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Question 601

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 22-year-old male develops severe foot pain out of proportion to injury following a high-energy calcaneus fracture. Compartment syndrome of the foot is suspected but treated non-operatively due to delayed diagnosis. What is the classic long-term clinical deformity expected from untreated foot compartment syndrome?

. Pes planovalgus
. Equinovarus deformity
. Calcaneocavus deformity with claw toes
. Hallux valgus
. Drop foot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneocavus deformity with claw toes


Explanation

Untreated compartment syndrome of the foot primarily affects the deep central compartment containing the short flexors (quadratus plantae, intrinsic muscles). Ischemic contracture of these muscles leads to a calcaneocavus deformity and clawing of the lesser toes.

Question 602

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

According to the Lauge-Hansen classification, what is the initial anatomical structure to fail in a Pronation-External Rotation (PER) ankle injury?

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Medial malleolus or Deltoid ligament
. Interosseous membrane
. Fibula shaft above the syndesmosis
. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial malleolus or Deltoid ligament


Explanation

In a Pronation-External Rotation (PER) injury, the foot is pronated, placing the medial structures under tension. The sequence of failure begins medially with either a transverse medial malleolus fracture or a deltoid ligament rupture.

Question 603

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 55-year-old male presents with severe pain and functional limitation two years after an open reduction and internal fixation of a Sanders type IV calcaneus fracture. Radiographs and CT demonstrate end-stage subtalar arthritis, loss of calcaneal height, and decreased talocalcaneal angle. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. In situ subtalar arthrodesis
. Subtalar distraction bone block arthrodesis
. Triple arthrodesis
. Lateral wall exostectomy alone
. Total ankle arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subtalar distraction bone block arthrodesis


Explanation

In cases of post-traumatic subtalar arthritis with significant loss of calcaneal height and a collapsed talocalcaneal angle, a subtalar distraction bone block arthrodesis is indicated. This restores hindfoot height, corrects anterior ankle impingement, and realigns the talocalcaneal relationship.

Question 604

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 30-year-old athlete undergoes ORIF for a syndesmotic injury associated with an ankle fracture. Postoperatively, what is the most sensitive and specific imaging modality to assess the accuracy of the syndesmotic reduction?

. Standard AP, Lateral, and Mortise radiographs
. Bilateral weight-bearing radiographs
. Axial CT scan of both ankles
. MRI of the ankle
. Dynamic fluoroscopy under anesthesia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axial CT scan of both ankles


Explanation

Axial CT scanning is the gold standard for evaluating the reduction of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis. Plain radiographs have been shown to be highly insensitive for detecting subtle but clinically significant syndesmotic malreductions.

Question 605

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports

A 45-year-old female sustains an ankle fracture. Radiographs demonstrate a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus and a comminuted fracture of the fibula at the level of the syndesmosis. According to the Lauge-Hansen classification, what is the mechanism of injury?

. Supination-Adduction (SAD)
. Supination-External Rotation (SER)
. Pronation-Abduction (PAB)
. Pronation-External Rotation (PER)
. Axial Loading

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronation-Abduction (PAB)


Explanation

A transverse medial malleolus fracture combined with a transverse or comminuted fibula fracture at the level of the joint line (syndesmosis) is characteristic of a Pronation-Abduction (PAB) injury pattern.

Question 606

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A surgeon uses a posterolateral approach to the ankle for fixation of a large posterior malleolus fragment. The surgical interval to access the posterior tibia is developed between which two muscle groups?

. Tibialis posterior and Flexor Digitorum Longus (FDL)
. Flexor Hallucis Longus (FHL) and Peroneus Brevis
. Gastrocnemius and Soleus
. Flexor Digitorum Longus (FDL) and Tibial nerve
. Tibialis anterior and Extensor Hallucis Longus (EHL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor Hallucis Longus (FHL) and Peroneus Brevis


Explanation

The posterolateral approach to the posterior malleolus utilizes the internervous/intermuscular interval between the peroneal tendons (lateral) and the Flexor Hallucis Longus (FHL) (medial). Retracting the FHL medially protects the posterior tibial neurovascular bundle.

