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Question 2001

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 64a through 64c are the MR images and radiograph of an active 30-year-old man who has been treated for pain in his subtalar joint for 6 months. He has had casting, physical therapy, and bracing but continues to have activity-limiting pain. An injection into the subtalar joint under fluoroscopic guidance temporarily relieved his pain. His best surgical option at this time is
. resection of the coalition bar.
. subtalar fusion.
. medial sliding calcaneal osteotomy.
. Dwyer osteotomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. subtalar fusion.


Explanation

Risk factors for a poor outcome after bar resection are adult age and a bar that encompasses more than 50% of the middle facet of the subtalar joint. Because this patient has both risk factors, the appropriate procedure is a subtalar fusion.

Question 2002

Topic: Forefoot
  • Analysis of which of the following proteins is used to establish the diagnosis of Becker muscular dystrophy?
. Myosin
. Troponin
. Tropomyosin
. Fibrillin
. Dystrophin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Myosin


Explanation

Becker muscular dystrophy is an X-linked inherited disorder present in approximately 1 in 30,000 live male births. The responsible gene is located on the xp21 region of the X chromosome including sixty-five exons that encode for the protein dystrophin. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is also related to a mutation of the dystrophin gene. Muscle biopsies for dystrophin have been extremely successful for identifying these dystrophies and distinguishing them from other clinically similar autosomal recessive myopathies. (Ref: Shapiro, Hoffman)Question 18 -A 25-year-old woman with spastic diplegia has a painful progressive bunion deformity that has failed to respond to nonsurgical treatment. Examination reveals tenderness and erythema over the bunion prominence; however, the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint has full range of motion. A standing AP radiograph shows a hallux valgus angle of 30 degrees and a 1-2 intermetatarsal angle of 13 degrees. Treatment should now consist ofarthrodesis of the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint.arthrodesis of the first tarsometatarsal joint.excision of the medial eminence and medial capsular reefing of the metatarsophalangeal joint.osteotomy of the distal first metatarsal.proximal metatarsal osteotomy with distal soft-tissue realignment.Treatment of hallux valgus in a patient with cerebral palsy is largely dependent on the degree of spasticity and the pattern of gait. The only way to adequately eliminate spastic deforming forces is with an arthrodesis of the MTP joint. Any other procedure will most likely lead to a high incidence of either hallux varus or recurrent hallux valgus.The optimal arthrodesis angle is 25-30 degrees, and the metatarsal inclination angle should be 25-30 degrees also. Sagittal plane position should be checked intraoperatively and the proximal phalanx should clear the table by 5-10mm with simulated WB

Question 2003

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old woman who underwent open reduction and internal fixation of a calcaneal fracture 14 months ago reports pain that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. Examination reveals limited painful subtalar motion but no hindfoot deformity. A lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 6. Surgical reconstruction is best accomplished with
. calcaneal osteotomy.
. subtalar joint arthrodesis.
. triple arthrodesis.
. pantalar arthrodesis.
. distraction bone block arthrodesis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. subtalar joint arthrodesis.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has posttraumatic subtalar joint arthrosis that developed following a calcaneal fracture. Because there is no hindfoot deformity, in situ subtalar joint arthrodesis is the treatment of choice. Calcaneal osteotomy or distraction bone block arthrodesis is beneficial in patients with severe talar dorsiflexion or malunion of the calcaneal body.

Question 2004

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 4a through 4c show the clinical photographs and radiographs of a 12-month-old boy who has progressive difficulty wearing shoes because of the length of the second toe, as well as width of the forefoot. Management should consist of
. form-fitted shoes.
. amputation of the second toe at the metatarsophalangeal joint.
. amputation of the first ray and amputation of the second toe.
. amputation of the second ray.
. an MRI scan of the foot, a CT scan of the chest, and a biopsy of the foot with the possibility of ankle disarticulation amputation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. amputation of the second ray.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has macrodactyly involving the second ray, with significant enlargement of the width and height of the foot. The radiographs show widening of the interval between the first and second metatarsal and between the second and third metatarsal. With this degree of involvement, amputation of the second ray with excision of the overgrowth of affected soft tissue provides the most consistent desired reduction in foot size.

