This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 241
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The Lisfranc ligament is critical for midfoot stability. Which of the following accurately describes the anatomic attachments of the Lisfranc ligament?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament connects the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial base of the second metatarsal. It is a critical stabilizer of the tarsometatarsal joint complex.
Question 242
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 40-year-old recreational athlete sustains an acute Achilles tendon rupture. During non-operative management with functional bracing, what is the optimal foot position during the initial weeks of immobilization?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Plantar flexion
Explanation
Initial immobilization in plantar flexion brings the ruptured ends of the Achilles tendon closer together, facilitating proper healing. The foot is gradually brought to neutral over several weeks in a functional rehabilitation protocol.
Question 243
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During open reduction and internal fixation of a Weber C ankle fracture, the surgeon performs a hook test which demonstrates widening of the tibiofibular clear space. A syndesmotic screw is planned. What is the recommended position of the ankle during syndesmotic screw fixation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Neutral dorsiflexion
Explanation
The syndesmotic screw should be placed with the ankle in neutral dorsiflexion. This ensures that the widest portion of the talar dome sits within the mortise, preventing over-tightening of the syndesmosis and subsequent loss of dorsiflexion.
Question 244
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following radiographic findings on a weight-bearing AP view of the foot is most indicative of a subtle Lisfranc injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Widening of the space between the first and second metatarsal bases greater than 2 mm
Explanation
A diastasis greater than 2 mm between the bases of the first and second metatarsals on an AP weight-bearing radiograph strongly suggests a Lisfranc ligament disruption. The "fleck sign" typically occurs at the base of the second metatarsal.
Question 245
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old construction worker falls from a height and sustains an axial load injury to his foot. Radiographs reveal widening of the space between the base of the first and second metatarsals. What is the key stabilizing ligament injured in this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lisfranc ligament
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament runs from the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal and is critical for midfoot stability. Injury to this ligament results in diastasis between the first and second rays, defining a Lisfranc injury.
Question 246
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old runner complains of sharp heel pain, worst with the first steps in the morning. Examination reveals tenderness at the medial tuberosity of the calcaneus. Initial conservative management fails. What is the most common histological finding in this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Myxoid degeneration and angiofibroblastic hyperplasia
Explanation
Plantar fasciitis is histologically a degenerative condition (fasciosis) rather than an acute inflammatory one. The classic histological findings include myxoid degeneration, angiofibroblastic hyperplasia, and microtears.
Question 247
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A collegiate football player sustains a hyperplantarflexion injury to his midfoot. Weight-bearing radiographs show widening of the space between the first and second metatarsal bases. What is the primary ligamentous structure disrupted in this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial cuneiform to 2nd metatarsal base
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament is an interosseous ligament that connects the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. It is the primary stabilizer of the tarsometatarsal joint complex, and its disruption leads to midfoot instability.
Question 248
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 40-year-old male feels a sudden pop in his right heel while playing basketball. Examination reveals a positive Thompson test and a palpable gap in the tendon. If non-operative management is selected, what is the most appropriate initial immobilization position?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Plantar flexion in a short leg cast or functional boot
Explanation
Non-operative management of acute Achilles tendon ruptures begins with immobilization in plantar flexion (equinus) to approximate the torn tendon ends and facilitate fibrous healing.
Question 249
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old male falls from a height and presents with severe midfoot pain and plantar ecchymosis. Radiographs reveal a diastasis between the first and second metatarsals. The Lisfranc ligament, critical for midfoot stability, primarily connects which two osseous structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament that connects the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial aspect of the base of the second metatarsal. Disruption leads to primary instability of the tarsometatarsal joint complex.
Question 250
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 62-year-old patient with poorly controlled diabetes presents with a swollen, erythematous, and warm foot. Radiographs show fragmentation of the midfoot bones, joint subluxation, and periarticular debris. According to the Eichenholtz classification of Charcot arthropathy, which stage does this represent?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stage I (Developmental)
Explanation
Eichenholtz Stage I (Developmental/Fragmentation) is characterized clinically by a red, hot, swollen foot and radiographically by bone fragmentation, joint subluxation, and debris. Stage II involves coalescence, and Stage III involves reconstruction and remodeling.
Question 251
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 38-year-old male recreational tennis player presents with a suspected acute Achilles tendon rupture. Which clinical test is most sensitive and specific for diagnosing this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Squeeze (Thompson) test
Explanation
The Thompson (squeeze) test is performed by squeezing the calf muscle with the patient prone. An intact Achilles tendon results in plantarflexion of the foot; an absence of plantarflexion indicates a complete Achilles tendon rupture.