Question 607

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports

A 28-year-old patient had two cortical screws placed across the syndesmosis for a Maisonneuve fracture. At 10 weeks postoperatively, the patient is asymptomatic but asks about routine removal of the screws before initiating full weight-bearing. Based on current orthopedic literature, what is the recommended management regarding syndesmotic screw removal?

. Mandatory removal at 6 weeks to prevent screw breakage
. Routine removal is not required, as retained or broken screws do not significantly worsen clinical outcomes
. Mandatory removal only if the screws are made of titanium
. Screws must be replaced with flexible suture button fixation prior to weight-bearing
. Removal is mandated only if the patient is an elite athlete

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Routine removal is not required, as retained or broken screws do not significantly worsen clinical outcomes


Explanation

Current evidence suggests that routine removal of syndesmotic screws is unnecessary. Clinical outcomes are similar whether the screws are removed, retained intact, or retained and broken. Removal is generally reserved for symptomatic hardware.

Question 608

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

On a normal lateral radiograph of the calcaneus, Bohler's angle typically ranges from 20 to 40 degrees. Which specific pathoanatomical feature of a calcaneus fracture is primarily responsible for the reduction or flattening of this angle?

. Lateral wall blowout
. Shortening of the calcaneal body
. Collapse and depression of the posterior facet
. Displacement of the sustentaculum tali
. Avulsion of the Achilles tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Collapse and depression of the posterior facet


Explanation

Bohler's angle is formed by a line drawn from the highest point of the anterior process to the highest point of the posterior facet, and a second line to the superior point of the tuberosity. Collapse of the posterior articular facet (joint depression) decreases this angle.

Question 609

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During ankle fracture surgery, after rigid fixation of the fibula and medial malleolus, the surgeon suspects a syndesmotic injury. An intra-operative 'hook test' (Cotton test) is performed. What is the primary purpose of this test?

. To test the competence of the deltoid ligament
. To assess lateral collateral ligament instability
. To evaluate for tibiofibular syndesmotic instability in the coronal plane
. To check for Achilles tendon rupture
. To test for peroneal tendon subluxation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To evaluate for tibiofibular syndesmotic instability in the coronal plane


Explanation

The Cotton test (or hook test) involves applying a lateral pull to the fibula using a bone hook. It is performed intra-operatively after fracture fixation to dynamically assess the stability of the tibiofibular syndesmosis; widening of the syndesmosis dictates the need for syndesmotic fixation.

Question 610

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 65-year-old diabetic female presents with acute posterior heel pain after a low-energy fall. Radiographs demonstrate a displaced avulsion fracture of the calcaneal tuberosity with proximal retraction. The skin overlying the posterior heel is visibly blanched and tense. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Splint in equinus and schedule for outpatient surgery in 1-2 weeks
. Urgent surgical reduction and internal fixation
. Closed reduction in the emergency department and application of a short leg cast
. Application of a spanning external fixator
. Primary Achilles tendon lengthening and cast immobilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent surgical reduction and internal fixation


Explanation

Calcaneal tuberosity avulsion fractures with blanched skin represent a surgical emergency. Urgent reduction and fixation are required to relieve tension on the posterior skin flap and prevent full-thickness skin necrosis.

Question 611

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

During an extensile lateral approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a calcaneus fracture, the vertical limb of the incision is placed anterior to the Achilles tendon. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury if this vertical limb is carried too proximally or carelessly dissected?

. Saphenous nerve
. Sural nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sural nerve


Explanation

The sural nerve runs posterior to the lateral malleolus and is highly vulnerable during both the vertical and horizontal limbs of the extensile lateral approach. A full-thickness subperiosteal flap must be developed to protect this nerve.

