next step in the clinical and radiographic evaluation?

. Obtain a non-contrast MRI of the ankle to assess the structural integrity of the deltoid ligament
. Perform a dynamic diagnostic ultrasound of the Achilles and posterior tibial tendons
. Examine the proximal fibula and obtain full-length AP and lateral tibia/fibula radiographs
. Proceed directly to diagnostic and therapeutic ankle arthroscopy
. Obtain bilateral weight-bearing foot radiographs to strictly evaluate for an occult Lisfranc injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Examine the proximal fibula and obtain full-length AP and lateral tibia/fibula radiographs


Explanation

A widened medial clear space without an obvious lateral malleolus fracture is highly suspicious for a syndesmotic injury coupled with a proximal fibula fracture (Maisonneuve fracture). Full-length tibia/fibula radiographs are essential to identify the proximal injury.

Question 622

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 35-year-old female is scheduled for open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture via an extensile lateral approach. To minimize the risk of wound edge necrosis, the full-thickness subperiosteal flap must be developed carefully. The vascular supply to the apex of this flap is primarily derived from which of the following arteries?

. Sural artery
. Lateral calcaneal artery
. Anterior tibial artery
. Medial plantar artery
. Dorsalis pedis artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral calcaneal artery


Explanation

The extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus relies on a full-thickness "no-touch" subperiosteal flap. The primary blood supply to the apex of this lateral flap is the lateral calcaneal artery, a branch of the peroneal artery.

Question 623

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 60-year-old smoker with diabetes presents to the emergency department after a fall from a ladder. Examination reveals a swollen heel with severe posterior skin blanching over the Achilles insertion. Radiographs demonstrate a tongue-type calcaneus fracture with superior displacement of the posterior tuberosity. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Application of a posterior splint with elevation and planned ORIF in 10-14 days
. Urgent open reduction via an extensile lateral approach
. Urgent percutaneous reduction and screw fixation
. Application of a circular fine-wire external fixator
. Non-weight-bearing cast immobilization in maximum equinus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent percutaneous reduction and screw fixation


Explanation

A tongue-type calcaneus fracture with posterior skin blanching represents a surgical emergency due to impending skin necrosis. Urgent percutaneous reduction and screw fixation (often using a Schanz pin as a joystick) relieves pressure on the compromised soft tissue envelope.

Question 624

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 68-year-old patient with long-standing, poorly controlled diabetes mellitus and peripheral neuropathy sustains an unstable bimalleolar ankle fracture. Which of the following modifications to standard surgical and post-operative protocols is most strongly supported by current literature to prevent catastrophic failure?

. Utilization of bioabsorbable fixation to minimize infection risk
. Enhanced fixation constructs (e.g., multiple syndesmotic screws, locking plates) and a minimum of 8-12 weeks non-weight-bearing
. Standard ORIF followed by early weight-bearing at 2 weeks to promote healing
. Primary below-knee amputation
. Routine application of a hinged external fixator instead of internal fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Enhanced fixation constructs (e.g., multiple syndesmotic screws, locking plates) and a minimum of 8-12 weeks non-weight-bearing


Explanation

Diabetic patients with peripheral neuropathy are at high risk for hardware failure and Charcot arthropathy following ankle fractures. Best practices mandate utilizing "enhanced" fixation constructs (like stronger locking plates or multiple syndesmotic screws) and doubling the standard duration of non-weight-bearing.

Question 625

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 45-year-old male presents with persistent lateral hindfoot pain and limited ankle dorsiflexion two years after non-operative management of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture. Radiographs show a healed fracture with significant loss of calcaneal height and a flattened Bohler's angle. The limitation in ankle dorsiflexion is most directly caused by which of the following anatomic alterations?

. Varus malunion of the calcaneal tuberosity
. Talar dorsiflexion resulting in anterior ankle impingement
. Entrapment of the peroneal tendons in the lateral wall blowout
. Contracture of the Achilles tendon
. Subtalar joint arthrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Talar dorsiflexion resulting in anterior ankle impingement


Explanation

Loss of calcaneal height leads to a relatively dorsiflexed position of the talus within the ankle mortise. This altered talar position causes anterior ankle impingement against the distal tibia, clinically presenting as a loss of ankle dorsiflexion.

