This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 8. Foot and Ankle. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 221
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A newborn is diagnosed with a congenital vertical talus. Which of the following is the defining pathological anatomic relationship in this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal dislocation of the navicular on the talar neck
Explanation
Congenital vertical talus is characterized by a rigid rocker-bottom deformity caused by the irreducible dorsal dislocation of the navicular on the neck of the talus.
Question 222
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old boy presents with a painful, rigid flatfoot and a history of recurrent ankle sprains. An oblique radiograph of the foot demonstrates the 'anteater nose' sign. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
Explanation
The 'anteater nose' sign is a classic radiographic finding on an oblique view of the foot representing an elongated anterior process of the calcaneus. It is pathognomonic for a calcaneonavicular coalition.
Question 223
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 14-year-old boy presents with a rigid flatfoot, recurrent ankle sprains, and peroneal spasm. Radiographs show the 'anteater nose' sign. Which specific pathology does this radiographic finding represent?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
Explanation
The 'anteater nose' sign on an oblique radiograph of the foot represents an elongation of the anterior process of the calcaneus, which is pathognomonic for a calcaneonavicular coalition. This is a common cause of rigid flatfoot and peroneal spastic flatfoot in adolescents.
Question 224
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
When correcting a clubfoot by the Ponseti method, the lateral mold on the foot must be placed against which of the following structures:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The head of the talus
Explanation
Ponseti describes rotating the clubfoot against the head of the talus to allow the lateral side of the foot (calcaneus and cuboid) to rotate laterally.
Question 225
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following bones of the foot is normally ossified at birth:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Navicular
Explanation
The metatarsals are ossified at birth, along with the talus and the calcaneus. The cuboid ossifies at 1 month, followed by the third, second, and first cuneiforms. The navicular does not ossify until age 2 or 3 years. These facts are useful when interpreting radiographs for congenital foot deformities such as clubfoot. The location of the navicular must often be inferred from the position of the first metatarsal.
Question 226
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An 11-year-old girl presents with pain in the area of the second metatarsophalangeal joint. Pain is increased with joint motion. Radiographs show increased density and flattening of the metatarsal head. Recommended treatment is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased activity and use of orthotics
Explanation
Freibergs disorder, or osteochondrosis of the second metatarsal head, is most common in teenage girls, especially dancers. The length of this metatarsal may be a factor in the pathogenesis. Treatment must be conservative in most cases, although a mild degree of symptoms may persist if epiphyseal flattening does not remodel.
Question 227
Topic: Ankle Trauma & Sports
A 13-year-old boy sustains a twisting ankle injury resulting in a juvenile Tillaux fracture. Avulsion by which of the following ligaments is primarily responsible for this specific fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL)
Explanation
The juvenile Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis. It is caused by avulsion of the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) as the physis closes asymmetrically.
Question 228
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old boy presents with rigid flat feet and recurrent ankle sprains. CT imaging reveals a talocalcaneal coalition. Which of the following clinical signs is most classic for this condition on physical examination?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased subtalar motion and peroneal spasticity
Explanation
Tarsal coalitions classically present with a rigid flatfoot and markedly decreased subtalar motion. Patients often exhibit "peroneal spastic flatfoot" due to reflex muscle spasm in the peroneal musculature.
Question 229
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old boy presents with rigid flatfeet and recurrent ankle sprains. Radiographs reveal the "anteater nose" sign. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Calcaneonavicular coalition
Explanation
The "anteater nose" sign is seen on the lateral radiograph and represents an elongation of the anterior process of the calcaneus, which is pathognomonic for a calcaneonavicular coalition. Talocalcaneal coalitions are often indicated radiographically by the "C sign".
Question 230
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 14-year-old boy presents with a rigid flatfoot and recurrent ankle sprains. Radiographs show a "C sign" on the lateral view. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic imaging to characterize this specific condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the hindfoot
Explanation
The "C sign" on a lateral radiograph indicates a talocalcaneal coalition. A CT scan of the hindfoot (specifically coronal views) is the gold standard to clearly delineate the extent and location of a talocalcaneal coalition for surgical planning.
Question 231
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 71-year-old man comes to the Respiratory Clinic for review. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) managed with high-dose Seretide and tiotropium, and right heart failure for which he takes ramipril and bumetanide. He has an exercise tolerance of 80 m and has had two COPD exacerbations in the past year. On examination his BP is 135/85 mmHg; pulse is 75/min and regular. Auscultation reveals bilateral poor air entry and wheeze. He has bilateral pitting oedema to just above the ankles. His BMI is 23. Investigations: Hb 13.8 g/dl, WCC 9.3 × 10^9/l, PLT 189 × 10^9/l, Na+ 138 mmol/l, K+ 4.3 mmol/l, Bicarbonate 32 mmol/l, Creatinine 122 μmol/l, pH 7.44, pO2 7.8 kPa (7.7 kPa 3 months earlier), pCO2 6.5 kPa. Which of the following is the most important argumentation justifying prescription of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. pO2 7.8 kPa and right heart failure
Explanation
Correct Answer: C. O2 is the main driver for LTOT prescription. Guidelines state that LTOT should be offered to patients with PaO2 less than 7.3 kPa when stable, or greater than 7.3 kPa and less than 8 kPa when stable, who also have secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, nocturnal hypoxaemia or pulmonary hypertension. The presence of right heart failure allows the less stringent threshold for O2 prescription to be used, as in this case.
