8. Foot and Ankle MCQs

A 22-year-old football player sustains a midfoot injury. Weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate widening of the space between the first and second metatarsals. The primary ligament injured in this condition connects which two anatomical structures?

A 32-year-old athlete sustains an acute complete Achilles tendon rupture. He opts for non-operative management with an early functional rehabilitation protocol. Compared to open surgical repair, this non-operative approach is associated with:

A 35-year-old male sustains a vertically unstable (Denis Zone 3) sacral fracture following a fall from height. Which of the following neurologic deficits is most specifically associated with this injury pattern?

The watershed area of the Achilles tendon is the most common site of spontaneous rupture. This region is located 2 to 6 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion and is primarily supplied by the vascular watershed of which two arteries?

A 24-year-old patient with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease presents with bilateral cavovarus feet. The Coleman block test is performed by placing the heel and lateral foot on a block while allowing the first metatarsal to hang off. The hindfoot corrects to neutral. What does this indicate about the deformity, and what is the primary driver?

A 45-year-old male is evaluated for radiating leg pain. Straight leg raise (SLR) elicits pain at 40 degrees. The examiner drops the leg slightly until the pain stops, then abruptly dorsiflexes the foot, which reproduces the radiating pain. What is the name of this confirmatory test?

A 24-year-old football player sustains an axial load to a plantarflexed foot. Radiographs show a widening of the space between the bases of the first and second metatarsals. Which of the following accurately describes the anatomy of the primary ligament injured in this condition?

A 14-year-old with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease presents with a cavovarus foot deformity. A Coleman block test is performed and the hindfoot completely corrects to neutral. What does this finding indicate regarding the foot's biomechanics?

A patient with chronic, refractory plantar fasciitis undergoes a Silfverskiold test. Ankle dorsiflexion is 0 degrees with the knee extended and 15 degrees with the knee flexed. What is the diagnosis and the most appropriate surgical target?

During physical examination of the forefoot, applying lateral compression to the metatarsal heads while simultaneously palpating the plantar aspect of the third web space elicits a palpable click and sharp pain radiating into the toes. What is the underlying pathology?

A 40-year-old with chronic plantar fasciitis undergoes a Silfverskiold test. Ankle dorsiflexion is limited to 0 degrees with the knee extended, but improves to 15 degrees when the knee is flexed. This finding indicates an isolated contracture of which structure?

An athlete suffers an inversion ankle sprain. The anterior drawer test is positive. A subsequent talar tilt test in inversion is also distinctly positive compared to the normal side. Which ligament is primarily assessed by this talar tilt maneuver?

A 40-year-old runner presents with chronic Achilles pain. The examiner assesses ankle dorsiflexion with the knee flexed and then with the knee extended. Dorsiflexion is 15 degrees with the knee flexed but limits to 0 degrees with the knee extended. What does this test signify?

A 45-year-old female complains of sharp pain in her forefoot that feels like walking on a pebble. The examiner squeezes the metatarsal heads together while applying plantar and dorsal pressure to the intermetatarsal space, producing a palpable click and reproducing her pain. This finding is highly specific for:

A 38-year-old male presents with lower back pain radiating down his posterior left leg. The examiner performs a straight leg raise, which elicits shooting pain below the knee at 40 degrees of elevation. The examiner lowers the leg slightly and dorsiflexes the foot, which reproduces the pain. Which spinal nerve roots are most likely involved?

A 30-year-old male suffers an axial load injury to a plantarflexed foot. Radiographs demonstrate widening between the 1st and 2nd metatarsal bases with a 'fleck sign' in the intermetatarsal space. This bony fragment represents an avulsion of the Lisfranc ligament from which specific osseous structure?

A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a painless, red, hot, and swollen right foot. He is afebrile with normal inflammatory markers. Radiographs demonstrate periarticular fragmentation, subluxation, and bony debris at the midfoot. According to the Eichenholtz classification, what is the most appropriate initial management?

An 18-year-old football player sustains a high-energy midfoot injury. Imaging confirms a Lisfranc fracture-dislocation. The primary Lisfranc ligament connects which two osseous structures?