Question 626

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports

A 24-year-old gymnast sustains an ankle injury upon landing. Radiographs reveal a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus and a short oblique, comminuted fracture of the fibula exactly at the level of the tibial plafond. According to the Lauge-Hansen classification, what is the mechanism of this injury?

. Supination-Adduction
. Supination-External Rotation
. Pronation-Abduction
. Pronation-External Rotation
. Vertical Compression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronation-Abduction


Explanation

A Pronation-Abduction (PAB) injury pattern is characterized by a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus (or deltoid rupture) followed by a short oblique or transverse fibula fracture at or slightly above the level of the syndesmosis, often with lateral comminution.

Question 627

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During open reduction and internal fixation of a calcaneus fracture via an extensile lateral approach, the surgeon places screws directed from lateral to medial to capture the sustentaculum tali fragment. If these screws are overly long and penetrate the medial cortex of the sustentaculum tali, which structure is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Posterior tibial tendon
. Flexor digitorum longus tendon
. Flexor hallucis longus tendon
. Medial plantar nerve
. Saphenous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor hallucis longus tendon


Explanation

The flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon courses directly inferior to the sustentaculum tali. Screws directed medialward into the sustentaculum that are excessively long can impinge on or lacerate the FHL tendon, causing stenosis or rupture.

Question 628

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A surgeon opts for a posteromedial approach to directly reduce and fix a displaced posteromedial fragment of the distal tibia (pilon fracture). To safely access this fragment while minimizing neurovascular risk, the deepest dissection interval is typically developed between which of the following structures?

. Flexor hallucis longus (FHL) and the Achilles tendon
. Tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendons
. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon and the posterior tibial neurovascular bundle
. Peroneus brevis and flexor hallucis longus (FHL)
. Tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus (EHL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon and the posterior tibial neurovascular bundle


Explanation

The standard posteromedial approach to the posterior pilon or posterior malleolus utilizes the interval between the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon anteriorly and the posterior tibial neurovascular bundle posteriorly, ensuring safe retraction of the bundle.

Question 629

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
In the surgical management of displaced intra-articular calcaneus fractures (Sanders Type II and III), recent literature comparing the minimally invasive sinus tarsi approach to the traditional extensile lateral approach demonstrates which of the following relative outcomes?
. The sinus tarsi approach yields significantly better long-term subtalar range of motion.
. The sinus tarsi approach has a higher rate of sural nerve injury.
. The sinus tarsi approach demonstrates a significantly lower rate of wound complications with equivalent functional outcomes.
. The extensile lateral approach has a lower rate of post-traumatic subtalar arthritis.
. The extensile lateral approach allows for faster time to full weight-bearing.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The sinus tarsi approach demonstrates a significantly lower rate of wound complications with equivalent functional outcomes.


Explanation

The sinus tarsi approach is associated with a significantly reduced risk of soft tissue complications and wound necrosis compared to the extensile lateral approach. When used for appropriate fracture patterns, it achieves equivalent radiographic reduction and long-term functional scores.

Question 630

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports



A 29-year-old athlete presents with an isolated Weber B distal fibula fracture. A gravity stress radiograph is obtained to evaluate the integrity of the deltoid ligament and syndesmosis. At what threshold of medial clear space widening on the stress radiograph is the deep deltoid ligament considered incompetent, necessitating operative intervention?

. Greater than 2 mm
. Greater than 3 mm
. Greater than 4 mm
. Greater than 6 mm
. Greater than 8 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater than 4 mm


Explanation

On a gravity stress or manual stress radiograph, a medial clear space of greater than 4 mm (or >1 mm compared to the superior clear space) indicates deep deltoid ligament incompetence and syndesmotic instability, which is an indication for operative fixation.

Question 631

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 55-year-old female sustains a Rowe Type I calcaneal fracture (avulsion of the calcaneal tuberosity) following a trip and fall. The fragment is proximally displaced by 2 cm and the skin overlying the posterior heel is visibly tented but intact. What is the most significant clinical consequence of failing to adequately treat this specific injury pattern?