Question 232
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old construction worker drops a heavy beam on his midfoot. Radiographs demonstrate widening of the space between the bases of the first and second metatarsals, with a small bony avulsion fragment in the interval. The Lisfranc ligament connects which two structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament is a strong interosseous ligament that connects the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal. It is a critical stabilizer of the midfoot, and its rupture leads to tarsometatarsal instability.
Question 233
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 30-year-old male complains of severe midfoot pain after falling from a horse with his foot caught in the stirrup. Examination reveals significant swelling and plantar ecchymosis. Radiographs show widening between the base of the 1st and 2nd metatarsals. Which structure is primarily injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lisfranc ligament
Explanation
The clinical picture describes a Lisfranc injury. Plantar ecchymosis is highly suggestive. The Lisfranc ligament connects the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal, stabilizing the midfoot.
Question 234
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A patient presents with midfoot pain and plantar ecchymosis after a twisting injury to the foot. Radiographs reveal a 'fleck sign'. The critical ligament injured in this scenario connects which two osseous structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament connects the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal. A 'fleck sign' represents an avulsion fracture of this ligament, indicating a severe Lisfranc injury.
Question 235
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old recreational tennis player lunges for a ball and feels a snap in the back of his heel, followed by difficulty walking. Which physical examination test is most sensitive and specific for diagnosing this acute injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thompson test
Explanation
The Thompson test involves squeezing the calf muscle of the prone patient. If the Achilles tendon is ruptured, there will be an absence of passive plantarflexion of the foot, indicating a positive test.
Question 236
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 40-year-old weekend warrior feels a 'pop' in his distal calf while playing tennis. He has a positive Thompson test. He opts for non-operative management of his acute Achilles tendon rupture. Which rehabilitation protocol provides the lowest re-rupture rate comparable to surgical repair?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Early functional rehabilitation with protected weight-bearing in a functional brace
Explanation
Recent high-level literature shows that functional rehabilitation utilizing early protected weight-bearing and active range of motion yields re-rupture rates equivalent to operative treatment. This avoids surgical complications like infection or sural nerve injury.
Question 237
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An obese 40-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents with progressive breathlessness. On examination she has a raised jugular venous pressure, ankle oedema, right parasternal heave, and a murmur consistent with tricuspid regurgitation. Chest auscultation is clear. You understand from her husband that she has had progressively worsening symptoms over the past year. He has noticed that she has had particular problems with snoring and stopping breathing at night since he met her. Arterial blood gas results show: pH 7.39, PO2 7.3 kPa (normal range 11.3–12.6 kPa), PCO2 4.9 kPa (4.7–6.0 kPa). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Secondary pulmonary hypertension
Explanation
Correct Answer: E. Secondary pulmonary hypertension. The history of snoring is suggestive of sleep apnoea. Sleep apnoea is known to result in chronic nocturnal hypoxia, which in turn leads to pulmonary artery vasoconstriction. Eventually cor pulmonale develops, which is seen here.
Question 238
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 40-year-old man feels a "pop" in his posterior ankle while playing basketball. He has a positive Thompson test. Which of the following functional outcomes is most consistently improved with surgical repair of this injury compared to conservative management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lower re-rupture rate
Explanation
Surgical repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture significantly decreases the re-rupture rate compared to traditional nonoperative management. However, patients must be counseled that surgery carries higher risks of complications such as infection and sural nerve injury.
Question 239
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 45-year-old male feels a sudden pop in his posterior heel while playing tennis. On examination, the Thompson test is positive. Which vascular territory is most prone to degeneration and rupture in the Achilles tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2 to 6 cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion
Explanation
The "watershed" zone of the Achilles tendon has the most tenuous blood supply and is the most common site for rupture. It is located approximately 2 to 6 cm proximal to its insertion on the calcaneus.
Question 240
Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 21-year-old gymnast presents with midfoot pain and swelling after landing awkwardly. Radiographs demonstrate a subtle widening of the space between the base of the first and second metatarsals, with a small bony fragment visible in this space (the "fleck sign"). Which ligament is critically injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ligament connecting the medial cuneiform to the second metatarsal base
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament connects the lateral aspect of the medial cuneiform to the medial base of the second metatarsal. The "fleck sign" represents a bony avulsion of this ligament, indicating high-grade midfoot instability that typically requires surgical stabilization.
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