Question 2005

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 24-year-old man reports the development of a foot drop following a knee dislocation 1 year ago. The common peroneal nerve was found to be in continuity at the time of surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner of the knee joint. He would like to eliminate the need for an ankle-foot orthosis. What is the best option to achieve elimination of the orthosis?
. Repeat neurolysis of the common peroneal nerve at the knee level
. Repeat neurolysis of the common peroneal nerve with cable grafting
. Extensor hallucis longus transfer to the distal first metatarsal
. Anterior transfer of the tibialis posterior tendon through the interosseous membrane
. Ankle fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior transfer of the tibialis posterior tendon through the interosseous membrane


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The ankle dorsiflexor muscles have been denervated for too long a period to expect reinnervation to be successful. Even if the extensor hallucis longus tendon was functional, it is unlikely to have sufficient strength to achieve dynamic ankle dorsiflexion. The tibialis posterior tendon transfer has been shown to predictably achieve these goals in a high percentage of patients. Successful ankle fusion is likely to fail with time due to the development of forefoot equinus.

Question 2006

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 53 is a coronal-cut CT scan of a 63-year-old woman who has a longstanding pes planus. She is seen for lateral ankle discomfort. Upon examination she is tender over the sinus tarsi and distal to the fibula. She has painless passive hindfoot eversion with 5/5 eversion strength. The most appropriate diagnosis is
. subtalar arthritis.
. middle-facet coalition.
. lateral impaction syndrome.
. calcaneonavicular coalition.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. lateral impaction syndrome.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: With the use of CT scans, adults with symptomatic flatfoot deformity have been noted to develop subluxation of the talocalcaneal joint with resulting lateral hindfoot pain. Impingement of the talus and calcaneus in the sinus tarsi and/or between the tip of the fibula and the calcaneus may occur. This impingement is known as lateral impaction syndrome. Hindfoot motion is painless; therefore, this patient does not have symptomatic subtalar arthritis. Middle facet and calcaneonavicular coalitions are not present (hindfoot motion is present).

Question 2007

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Intrinsic muscles of the foot act on the toes by
. abducting the metatarsophalangeal joints and flexing the interphalangeal joints.
. extending the metatarsophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.
. extending the metatarsophalangeal joints and flexing the interphalangeal joints.
. flexing the metatarsophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.
. flexing the metatarsophalangeal joints and extending the interphalangeal joints.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. flexing the metatarsophalangeal joints and extending the interphalangeal joints.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Intrinsic muscles of the foot function to flex the metatarsophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joints.

Question 2008

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 28-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motorcycle accident. He has an obvious knee deformity, and a diagnosis of a knee dislocation (KD-III) is made. After prompt closed reduction, his pedal pulses are palpable, and his Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is calculated to be 0.85. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Discharge with urgent outpatient orthopedic follow-up in 3 days
. Observation and serial vascular checks every 4 hours for 24 hours
. Immediate operative arterial exploration by vascular surgery
. CT angiography of the lower extremity
. Application of a bridging external fixator and re-evaluation of ABI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT angiography of the lower extremity


Explanation

In the setting of a knee dislocation, an ABI of < 0.90 is highly sensitive for an occult vascular injury, even in the presence of palpable pedal pulses. The standard of care mandates that an ABI < 0.90 requires an immediate vascular imaging study, most commonly a CT angiogram (CTA), to rule out a popliteal artery intimal tear or other injury. Immediate exploration is reserved for hard signs of vascular injury (e.g., absent pulses after reduction, expanding hematoma, pulsatile bleeding).

Question 2009

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 28-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a high-energy motor vehicle collision. He sustained a spontaneously reduced right knee dislocation. On examination, the foot is warm, but the dorsalis pedis pulse is weakly palpable compared to the contralateral side. The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is measured at 0.8. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate surgical exploration of the popliteal artery
. Computed tomography (CT) angiogram of the lower extremity
. Duplex ultrasound of the lower extremity
. Serial neurovascular examinations every 4 hours
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the knee

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate surgical exploration of the popliteal artery


Explanation

An ABI < 0.9 in the setting of a knee dislocation is highly suspicious for a vascular injury and warrants advanced imaging, specifically a CT angiogram, to locate the arterial lesion. Immediate surgical exploration is reserved for 'hard signs' of arterial injury, such as absent pulses, expanding hematoma, pulsatile hemorrhage, or distal ischemia. Serial examinations are appropriate only if the ABI > 0.9 and pulses are symmetric.

