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Question 221

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A newborn is diagnosed with a congenital vertical talus. Which of the following is the defining pathological anatomic relationship in this condition?

. Dorsal dislocation of the navicular on the talar neck
. Plantar dislocation of the navicular on the talar neck
. Medial subluxation of the cuboid
. Equinus contracture of the talonavicular joint
. Fixed varus deformity of the hindfoot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal dislocation of the navicular on the talar neck


Explanation

Congenital vertical talus is characterized by a rigid rocker-bottom deformity caused by the irreducible dorsal dislocation of the navicular on the neck of the talus.

Question 222

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 12-year-old boy presents with a painful, rigid flatfoot and a history of recurrent ankle sprains. An oblique radiograph of the foot demonstrates the 'anteater nose' sign. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Talocalcaneal coalition
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
. Talonavicular coalition
. Cuboidonavicular coalition
. Accessory navicular syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneonavicular coalition


Explanation

The 'anteater nose' sign is a classic radiographic finding on an oblique view of the foot representing an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus. It is pathognomonic for a calcaneonavicular coalition.

Question 223

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 14-year-old boy presents with a rigid flatfoot, recurrent ankle sprains, and peroneal spasm. Radiographs show the 'anteater nose' sign. Which specific pathology does this radiographic finding represent?

. Talocalcaneal coalition
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
. Congenital vertical talus
. Accessory navicular syndrome
. Naviculocuneiform coalition

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneonavicular coalition


Explanation

The 'anteater nose' sign on an oblique radiograph of the foot represents an elongation of the anterior process of the calcaneus, which is pathognomonic for a calcaneonavicular coalition. This is a common cause of rigid flatfoot and peroneal spastic flatfoot in adolescents.

Question 224

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

When correcting a clubfoot by the Ponseti method, the lateral mold on the foot must be placed against which of the following structures:

. The head of the talus
. The calcaneus
. The cuboid
. The fifth metatarsal
. The tibia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The head of the talus


Explanation

Ponseti describes rotating the clubfoot against the head of the talus to allow the lateral side of the foot (calcaneus and cuboid) to rotate laterally.

Question 225

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

Which of the following bones of the foot is normally ossified at birth:

. C uboid
. First cuneiform
. Third cuneiform
. Navicular
. First metatarsal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Navicular


Explanation

The metatarsals are ossified at birth, along with the talus and the calcaneus. The cuboid ossifies at 1 month, followed by the third, second, and first cuneiforms. The navicular does not ossify until age 2 or 3 years. These facts are useful when interpreting radiographs for congenital foot deformities such as clubfoot. The location of the navicular must often be inferred from the position of the first metatarsal.

Question 226

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

An 11-year-old girl presents with pain in the area of the second metatarsophalangeal joint. Pain is increased with joint motion. Radiographs show increased density and flattening of the metatarsal head. Recommended treatment is:

. Core decompression
. Decreased activity and use of orthotics
. Bone graft of the epiphysis of the second metatarsal
. Fusion of the metatarsophalangeal joint in a functional position
. Osteotomy of the second metatarsal neck

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased activity and use of orthotics


Explanation

Freibergs disorder, or osteochondrosis of the second metatarsal head, is most common in teenage girls, especially dancers. The length of this metatarsal may be a factor in the pathogenesis. Treatment must be conservative in most cases, although a mild degree of symptoms may persist if epiphyseal flattening does not remodel.

Question 227

Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 13-year-old boy sustains a twisting ankle injury resulting in a juvenile Tillaux fracture. Avulsion by which of the following ligaments is primarily responsible for this specific fracture pattern?
. Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)
. Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)
. Deltoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)


Explanation

The juvenile Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. It is caused by avulsion of the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) as the physis closes asymmetrically.

Question 228

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 12-year-old boy presents with rigid flat feet and recurrent ankle sprains. CT imaging reveals a talocalcaneal coalition. Which of the following clinical signs is most classic for this condition on physical examination?

. Excessive subtalar inversion
. Painless passive range of motion
. Absence of the medial longitudinal arch only during weight-bearing
. Decreased subtalar motion and peroneal spasticity
. Positive anterior drawer test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased subtalar motion and peroneal spasticity


Explanation

Tarsal coalitions classically present with a rigid flatfoot and markedly decreased subtalar motion. Patients often exhibit "peroneal spastic flatfoot" due to reflex muscle spasm in the peroneal musculature.

