This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 5721
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A patient with multiple severe midfoot crush injuries presents with a tense, swollen foot and severe pain with passive toe dorsiflexion. If foot fasciotomies are indicated, what surgical approaches are commonly utilized to release all 9 compartments?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A single dorsal midline incision
Explanation
The foot has 9 compartments. The classic surgical approach includes two longitudinal dorsal incisions to release the interosseous compartments, and a medial utility incision to release the deep and superficial plantar compartments.
Question 5722
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 32-year-old male sustains a Hawkins Type II fracture of the talar neck following a motor vehicle collision. Which of the following sources of blood supply is most likely to remain intact, often providing the sole remaining perfusion to the talar body?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deltoid branch of the posterior tibial artery
Explanation
In a Hawkins Type II talar neck fracture (displaced neck fracture with subtalar subluxation/dislocation), the blood supply from the artery of the tarsal canal (the main supply to the body) and the artery of the tarsal sinus are typically disrupted. The deltoid branch of the posterior tibial artery, which enters the medial aspect of the talar body, is often the last remaining blood supply unless a Hawkins III or IV fracture occurs.
Question 5723
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 24-year-old rugby player sustains an axial load to a plantarflexed foot. Radiographs reveal a 'fleck sign' adjacent to the base of the second metatarsal. The primary injured ligament connects which two osseous structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intermediate cuneiform and base of the second metatarsal
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament is an interosseous ligament that connects the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial base of the second metatarsal. It is the largest and strongest of the ligaments stabilizing the Lisfranc joint complex. A 'fleck sign' represents an avulsion of this ligament from the base of the second metatarsal.
Question 5724
Topic: Forefoot
A 45-year-old female presents with severe bunion pain. Weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 42 degrees, an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 18 degrees, and clinical hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to effectively correct the deformity and minimize recurrence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Distal chevron osteotomy
Explanation
A Lapidus procedure (first TMT arthrodesis) is indicated for severe hallux valgus deformities (IMA > 15-20 degrees, HVA > 40 degrees), particularly when there is hypermobility or instability at the first TMT joint. It corrects the intermetatarsal angle at the apex of the deformity and stabilizes the medial column.
Question 5725
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 60-year-old female presents with a progressive, flexible flatfoot deformity and inability to perform a single-leg heel raise. Examination shows severe hindfoot valgus and >40% uncovering of the talonavicular joint. She reports lateral ankle impingement pain. According to the Johnson and Strom classification modified by Myerson, what is the most appropriate surgical management if conservative treatment fails?
This patient has a flexible Stage IIb Adult Acquired Flatfoot Deformity (Posterior Tibial Tendon Dysfunction). Stage IIb is characterized by significant forefoot abduction (>30-40% talonavicular uncovering). Appropriate treatment includes correcting the deformity with a lateral column lengthening (e.g., Evans osteotomy) in addition to an FDL transfer and medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy (MDCO) to address both the valgus and the abduction.
Question 5726
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
When performing an extensile lateral approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture, the surgical flap must be carefully elevated as a full-thickness layer to the periosteum to prevent necrosis. Which artery provides the primary blood supply to the apex of this lateral flap?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral tarsal artery
Explanation
The lateral calcaneal artery, a branch of the peroneal artery, provides the primary blood supply to the lateral flap used in the extensile lateral approach to the calcaneus. The flap must be full-thickness and elevated subperiosteally to preserve this vascular supply and minimize wound healing complications.
Question 5727
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 55-year-old patient with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with a red, hot, and swollen left foot. Radiographs show periarticular osteopenia, fragmentation of bone, and early subluxation at the midtarsal joints. Infection has been definitively ruled out. According to the Eichenholtz classification, what stage is this, and what is the standard initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stage 0; custom orthotics
Explanation
Eichenholtz Stage 1 (Development/Fragmentation) of Charcot arthropathy is characterized clinically by a red, hot, swollen foot and radiographically by bone fragmentation, joint subluxation, and debris. The gold standard initial treatment is immobilization in a total contact cast (TCC) and offloading to prevent further deformity until the acute inflammatory phase resolves (progressing to Stage 2 - Coalescence, and Stage 3 - Consolidation).