. Rapid progression to severe subtalar arthritis
. Skin necrosis and severe loss of plantarflexion power
. Development of an irreducible hammer toe deformity
. Chronic sural neuritis
. Varus malalignment of the entire hindfoot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Skin necrosis and severe loss of plantarflexion power


Explanation

Calcaneal tuberosity avulsion fractures involve the insertion of the Achilles tendon. Significant proximal displacement puts the posterior skin at extreme risk for pressure necrosis and results in profound loss of plantarflexion strength, mandating prompt surgical reduction and fixation.

Question 632

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

In the evaluation of a Lauge-Hansen Supination-External Rotation (SER) Type IV ankle injury, understanding the primary stabilizers of the ankle mortise is crucial. Which of the following ligaments acts as the primary restraint to lateral talar excursion?

. Anterior talofibular ligament
. Calcaneofibular ligament
. Superficial deltoid ligament
. Deep deltoid ligament
. Posterior talofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep deltoid ligament


Explanation

The deep deltoid ligament is the strongest ligament of the medial ankle and serves as the primary restraint against lateral shift and external rotation of the talus within the ankle mortise.

Question 633

Topic: Forefoot

A 55-year-old female presents with a long-standing, painful hallux valgus deformity that has failed conservative management including wider shoes and orthotics. Clinical examination reveals a severe deformity with a hallux valgus angle of 40 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle of 18 degrees. Radiographs confirm these measurements. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to address this deformity?

. Simple bunionectomy (exostectomy)
. Chevron osteotomy (distal metatarsal osteotomy)
. Lapidus procedure (proximal metatarsal fusion)
. Keller arthroplasty
. Arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lapidus procedure (proximal metatarsal fusion)


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe patient presents with a severe hallux valgus deformity (HVA 40 degrees, IMA 18 degrees). For severe deformities, especially with a large intermetatarsal angle, a proximal metatarsal osteotomy or a fusion procedure is typically required to achieve adequate correction and stability. The Lapidus procedure, which involves fusion of the first metatarsocuneiform joint, is highly effective for correcting severe hallux valgus and reducing the intermetatarsal angle. Simple bunionectomy (A) is an exostectomy and does not correct the underlying bony deformity. A Chevron osteotomy (B) is a distal metatarsal osteotomy, suitable for mild to moderate deformities. Keller arthroplasty (D) is a resection arthroplasty, typically reserved for older, low-demand patients with severe arthritis, as it can lead to instability and transfer metatarsalgia. Arthrodesis of the first MTP joint (E) is a salvage procedure for severe arthritis or failed previous surgeries, not typically for primary hallux valgus correction in an active patient.

Question 634

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 25-year-old athlete sustains a severe midfoot injury during a football game. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal widening between the medial and middle cuneiforms and a 'fleck sign' at the base of the second metatarsal. What structure is avulsed to create this specific radiographic finding?

. Plantar fascia
. Tibialis anterior tendon
. Lisfranc ligament
. Peroneus longus tendon
. Spring ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lisfranc ligament


Explanation

The 'fleck sign' is a bony avulsion fracture at the base of the second metatarsal, representing the attachment of the Lisfranc ligament. This critical ligament connects the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal.

Question 635

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 45-year-old male recreational basketball player sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture. He is discussing operative versus nonoperative management with his surgeon. Compared to nonoperative treatment with an early functional rehabilitation protocol, surgical repair is associated with which of the following outcomes?

. Significantly improved plantarflexion strength
. Lower risk of sural nerve injury
. Higher risk of re-rupture
. Higher risk of soft tissue complications with equivalent re-rupture rates
. Faster return to activities of daily living

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Higher risk of soft tissue complications with equivalent re-rupture rates


Explanation

Recent studies demonstrate that when an early functional rehabilitation protocol is utilized, the re-rupture rates between operative and nonoperative management of Achilles tendon ruptures are equivalent. However, operative management carries a higher risk of wound healing issues and infection.

Question 636

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 24-year-old football player sustains a hyperplantarflexion injury to his foot. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal widening of the interval between the first and second metatarsals. An injury to the Lisfranc ligament is suspected. What are the correct anatomical attachments of the Lisfranc ligament?

. Medial cuneiform to the base of the first metatarsal
. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
. Intermediate cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
. Lateral cuneiform to the cuboid
. Navicular to the medial cuneiform

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal


Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament that connects the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. It is the critical stabilizer of the midfoot.