Question 252
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 42-year-old male feels a "pop" in his lower calf while playing squash. He presents to the clinic with an inability to perform a single-leg heel raise. The Thompson test is positive. Which of the following best describes a positive Thompson test?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Squeezing the calf muscle belly fails to produce passive plantar flexion of the ankle
Explanation
The Thompson test evaluates the integrity of the Achilles tendon. A positive test occurs when squeezing the calf muscle fails to elicit passive plantar flexion of the ankle, indicating a complete rupture of the tendon.
Question 253
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 71-year-old man who has a 40-pack-year smoking history presents to the GP with shortness of breath and bilateral ankle swelling. On examination he has a blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg, a plethoric face and bilateral coarse wheeze on auscultation of the chest. There is pitting oedema affecting both ankles. Which of the following has proved mortality benefit in this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Long-term oxygen therapy
Explanation
Correct Answer: D- Long-term oxygen therapy Explanation Long-term oxygen therapy This patient has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with cor pulmonale, right ventricular failure. Both the National Heart Lung and Blood Institute (NHLB) and the Medical Research Council (MRC) trials showed a mortality benefit of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in COPD. Although LTOT doubles the chances of survival, it must be used for over 15 h per day, but poor patient compliance often means this cannot be met. Bisoprolol Bisoprolol is incorrect. Bisoprolol offers benefit in left ventricular failure. Digoxin Digoxin is incorrect. Digoxin, although it offers relief of symptoms in severe heart failure, does not offer mortality benefit. Ipratropium Ipratropium is incorrect. Although useful for relief of COPD symptoms, ipratropium has no impact on survival. Ramipril Ramipril is incorrect. Ramipril offers benefit in left ventricular failure.
Question 254
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 60-year-old diabetic patient presents with a warm, swollen, erythematous foot without ulceration. Radiographs show periarticular fragmentation, subluxation, and bony debris at the tarsometatarsal joints. According to the Eichenholtz classification, what is the appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Total contact casting and non-weight bearing
Explanation
The patient is in the acute fragmentation phase (Eichenholtz Stage 1) of Charcot arthropathy. The mainstay of treatment is immobilization and offloading, typically utilizing a total contact cast, until the acute inflammation resolves.
Question 255
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
During open reduction and internal fixation of a supination-external rotation type IV ankle fracture, the surgeon assesses the syndesmosis. Which intraoperative fluoroscopic finding best indicates a reduced syndesmosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial clear space equal to the superior clear space on mortise view
Explanation
A reduced syndesmosis and restored fibular length are indicated by a medial clear space that is equal to the superior clear space on the mortise view. The tibiofibular clear space should be < 5 mm, and overlap should be > 10 mm on the AP view.
Question 256
Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 55-year-old female presents with stage II adult acquired flatfoot deformity (posterior tibial tendon dysfunction). Which of the following physical examination findings differentiates stage II from stage III disease?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fixed, rigid hindfoot valgus
Explanation
Stage II posterior tibial tendon dysfunction is characterized by a flexible hindfoot valgus deformity. Progression to stage III is marked by the development of a fixed, rigid hindfoot deformity and subtalar arthritis.
Question 257
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 42-year-old man presents with a right-sided L5 radiculopathy due to a herniated nucleus pulposus. Which physical examination finding is most specific for an isolated L5 nerve root compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Weakness in great toe extension
Explanation
The L5 nerve root primarily innervates the extensor hallucis longus, leading to weakness in great toe extension when compressed. The Achilles reflex and lateral foot sensation are S1, while the patellar reflex is primarily L4.
Question 258
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A therapeutic orthopedic study is designed as a high-quality prospective cohort study comparing clinical outcomes of operative versus nonoperative treatment for Achilles tendon ruptures without randomizing the patients. Based on the hierarchy of evidence-based medicine, what level of evidence does this study provide?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Level II
Explanation
A high-quality prospective cohort study (where patients are tracked forward in time but not randomized) provides Level II evidence for therapeutic questions.
Question 259
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following is the most common finding in diastematomyelia:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Widened interpedicular distance
Explanation
Widened interpedicular distance is the most common finding (94% or greater) in patients with diastematomyelia. Neurologic deficit is present in 60% to 88% of patients with diastematomyelia. A cutaneous lesion, such as a dimple or hairy patch, is present in 55% to 79% of patients with diastematomyelia. Anisomelia is present in 53% to 58% of patients with diastematomyelia. Foot deformities are present in 32% to 52% of patients with diastematomyelia.
Question 260
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following most definitively makes the diagnosis of Sever disease:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tenderness over the calcaneal apophysis
Explanation
There are no radiographic findings diagnostic of Sever disease. Sclerosis and irregularity are normal findings, although they are often mistakenly called evidence of disease. The diagnosis of Sever disease is made by tenderness over the calcaneal apophysis.
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