Question 229

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 12-year-old boy presents with rigid flatfeet and recurrent ankle sprains. Radiographs reveal the "anteater nose" sign. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Talocalcaneal coalition
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
. Talonavicular coalition
. Cuboidonavicular coalition
. Congenital vertical talus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Calcaneonavicular coalition


Explanation

The "anteater nose" sign is seen on the lateral radiograph and represents an elongation of the anterior process of the calcaneus, which is pathognomonic for a calcaneonavicular coalition. Talocalcaneal coalitions are often indicated radiographically by the "C sign".

Question 230

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 14-year-old boy presents with a rigid flatfoot and recurrent ankle sprains. Radiographs show a "C sign" on the lateral view. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic imaging to characterize this specific condition?

. Anteroposterior standing radiograph of the foot
. Oblique radiograph of the foot
. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the hindfoot
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the ankle
. Ultrasound of the subtalar joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the hindfoot


Explanation

The "C sign" on a lateral radiograph indicates a talocalcaneal coalition. A CT scan of the hindfoot (specifically coronal views) is the gold standard to clearly delineate the extent and location of a talocalcaneal coalition for surgical planning.

Question 231

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 71-year-old man comes to the Respiratory Clinic for review. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) managed with high-dose Seretide and tiotropium, and right heart failure for which he takes ramipril and bumetanide. He has an exercise tolerance of 80 m and has had two COPD exacerbations in the past year. On examination his BP is 135/85 mmHg; pulse is 75/min and regular. Auscultation reveals bilateral poor air entry and wheeze. He has bilateral pitting oedema to just above the ankles. His BMI is 23. Investigations: Hb 13.8 g/dl, WCC 9.3 × 10^9/l, PLT 189 × 10^9/l, Na+ 138 mmol/l, K+ 4.3 mmol/l, Bicarbonate 32 mmol/l, Creatinine 122 μmol/l, pH 7.44, pO2 7.8 kPa (7.7 kPa 3 months earlier), pCO2 6.5 kPa. Which of the following is the most important argumentation justifying prescription of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in this patient?
. Exercise tolerance 80 m
. pCO2 6.5 kPa and right heart failure
. pO2 7.8 kPa and right heart failure
. Presence of right heart failure irrespective of pO2
. Two exacerbations in the past year

Correct Answer & Explanation

. pO2 7.8 kPa and right heart failure


Explanation

Correct Answer: C. O2 is the main driver for LTOT prescription. Guidelines state that LTOT should be offered to patients with PaO2 less than 7.3 kPa when stable, or greater than 7.3 kPa and less than 8 kPa when stable, who also have secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, nocturnal hypoxaemia or pulmonary hypertension. The presence of right heart failure allows the less stringent threshold for O2 prescription to be used, as in this case.

Question 232

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 28-year-old construction worker drops a heavy beam on his midfoot. Radiographs demonstrate widening of the space between the bases of the first and second metatarsals, with a small bony avulsion fragment in the interval. The Lisfranc ligament connects which two structures?

. Medial cuneiform to the base of the first metatarsal
. Lateral cuneiform to the base of the third metatarsal
. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
. Middle cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
. Navicular to the medial cuneiform

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal


Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament that connects the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal. It is a critical stabilizer of the midfoot, and its rupture leads to tarsometatarsal instability.

Question 233

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 30-year-old male complains of severe midfoot pain after falling from a horse with his foot caught in the stirrup. Examination reveals significant swelling and plantar ecchymosis. Radiographs show widening between the base of the 1st and 2nd metatarsals. Which structure is primarily injured?

. Spring ligament
. Plantar fascia
. Lisfranc ligament
. Bifurcate ligament
. Anterior talofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lisfranc ligament


Explanation

The clinical picture describes a Lisfranc injury. Plantar ecchymosis is highly suggestive. The Lisfranc ligament connects the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal, stabilizing the midfoot.

Question 234

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A patient presents with midfoot pain and plantar ecchymosis after a twisting injury to the foot. Radiographs reveal a 'fleck sign'. The critical ligament injured in this scenario connects which two osseous structures?

. Medial cuneiform to the base of the first metatarsal
. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
. Lateral cuneiform to the base of the third metatarsal
. Navicular to the medial cuneiform
. Cuboid to the base of the fourth metatarsal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal


Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament connects the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal. A 'fleck sign' represents an avulsion fracture of this ligament, indicating a severe Lisfranc injury.