Question 612

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 24-year-old athlete sustains a severe external rotation ankle injury. Intraoperatively, after rigid fixation of the fibula, a Cotton test demonstrates 4 mm of lateral displacement of the fibula relative to the tibia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Perform an open primary deltoid ligament repair
. Stabilization of the syndesmosis using screws or a suture-button device
. No further fixation, as 4 mm of translation is within normal physiologic limits
. Remove the fibular hardware, over-reduce the fibula, and re-plate
. Proceed to immediate weight-bearing in a short leg cast

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stabilization of the syndesmosis using screws or a suture-button device


Explanation

A positive intraoperative Cotton test (lateral translation >2-3 mm) indicates ongoing syndesmotic instability despite fibular fixation. Stabilization with either syndesmotic screws or a flexible suture-button construct is required to restore mortise congruity.

Question 613

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 40-year-old construction worker falls from a ladder and sustains an intra-articular calcaneus fracture. On the lateral radiograph, Bohler's angle is measured at 5 degrees. What does a decreased Bohler's angle primarily indicate in the setting of a calcaneal fracture?

. Varus malalignment of the calcaneal tuberosity
. Loss of calcaneal height and depression of the posterior facet
. Medial-lateral widening of the calcaneal body
. Impending rupture or avulsion of the Achilles tendon
. Traumatic subluxation of the calcaneocuboid joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of calcaneal height and depression of the posterior facet


Explanation

Bohler's angle (normally 20-40 degrees) represents the relationship between the anterior and posterior aspects of the superior calcaneal surface. A decreased angle indicates collapse of the posterior facet and significant loss of calcaneal height.

Question 614

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 35-year-old woman requires fixation of a large, displaced posterior malleolus fracture via a standard posterolateral approach. The surgeon develops the primary intermuscular plane. What are the key tendinous/muscular boundaries of this surgical interval?

. Flexor hallucis longus medially and Peroneus brevis laterally
. Tibialis posterior medially and Flexor digitorum longus laterally
. Achilles tendon medially and Flexor hallucis longus laterally
. Peroneus brevis medially and Extensor digitorum longus laterally
. Tibialis anterior medially and Extensor hallucis longus laterally

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor hallucis longus medially and Peroneus brevis laterally


Explanation

The posterolateral approach to the ankle utilizes the internervous interval between the peroneus brevis (superficial peroneal nerve) laterally and the flexor hallucis longus (tibial nerve) medially. Retracting the FHL medially effectively protects the critical posteromedial neurovascular bundle.

Question 615

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Which of the following is considered a primary advantage of early functional rehabilitation (early active range of motion) following rigid internal fixation of a bimalleolar ankle fracture in a healthy, compliant patient?

. Decreased risk of long-term hardware failure
. Decreased incidence of superficial wound infections
. Improved early ankle range of motion and faster return to work
. Significantly higher rates of anatomic fracture union
. Prevention of complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Improved early ankle range of motion and faster return to work


Explanation

Early functional rehabilitation following rigid ankle fixation allows for faster restoration of range of motion and quicker return to baseline activities. However, it does not significantly alter the long-term bony union rate or overall infection risk compared to traditional cast immobilization.

Question 616

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

In a high-energy intra-articular calcaneus fracture, which fragment classically remains anatomically aligned with the talus due to strong ligamentous attachments, serving as the 'constant' fragment during surgical reconstruction?

. The anterior process fragment
. The tuberosity fragment
. The sustentacular fragment
. The lateral wall blowout fragment
. The posterior facet fragment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The sustentacular fragment


Explanation

The sustentacular (anteromedial) fragment remains strongly tethered to the talus by the interosseous talocalcaneal and deltoid ligaments. During ORIF, it serves as the stable keystone fragment to which the remainder of the calcaneus is anatomically reduced.