Question 2010

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 30-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a high-speed motorcycle collision. He has a grossly deformed knee that is diagnosed as a KD-II dislocation and is immediately reduced. Post-reduction, the distal pulses are palpable but the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) is measured at 0.8. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discharge with a hinged knee brace and outpatient follow-up
. Immediate operative exploration by vascular surgery
. CT angiography of the lower extremity
. Serial neurovascular examinations every 4 hours
. Duplex ultrasound of the popliteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT angiography of the lower extremity


Explanation

An Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) of less than 0.9 following a knee dislocation is a hard indication for advanced vascular imaging. CT angiography is the standard next step to rule out an intimal flap or flow-limiting popliteal artery injury.

Question 2011

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle

A 25-year-old male sustains an acute, spontaneously reduced knee dislocation. His foot is warm and well-perfused, but the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) on the affected limb is measured at 0.85. What is the mandatory next step in management?

. Immediate operative exploration of the popliteal artery
. Observation and repeat ABI in 24 hours
. Computed tomography angiography (CTA) of the lower extremity
. Doppler ultrasound of the deep venous system
. Application of a knee-spanning external fixator

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate operative exploration of the popliteal artery


Explanation

In the setting of a knee dislocation, an ABI less than 0.9 is highly indicative of a vascular injury. Although the limb is perfused, the abnormal ABI mandates an advanced imaging study, primarily a CTA, to rule out intimal flap or flow-limiting popliteal artery injury.

Question 2012

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old girl is seen for left ankle pain. Radiographs reveal osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) involving the talus. What should the parents be told regarding management?
. No treatment is required because spontaneous healing is common.
. Nonsurgical management typically relieves pain and results in radiographic healing in less than 12 weeks.
. Nonsurgical management frequently relieves pain but often may not result in radiographic healing even 6 months after treatment.
. Hyperbaric oxygen treatment is helpful.
. Ankle fusion is frequently necessary.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonsurgical management frequently relieves pain but often may not result in radiographic healing even 6 months after treatment.


Explanation

Nonsurgical management of OCD of the talus in skeletally immature individuals frequently results in a fairly rapid decrease in symptoms, but radiographic abnormalities can frequently be found even 6 months after treatment. Spontaneous resolution of this condition is rare.

Question 2013

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 47-year-old woman has had medial ankle pain and swelling for the past 3 months. She recalls no specific injury, and casting and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have failed to provide relief. Examination reveals a pes planus with heel valgus that is passively correctable. Radiographs show no evidence of arthritis. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 16. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure to alleviate her pain?
. Triple arthrodesis
. Isolated flexor digitorum longus transfer
. Flexor digitorum longus transfer with medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy
. Debridement and direct repair of the posterior tibial tendon
. Repair of the spring ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor digitorum longus transfer with medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a stage II posterior tibial tendon tear with a supple foot; therefore, the treatment of choice is flexor digitorum longus transfer with medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy. Triple arthrodesis is not indicated, and isolated tendon transfer will stretch out in the face of persistent heel valgus. Direct repair of the posterior tibial tendon or repair of the spring ligament is not sufficient to correct the deformity. REFERENCES: Myerson MS, Corrigan J: Treatment of posterior tibial tendon dysfunction with flexor digitorum longus tendon transfer and calcaneal osteotomy. Orthopedics 1996;19:383-388. Mosier-LaClair S, Pomeroy G, Manoli A II: Operative treatment of the difficult stage 2 adult acquired flatfoot deformity. Foot Ankle Clin 2001;6:95-119.

Question 2014

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
What nerve is at the highest risk for injury with a percutaneous repair of an Achilles tendon injury?
. Posterior tibial
. Calcaneal
. Intermediate branch of the superficial peroneal
. Lateral plantar
. Sural

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sural


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Cadaver and clinical studies have shown that the sural nerve is at the highest risk for injury with a percutaneous repair of the Achilles tendon. REFERENCE: Hockenbury RT, Johns JC: A biomechanical in vitro comparison of open versus percutaneous repair of tendon Achilles. Foot Ankle 1990;11:67-72.