Question 235

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player lunges for a ball and feels a snap in the back of his heel, followed by difficulty walking. Which physical examination test is most sensitive and specific for diagnosing this acute injury?

. Anterior drawer test
. Talar tilt test
. Thompson test
. Silfverskiold test
. Mulder's click test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thompson test


Explanation

The Thompson test involves squeezing the calf muscle of the prone patient. If the Achilles tendon is ruptured, there will be an absence of passive plantarflexion of the foot, indicating a positive test.

Question 236

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 40-year-old weekend warrior feels a 'pop' in his distal calf while playing tennis. He has a positive Thompson test. He opts for non-operative management of his acute Achilles tendon rupture. Which rehabilitation protocol provides the lowest re-rupture rate comparable to surgical repair?

. Prolonged cast immobilization in equinus for 8 weeks
. Early functional rehabilitation with protected weight-bearing in a functional brace
. Immediate unrestricted weight-bearing and stretching
. Strict non-weight bearing for 6 weeks followed by passive range of motion
. Serial casting with weekly changes into dorsiflexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Early functional rehabilitation with protected weight-bearing in a functional brace


Explanation

Recent high-level literature shows that functional rehabilitation utilizing early protected weight-bearing and active range of motion yields re-rupture rates equivalent to operative treatment. This avoids surgical complications like infection or sural nerve injury.

Question 237

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An obese 40-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents with progressive breathlessness. On examination she has a raised jugular venous pressure, ankle oedema, right parasternal heave, and a murmur consistent with tricuspid regurgitation. Chest auscultation is clear. You understand from her husband that she has had progressively worsening symptoms over the past year. He has noticed that she has had particular problems with snoring and stopping breathing at night since he met her. Arterial blood gas results show: pH 7.39, PO2 7.3 kPa (normal range 11.3–12.6 kPa), PCO2 4.9 kPa (4.7–6.0 kPa). What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Atrial septal defect
. Chronic asthma
. Primary pulmonary hypertension
. Pulmonary fibrosis
. Secondary pulmonary hypertension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Secondary pulmonary hypertension


Explanation

Correct Answer: E. Secondary pulmonary hypertension. The history of snoring is suggestive of sleep apnoea. Sleep apnoea is known to result in chronic nocturnal hypoxia, which in turn leads to pulmonary artery vasoconstriction. Eventually cor pulmonale develops, which is seen here.

Question 238

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 40-year-old man feels a "pop" in his posterior ankle while playing basketball. He has a positive Thompson test. Which of the following functional outcomes is most consistently improved with surgical repair of this injury compared to conservative management?

. Range of motion
. Plantar flexion strength
. Lower re-rupture rate
. Decreased risk of deep vein thrombosis
. Faster return to normal walking

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower re-rupture rate


Explanation

Surgical repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture significantly decreases the re-rupture rate compared to traditional nonoperative management. However, patients must be counseled that surgery carries higher risks of complications such as infection and sural nerve injury.

Question 239

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 45-year-old male feels a sudden pop in his posterior heel while playing tennis. On examination, the Thompson test is positive. Which vascular territory is most prone to degeneration and rupture in the Achilles tendon?

. The insertion on the calcaneus
. 2 to 6 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion
. The musculotendinous junction
. The plantaris tendon insertion
. 10 to 12 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 to 6 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion


Explanation

The "watershed" zone of the Achilles tendon has the most tenuous blood supply and is the most common site for rupture. It is located approximately 2 to 6 cm proximal to its insertion on the calcaneus.

Question 240

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 21-year-old gymnast presents with midfoot pain and swelling after landing awkwardly. Radiographs demonstrate a subtle widening of the space between the base of the first and second metatarsals, with a small bony fragment visible in this space (the "fleck sign"). Which ligament is critically injured?

. Spring ligament
. Plantar fascia
. Ligament connecting the medial cuneiform to the second metatarsal base
. Ligament connecting the intermediate cuneiform to the second metatarsal base
. Calcaneocuboid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ligament connecting the medial cuneiform to the second metatarsal base


Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament connects the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial base of the second metatarsal. The "fleck sign" represents a bony avulsion of this ligament, indicating high-grade midfoot instability that typically requires surgical stabilization.