Question 617

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 42-year-old male presents with persistent lateral hindfoot pain one year after non-operative management of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture. Physical examination reveals focal tenderness just inferior to the lateral malleolus and limited subtalar motion. Radiographs demonstrate a widened calcaneus. Which of the following conditions is the most likely primary source of his focal lateral pain?

. Sural neuroma entrapment
. Tarsal tunnel syndrome
. Chronic Achilles tendinosis
. Subfibular impingement of the peroneal tendons
. Anterior ankle joint impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subfibular impingement of the peroneal tendons


Explanation

A classic late complication of a malunited, widened calcaneus fracture is lateral wall blow-out, which causes subfibular impingement. This traps and compresses the peroneal tendons between the lateral malleolus and the widened calcaneal lateral wall.

Question 618

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports

According to the Lauge-Hansen classification, what is the expected sequence of structural failure in a Supination-External Rotation (SER) type IV ankle injury?

. Anterior tibiofibular ligament -> short oblique fibula fracture -> posterior tibiofibular ligament -> deltoid ligament or medial malleolus
. Medial malleolus -> anterior tibiofibular ligament -> high fibula fracture -> posterior tibiofibular ligament
. Deltoid ligament -> anterior tibiofibular ligament -> spiral fibula fracture -> syndesmosis
. Posterior tibiofibular ligament -> medial malleolus -> anterior tibiofibular ligament -> transverse fibula fracture
. Transverse fibula fracture -> posterior tibiofibular ligament -> anterior tibiofibular ligament -> medial malleolus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior tibiofibular ligament -> short oblique fibula fracture -> posterior tibiofibular ligament -> deltoid ligament or medial malleolus


Explanation

An SER IV injury progresses sequentially in a circular fashion: 1) Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) rupture, 2) short spiral/oblique lateral malleolus fracture, 3) Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) rupture or posterior malleolus fracture, and 4) Deltoid ligament rupture or transverse medial malleolus fracture.

Question 619

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 55-year-old patient with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus and peripheral neuropathy sustains an unstable bimalleolar ankle fracture. When planning operative fixation, what modification in surgical technique is most critical to minimize catastrophic postoperative complications?

. Use of bioabsorbable screws for the medial malleolus to avoid delayed wound breakdown
. Utilization of a single intramedullary Kirschner wire for the fibula to minimize soft tissue stripping
. Augmentation of fixation rigidity using multiple syndesmotic screws or a fibular pro-tibia construct
. Early initiation of unprotected weight-bearing at 2 weeks to stimulate neuropathic bone healing
. Avoidance of any plate fixation on the lateral malleolus to protect the vascular supply

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Augmentation of fixation rigidity using multiple syndesmotic screws or a fibular pro-tibia construct


Explanation

Diabetic patients with neuropathy are at high risk for Charcot arthropathy and hardware failure. They require enhanced, hyper-rigid fixation constructs (such as multiple syndesmotic screws, locking plates, or pro-tibia screws) and a vastly prolonged non-weight-bearing period to prevent construct collapse.

Question 620

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Following uncomplicated open reduction and internal fixation of an intra-articular calcaneus fracture, what is the most appropriate initial rehabilitation protocol for the patient, assuming a stable fixation construct and healthy soft tissues?

. Immediate full weight-bearing in a rigid CAM boot
. Non-weight-bearing for 12 weeks with strict immobilization in a short leg cast to prevent stiffness
. Non-weight-bearing for 8-12 weeks with early initiation of active ankle and subtalar range of motion exercises
. Partial weight-bearing at 2 weeks with physical therapy focusing on aggressive passive inversion/eversion
. Immediate weight-bearing as tolerated in a total contact cast

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Non-weight-bearing for 8-12 weeks with early initiation of active ankle and subtalar range of motion exercises


Explanation

Rehabilitation following calcaneus ORIF typically involves early active range of motion of the ankle and subtalar joints to prevent debilitating stiffness. However, strict non-weight-bearing must be maintained for approximately 8-12 weeks to allow for adequate bony union.