Question 5728
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 26-year-old male sustains an inversion ankle sprain while his foot is maximally plantarflexed. He later develops persistent deep ankle pain. MRI reveals an osteochondral lesion of the talus. Based on the mechanism of injury, where is the lesion most likely located and what is its typical morphology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterolateral; shallow and wafer-shaped
Explanation
Osteochondral lesions of the talus follow the 'DIAL a PIMP' mnemonic: Dorsiflexion Inversion = Anterior Lateral (shallow, wafer-shaped, usually traumatic); Plantarflexion Inversion = Medial Posterior (deep, cup-shaped, more often morphologic or microtraumatic but can be acute). Given the plantarflexion and inversion mechanism, a posteromedial, deep cup-shaped lesion is expected.
Question 5729
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 42-year-old runner complains of chronic medial heel pain radiating to the plantar aspect of the foot. Examination reveals maximal tenderness over the medial tuberosity of the calcaneus, exacerbated by palpation distal to the abductor hallucis. Entrapment of the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve (Baxter's nerve) is suspected. This nerve typically courses between which two muscle bellies?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Abductor hallucis and flexor digitorum brevis
Explanation
Baxter's nerve (the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve) is a common cause of recalcitrant heel pain. It typically becomes entrapped as it courses laterally between the deep fascia of the abductor hallucis muscle and the medial aspect of the quadratus plantae muscle.
Question 5730
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 20-year-old male with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease presents with a symptomatic bilateral cavovarus foot deformity. A Coleman block test is performed, which normalizes his hindfoot varus. Which of the following muscle imbalances is the primary driver initiating the plantarflexed first ray in this specific deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Weak tibialis anterior overpowered by strong peroneus longus
Explanation
In Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, the intrinsic muscles, tibialis anterior, and peroneus brevis weaken early. The peroneus longus and tibialis posterior remain strong. The strong peroneus longus overpowers the weak tibialis anterior, driving the first ray into plantarflexion, which leads to a forefoot-driven hindfoot varus deformity (corrected by the Coleman block test).
Question 5731
Topic: Forefoot
A 58-year-old male presents with dorsal first MTP joint pain. Radiographs demonstrate advanced joint space narrowing, large dorsal osteophytes, and subchondral sclerosis. Clinically, he has severe pain at the extremes of motion AND during the mid-arc of motion (Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 4 hallux rigidus). Which surgical procedure is considered the most reliable gold standard for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cheilectomy
Explanation
For advanced hallux rigidus (Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 3 and 4), particularly Grade 4 where pain is present in the mid-arc of motion, cheilectomy alone is insufficient because the joint cartilage is destroyed globally. First MTP joint arthrodesis is the gold standard, providing reliable pain relief and functional improvement.
Question 5732
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 14-year-old boy presents with a history of recurrent ankle sprains and a painful, rigid flatfoot. Examination reveals restricted subtalar motion and peroneal spasticity. Lateral radiographs reveal a continuous bony contour forming a 'C-sign'. Which of the following describes the most likely anatomic location of the pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
Explanation
The 'C-sign' on a lateral radiograph is indicative of a talocalcaneal coalition, specifically bridging the medial talus to the sustentaculum tali (middle facet). A calcaneonavicular coalition is typically seen on an oblique radiograph as an 'anteater nose' sign.
Question 5733
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Total Ankle Arthroplasty (TAA) has become an increasingly popular alternative to ankle arthrodesis for end-stage ankle osteoarthritis. According to current guidelines, which of the following is generally considered an absolute contraindication for TAA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Avascular necrosis involving more than 50% of the talar body
Explanation
Absolute contraindications for Total Ankle Arthroplasty (TAA) include active infection, Charcot arthropathy, absent motor function/paralysis, severe uncorrectable malalignment, and avascular necrosis of the talus involving >50% of the talar body (as the implant requires sufficient viable bone for fixation).
Question 5734
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During the surgical repair of an acute syndesmotic injury (high ankle sprain) without a medial malleolus fracture, the surgeon places a syndesmotic screw. Historically, teaching dictated fixing the syndesmosis with the ankle in maximal dorsiflexion to prevent overtightening. What anatomical characteristic of the talus was the basis for this traditional teaching, even though recent studies show anatomical reduction is the true determinant of postoperative motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The talar dome is wider posteriorly than anteriorly.