Question 637

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 35-year-old recreational basketball player feels a "pop" in his posterior ankle. Examination reveals a positive Thompson test and a palpable gap 4 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion. He opts for non-operative management. Which of the following best describes the appropriate functional rehabilitation protocol?

. Immediate full weight-bearing in a neutral walking boot
. Cast immobilization in equinus for 8 weeks before weight-bearing
. Early weight-bearing in a boot with heel wedges, and early active plantarflexion
. Non-weight bearing in a short leg cast in neutral for 6 weeks
. Surgical repair is strictly required; non-operative management is contraindicated

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Early weight-bearing in a boot with heel wedges, and early active plantarflexion


Explanation

Functional rehabilitation for non-operative management of Achilles tendon ruptures involves early weight-bearing in a functionally braced position (using heel wedges) and early active range of motion. This protocol decreases the rerupture rate to be comparable to surgical repair.

Question 638

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Six weeks following open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced talar neck fracture, an anteroposterior radiograph of the ankle demonstrates a linear subchondral radiolucency within the talar dome. What is the clinical significance of this radiographic finding?

. It indicates impending hardware failure
. It represents subchondral collapse and early post-traumatic arthritis
. It is a sign of an active infection in the talus
. It indicates that avascular necrosis of the talar body has occurred
. It confirms intact vascularity to the talar body

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It confirms intact vascularity to the talar body


Explanation

This finding is known as the Hawkins sign, which represents subchondral osteopenia. It requires an intact vascular supply to resorb the bone, thus indicating that avascular necrosis of the talar body has not occurred.

Question 639

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During the initial clinical examination, the patient demonstrated profound weakness in active dorsiflexion of the ankle and toe extension, with a rapid decline in motor strength from 3/5 to 1/5. Sensation was diminished in the first dorsal webspace. Which nerve is primarily affected by the acute compartment syndrome in this scenario, and what compartment does it innervate?

. A. Tibial nerve; superficial posterior compartment
. B. Superficial peroneal nerve; lateral compartment
. C. Deep peroneal nerve; anterior compartment
. D. Sural nerve; deep posterior compartment
. E. Saphenous nerve; medial compartment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C. Deep peroneal nerve; anterior compartment


Explanation

Correct Answer: CExplanation:The deep peroneal nerve innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg, which are responsible for active dorsiflexion of the ankle (tibialis anterior) and toe extension (extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus). It also provides sensation to the first dorsal webspace. The described motor weakness and sensory deficit are classic signs of deep peroneal nerve compromise due to acute compartment syndrome in the anterior compartment.A. Tibial nerve; superficial posterior compartment:The tibial nerve innervates the superficial and deep posterior compartments, responsible for plantarflexion of the ankle and toe flexion. Its sensory distribution includes the sole of the foot.B. Superficial peroneal nerve; lateral compartment:The superficial peroneal nerve innervates the muscles of the lateral compartment (peroneus longus and brevis), which are responsible for active eversion of the ankle. Its sensory distribution is the lateral dorsum of the foot. While the case mentions altered sensation in this distribution, the profound motor weakness described points more strongly to the deep peroneal nerve.D. Sural nerve; deep posterior compartment:The sural nerve is a purely sensory nerve, providing sensation to the lateral aspect of the foot and ankle. It does not innervate any muscles.E. Saphenous nerve; medial compartment:The saphenous nerve is a purely sensory nerve, providing sensation to the medial aspect of the leg and foot. It does not innervate any muscles.

Question 640

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A patient presents with acute compartment syndrome isolated to the lateral compartment of the lower leg. If left untreated, which of the following functional deficits is most likely to result?

. Inability to dorsiflex the great toe
. Weakness in ankle eversion and loss of sensation over the dorsum of the foot
. Inability to plantarflex the ankle
. Loss of sensation isolated to the first web space
. Clawing of the lesser toes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in ankle eversion and loss of sensation over the dorsum of the foot


Explanation

The lateral compartment contains the peroneus longus and brevis muscles (ankle eversion) and the superficial peroneal nerve. Ischemia to this compartment causes weakness in eversion and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot (excluding the first web space).