This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 5741
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 10-year-old boy presents with a history of recurrent lateral ankle sprains and a rigid flatfoot. Oblique radiographs of the foot demonstrate an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus, commonly known as the 'anteater nose' sign. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Talocalcaneal coalition
Explanation
The 'anteater nose' sign on an oblique radiograph of the foot is a classic radiographic finding for a calcaneonavicular coalition. This represents the elongated anterior process of the calcaneus approaching the navicular. Symptoms typically manifest between ages 8 and 12.
Question 5742
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Osteochondral lesions of the talus (OLTs) have distinct morphologic characteristics based on their location. Which of the following descriptions classically characterizes an anterolateral OLT?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deep, cup-shaped, and relatively atraumatic in origin
Explanation
Anterolateral OLTs are classically described as shallow and wafer-shaped, and they are almost universally associated with a history of trauma (inversion and dorsiflexion). In contrast, posteromedial lesions are typically deep, cup-shaped, and may not have a clear traumatic etiology.
Question 5743
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old female presents with pain in the second webspace, radiating into the toes. Clinical examination reveals pain upon lateral compression of the forefoot accompanied by a palpable click (Mulder's sign). She undergoes surgical excision through a dorsal approach. Which of the following is a known risk specific to the dorsal approach compared to the plantar approach for this pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Higher risk of painful plantar keratosis formation
Explanation
When excising a Morton's neuroma via a dorsal approach, the deep transverse metatarsal ligament must be divided to adequately expose and resect the neuroma. Failure to properly visualize and cut this ligament can lead to an incomplete resection or recurrent symptoms.
Question 5744
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 26-year-old skier presents with snapping over the lateral malleolus after an acute eversion injury. Examination confirms subluxation of the peroneal tendons with resisted eversion. Surgical management involves repair of the superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR). To which structure must the SPR be anatomically reattached?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The anterior surface of the fibula
Explanation
Peroneal tendon subluxation is caused by an avulsion of the superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR) from its insertion on the posterolateral ridge of the fibula. Surgical repair involves reattaching the SPR to this posterolateral ridge, often alongside deepening of the fibular groove.
Question 5745
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 50-year-old runner undergoes a complete surgical release of the plantar fascia for recalcitrant plantar fasciitis. Post-operatively, she reports relief of her heel pain but develops new-onset, severe pain along the lateral border of her midfoot. What is the most likely biomechanical cause of this new symptom?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iatrogenic injury to the medial calcaneal nerve
Explanation
A complete release of the plantar fascia destroys the windlass mechanism, leading to arch depression, increased strain on the midfoot ligaments, and subsequent lateral column overload. This complication causes severe, recalcitrant lateral midfoot pain.
Question 5746
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 14-year-old female presents with insidious onset forefoot pain localized to the second metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. Radiographs demonstrate sclerosis, flattening, and early fragmentation of the second metatarsal head. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Kohler's disease
Explanation
Freiberg's infraction is an osteochondrosis or avascular necrosis of the metatarsal head, most commonly affecting the second metatarsal. It typically presents in adolescent females during their growth spurt.
Question 5747
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 40-year-old roofer falls from a height and sustains a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture. He undergoes Open Reduction Internal Fixation (ORIF) via an extensile lateral approach. Postoperatively, he complains of numbness over the lateral aspect of his heel and foot. Which nerve was most likely injured during the surgical approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deep peroneal nerve
Explanation
The sural nerve is at high risk of injury during the extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus. It provides sensation to the lateral aspect of the heel and foot.
Question 5748
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 55-year-old female presents with a progressive flatfoot deformity. Examination reveals a flexible hindfoot valgus and inability to perform a single-leg heel raise. Weight-bearing radiographs show more than 30% uncovering of the talonavicular joint on the AP view. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate for this Stage IIb posterior tibial tendon dysfunction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated posterior tibial tendon debridement
Explanation
Stage IIb adult acquired flatfoot deformity is characterized by a flexible deformity with significant forefoot abduction (>30% talonavicular uncovering). Adding a lateral column lengthening to an FDL transfer and MDCO is required to correct the severe forefoot abduction.
Question 5749
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 20-year-old track athlete presents with insidious onset of vague dorsal midfoot pain. CT scan reveals an incomplete stress fracture of the tarsal navicular located in the central third of the bone. What anatomical feature primarily predisposes the navicular to stress fractures in this specific region?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Insertion of the tibialis anterior tendon
Explanation
The central third of the tarsal navicular is a relative watershed area of avascularity. This limited blood supply predisposes the central portion of the bone to stress fractures and delayed healing.
Question 5750
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 19-year-old professional basketball player sustains an acute, displaced fracture at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal. To minimize the risk of nonunion and expedite return to play, intramedullary screw fixation is planned. What is the optimal entry point for accurately placing the screw in the medullary canal?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Plantar-medial aspect of the fifth metatarsal base
Explanation
The optimal entry point for an intramedullary screw in a Jones fracture is 'high and inside' (dorsal and medial) on the proximal tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal. This trajectory best aligns with the straight medullary canal and avoids lateral cortex blowout.