Explanation
The traditional teaching of dorsiflexing the ankle during syndesmotic screw placement is based on the anatomy of the talar dome, which is trapezoidal and wider anteriorly. It was thought that fixing it in plantarflexion would over-constrain the mortise and prevent subsequent dorsiflexion, though modern literature shows that anatomical reduction of the fibula in the incisura is the critical factor.
Question 5735
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old male presents with chronic lateral foot and ankle pain 18 months after sustaining a closed, displaced intra-articular calcaneus fracture treated nonoperatively. He reports difficulty wearing standard closed shoes. Physical examination reveals limited subtalar motion and tenderness inferior to the lateral malleolus. What is the most likely pathophysiologic cause of his current symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subfibular impingement secondary to lateral wall exostosis and loss of calcaneal height
Explanation
Nonoperative management of displaced calcaneus fractures frequently results in loss of calcaneal height, hindfoot varus, and lateral wall blow-out. This structural deformity leads to subfibular impingement and peroneal tendon entrapment, causing chronic lateral pain and difficulty with shoe wear.
Question 5736
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 55-year-old female presents with a painful, progressive flatfoot deformity. Examination reveals an inability to perform a single-limb heel rise and significant flexible hindfoot valgus. Weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate a talonavicular coverage angle of 45 degrees and uncovering of the talar head. Which of the following surgical strategies is most appropriate for this stage of deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer to the navicular and medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy (MDCO) alone
Explanation
This patient has Stage IIb adult-acquired flatfoot deformity, characterized by a flexible deformity with significant forefoot abduction (>40% talonavicular uncovering). Management requires a soft tissue reconstruction (FDL transfer), hindfoot correction (MDCO), and a lateral column lengthening (e.g., Evans osteotomy) to correct the forefoot abduction.
Question 5737
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A surgeon is performing a minimally invasive percutaneous repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture. To minimize the risk of iatrogenic nerve injury during suture passage, the surgeon must be acutely aware of the course of the sural nerve. At approximately what distance proximal to the calcaneal insertion does the sural nerve typically cross the lateral border of the Achilles tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2-4 cm
Explanation
The sural nerve courses distally and crosses the lateral border of the Achilles tendon approximately 9.8 to 12 cm proximal to its calcaneal insertion. Sutures placed blindly in the proximal stump at this level carry a high risk of sural nerve entrapment.
Question 5738
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 62-year-old patient with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with a globally swollen, erythematous, and warm right foot. Pedal pulses are palpable. Radiographs reveal fragmentation, periarticular debris, and subluxation at the tarsometatarsal joints. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate open reduction and internal fixation of the midfoot
Explanation
This patient is in the acute fragmentation phase (Eichenholtz Stage 1) of Charcot neuroarthropathy. The gold standard for initial management is immediate offloading with a total contact cast to arrest the progression of deformity until the inflammatory phase resolves.
Question 5739
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 22-year-old female with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease presents with bilateral cavovarus feet. A Coleman block test is performed, and her hindfoot varus completely corrects to a neutral alignment when the first metatarsal is allowed to drop off the block. What does this finding dictate regarding surgical planning?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A lateralizing calcaneal osteotomy is mandatory
Explanation
The Coleman block test evaluates hindfoot flexibility in a cavovarus foot. Correction of hindfoot varus indicates a flexible hindfoot driven by a rigid, plantarflexed first ray, meaning surgical correction must include a first metatarsal dorsiflexion osteotomy.
Question 5740
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 58-year-old male presents with dorsal foot pain and stiffness of the great toe. Examination shows palpable dorsal osteophytes and pain exclusively at the extremes of motion. Radiographs demonstrate <50% joint space narrowing with preservation of the plantar joint space (Coughlin Grade 2 Hallux Rigidus). What is the most appropriate initial surgical intervention if conservative measures fail?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal cheilectomy removing up to 30% of the dorsal metatarsal head
Explanation
For early-to-moderate hallux rigidus (Grade 1 or 2) with preserved plantar cartilage and pain primarily at extremes of dorsiflexion, a dorsal cheilectomy is the standard bone-preserving surgical option. Arthrodesis is reserved for end-stage (Grade 3 or 4) disease.
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