8. Foot and Ankle MCQs

A 28-year-old football player sustains a midfoot injury. Radiographs reveal a widening between the first and second metatarsals with a 'Fleck sign'. The critical torn ligament in this injury anatomically connects which two skeletal structures?

A 24-year-old football player sustains an axial load injury to a plantarflexed foot. Radiographs demonstrate a subtle widening between the first and second metatarsals with a small avulsion fracture (Fleck sign). The torn ligament primarily connects which two structures?

A patient undergoes a percutaneous repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture. Postoperatively, he complains of burning pain, numbness, and tingling along the lateral border of his foot. Which nerve was most likely entrapped or injured during the surgical procedure?

A 24-year-old athlete sustains a severe midfoot injury. Radiographs demonstrate widening between the first and second metatarsal bases and a small bony avulsion fragment in this interval, commonly known as the 'Fleck sign.' This avulsed fragment represents the attachment of the Lisfranc ligament, which originates on which of the following bones?

The primary Lisfranc ligament, critical for midfoot stability, connects which two osseous structures?

A 22-year-old football player sustains an axial load to a plantarflexed foot resulting in midfoot pain. Examination shows plantar ecchymosis. Radiographs reveal widening of the space between the first and second metatarsal bases. The primarily injured ligament in this scenario connects which of the following structures?

A 40-year-old "weekend warrior" feels a sudden pop in the back of his heel while playing basketball. Examination reveals a palpable gap and a positive Thompson test. If this is a classic acute Achilles tendon rupture, in which anatomic region did the rupture most likely occur?

A 25-year-old male sustains an anterior knee dislocation during a football game. The dislocation is immediately reduced on the field. In the emergency department, his foot is warm, capillary refill is brisk, and both dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are palpable and symmetric to the contralateral side. The Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is measured at 0.95. What is the most appropriate next step in vascular management?

Following a primary THA performed via a posterior approach, a patient complains of an inability to lift their foot. Physical examination reveals a profound foot drop. The patient has zero strength (0/5) in ankle dorsiflexion and great toe extension, but retains full normal strength (5/5) in ankle plantar flexion and ankle inversion. Sensation is decreased over the dorsum of the foot. Which specific neural structure was most likely injured?

A 55-year-old patient with long-standing, poorly controlled diabetes presents with a warm, swollen, erythematous left foot. Radiographs show fragmentation and periarticular debris at the tarsometatarsal joints. Laboratory markers (WBC, ESR, CRP) are minimally elevated. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 35-year-old male undergoes surgical repair of an acute midsubstance Achilles tendon rupture using a percutaneous or limited open technique. To avoid capturing the sural nerve during the proximal aspect of the repair, the surgeon must be particularly cautious on which aspect of the tendon?

A 26-year-old athlete sustains a midfoot sprain. Weight-bearing radiographs show a 3 mm widening between the base of the 1st and 2nd metatarsals. The primary structural ligament that has been compromised connects which two bones?

A 55-year-old woman presents with medial ankle pain and a progressive flatfoot deformity. She is unable to perform a single-leg heel raise on the affected side. Radiographs show uncovering of the talonavicular joint. This condition is primarily due to dysfunction of which tendon?

A 25-year-old football player sustains a hyperplantarflexion injury to his foot. Radiographs show widening of the space between the 1st and 2nd metatarsal bases. The Lisfranc ligament connects which two structures?

A 24-year-old football player undergoes forceful plantarflexion of the foot while another player falls on his heel. He presents with midfoot pain and swelling. Weight-bearing radiographs show a 2 mm widening between the base of the first and second metatarsals. What is the anatomic origin and insertion of the principal ligament most likely injured?

A 55-year-old poorly controlled diabetic male presents with a red, hot, swollen, and painless left foot. Radiographs show joint fragmentation, periarticular debris, and subluxation of the tarsometatarsal joints. Which stage of the Eichenholtz classification does this represent, and what is the primary pathophysiological driver?

A 24-year-old male sustains a purely ligamentous Lisfranc injury with lateral displacement of the second through fifth metatarsals. He undergoes operative management. Based on current orthopedic literature, what is the primary advantage of primary arthrodesis over open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) for this specific injury pattern?