Question 5751
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 55-year-old female presents with progressive flattening of her left medial longitudinal arch. On examination, she is unable to perform a single-leg heel rise. Weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate >40% talonavicular uncoverage and an abnormally high talus-first metatarsal angle. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate for this stage of posterior tibial tendon dysfunction (Stage IIb)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. FDL transfer, MDCO, and lateral column lengthening
Explanation
Stage IIb posterior tibial tendon dysfunction involves flexible pes planovalgus with significant forefoot abduction (>40% TN uncoverage). A lateral column lengthening is necessary in addition to FDL transfer and MDCO to adequately correct the forefoot abduction.
Question 5752
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
When performing a minimally invasive repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture, care must be taken to avoid injury to the sural nerve. At what approximate distance proximal to the calcaneal insertion does the sural nerve typically cross the lateral border of the Achilles tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2-3 cm
Explanation
The sural nerve courses from medial to lateral and crosses the lateral border of the Achilles tendon approximately 9.8 cm proximal to its calcaneal insertion. Sutures placed proximal to this level carry a higher risk of nerve entrapment.
Question 5753
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 60-year-old poorly controlled diabetic male presents with an acutely swollen, red, and warm right foot. He denies trauma, and his pedal pulses are bounding. Inflammatory markers are mildly elevated. Radiographs show early fragmentation and debris at the midfoot. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and surgical debridement
Explanation
This is a classic presentation of acute Stage I (developmental/fragmentation) Charcot neuroarthropathy, characterized by bounding pulses and fragmentation. The gold standard for initial management is strict immobilization using a total contact cast to prevent further collapse.
Question 5754
Topic: Forefoot
A 52-year-old avid runner presents with worsening great toe pain. Examination reveals less than 10 degrees of dorsiflexion and significant pain through the mid-arc of motion. Radiographs demonstrate severe joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis, and large circumferential osteophytes at the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. What is the most definitive and reliable surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cheilectomy and Moberg osteotomy
Explanation
The patient has Coughlin/Shurnas Grade 4 hallux rigidus (pain in mid-arc of motion, severe radiographic changes). First MTP arthrodesis is the most reliable and durable procedure for advanced hallux rigidus, particularly in young, active patients.
Question 5755
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
In patients with Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease, a classic cavovarus foot deformity develops due to specific muscle imbalances. Which of the following combinations best describes the primary overpowering muscle forces driving the plantarflexed first ray and hindfoot varus?
In CMT, the relatively strong peroneus longus overpowers the weak tibialis anterior, causing a plantarflexed first ray. Simultaneously, the strong tibialis posterior overpowers the weak peroneus brevis, driving hindfoot varus.
Question 5756
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A surgeon is performing a dorsal approach for the excision of a recurrent Morton's neuroma in the third web space. To gain adequate exposure and successfully identify and resect the neuroma, which of the following structures MUST be transected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Plantar aponeurosis
Explanation
The common plantar digital nerve (and the neuroma) lies plantar to the deep transverse metatarsal ligament. When using a dorsal surgical approach, this ligament must be transected to expose and resect the neuroma.
Question 5757
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 13-year-old male sustains an external rotation injury to his ankle. Radiographs show a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibia (Tillaux fracture). This fracture pattern is primarily due to the avulsion pull of which of the following ligaments?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
Explanation
A juvenile Tillaux fracture occurs due to the pull of the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) on the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. This occurs uniquely in adolescents because the distal tibial physis closes central-to-medial, leaving the lateral aspect open and vulnerable to avulsion.
Question 5758
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 60-year-old male is undergoing surgery for chronic insertional Achilles tendinopathy with a large Haglund's deformity. During debridement through a central tendon-splitting approach, it is determined that 65% of the Achilles tendon insertion must be detached and excised to adequately remove the degenerative tissue. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary repair of the tendon to the calcaneus using suture anchors
Explanation
If more than 50% of the Achilles tendon insertion is debrided during surgery for insertional tendinopathy, the remaining tendon is biomechanically insufficient. Flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon transfer is the gold standard to augment the repair.
Question 5759
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 52-year-old female presents with a progressive, painful flatfoot deformity. Clinical examination reveals an inability to perform a single-leg heel rise. Weight-bearing radiographs show a flexible hindfoot valgus and greater than 30% uncovering of the talonavicular joint with forefoot abduction. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this Stage IIb posterior tibial tendon dysfunction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Non-operative management with an articulated AFO
Explanation
Stage IIb adult-acquired flatfoot deformity involves a flexible hindfoot with significant forefoot abduction (>30% talonavicular uncovering). Surgical correction requires a medializing calcaneal osteotomy to correct hindfoot valgus, an FDL transfer to replace the dysfunctional PTT, and a lateral column lengthening to correct the forefoot abduction.
Question 5760
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old recreational basketball player suffers an acute Achilles tendon rupture. Based on high-level level I evidence (e.g., the Willits trial) comparing operative repair versus non-operative management with early functional rehabilitation, what is the expected outcome profile?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Similar re-rupture rates but higher soft tissue complications in the operative group
Explanation
Recent level I evidence demonstrates that when early functional rehabilitation protocols are utilized, the re-rupture rates between operative and non-operative management of Achilles ruptures are not statistically different. However, operative management carries a higher risk of soft tissue complications, such as infection and sural nerve injury.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.