Question 2015

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An 83-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus has a history of recurrent infection over the medial aspect of her great toe and has had a painless bunion for the past 45 years. Shoe wear modifications have failed to provide relief. Pedal pulses are palpable. Figures 30a and 30b show the clinical photograph and radiograph. Management should now consist of
. observation.
. first metatarsal head excision.
. simple bunionectomy (medial exostectomy and capsular repair).
. bunionectomy with first metatarsophalangeal fusion.
. distal soft-tissue procedure with proximal osteotomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. simple bunionectomy (medial exostectomy and capsular repair).


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The presence of recurrent breakdown over the medial eminence despite shoe wear modifications is an indication for surgery. A number of factors must be considered when deciding on an appropriate course of treatment. These include age, activity level, joint congruency, joint degeneration, and the patient’s symptoms and expectations. The indications for a simple bunionectomy are rather limited. In this patient, the goal of surgery is to alleviate the recurrent infection by removal of a large medial eminence. REFERENCES: Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 123-134. Abidi NA, Conti SF: The clinical and radiographic anatomy of hallux valgus and surgical algorithm. Foot Ankle Clin 1997;2:599-626.

Question 2016

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The tibiofibular overlap used to diagnose syndesmotic diastasis on an AP view is most commonly measured between the
. lateral border of the fibula and the medial border of the posterior tibial tubercle.
. medial border of the fibula and the lateral border of the posterior tibial tubercle.
. medial border of the fibula and the medial border of the deepest point of the incisura fibularis.
. medial border of the fibula and the lateral border of the anterior tibial tubercle.
. medial border of the fibula and the lateral border of the deepest point of the incisura fibularis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. medial border of the fibula and the lateral border of the anterior tibial tubercle.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The tibiofibular overlap is measured between the medial border of the fibula and the lateral border of the anterior tibial tubercle. Plain radiographic assessment of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis requires AP and mortise views. It has been recommended to obtain the first three measurements on the mortise view and the other three on the AP view.

Question 2017

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
In the treatment of ankle fractures, the superficial peroneal nerve is most commonly injured by
. a posterior-lateral approach.
. a lateral approach.
. a medial approach.
. an anterior-medial approach.
. rigid cast immobilization.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a lateral approach.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In the treatment of ankle fractures, the superficial peroneal nerve is most commonly injured by the use of a direct lateral approach to the ankle. The superficial peroneal nerve and its branches exit the fascial hiatus approximately 9 cm to 10 cm proximal to the tip of the distal fibula, and their course is typically anterior to the midlateral plane of the fibula.

Question 2018

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 21-year-old college student reports hearing a pop and has acute pain laterally over the ankle after twisting it during a recreational basketball game. Examination 1 hour after the injury reveals minimal swelling and ecchymosis. The anterior drawer sign is positive. Radiographs reveal no evidence of a fracture. What is the best course of action?
. Stress radiographs to evaluate the ankle ligaments
. MRI to evaluate possible ligamentous injury
. CT to evaluate possible osteochondral injury
. Functional brace treatment
. Surgical repair of the ankle ligaments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Functional brace treatment


Explanation

Even though the patient has a grade 3 ankle ligament injury, studies have shown that 95% of patients with a grade 3 injury that may include a complete tear of the ligaments will heal successfully with conservative functional management. Extensive diagnostic evaluation with stress radiographs, CT, and MRI is not indicated. Surgical reconstruction is not indicated because of the overwhelming success of conservative management; however, in the few patients where late instability develops, surgical reconstruction offers an excellent outcome.

Question 2019

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following findings can cause a dorsal bunion in a patient with neuromuscular disease?
. Contracted plantar fascia and weakness of the tibialis anterior
. Overpull of the gastrocnemius-soleus complex and weakness of the anterior tibialis
. Overpull of the posterior tibialis and weakness of the peroneals
. Overpull of the peroneus brevis and weakness of the posterior tibialis
. Overpull of the tibialis anterior and weakness of the peroneus longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Overpull of the tibialis anterior and weakness of the peroneus longus


Explanation

Unopposed action of the tibialis anterior with weakness of the peroneus longus will lead to a dorsal bunion and supination deformity. Overpull of the gastrocnemius-soleus complex and posterior tibialis with weakness of the peroneus brevis will cause equinovarus deformity. A strong posterior tibialis with weakness of the peroneals will cause varus of the hindfoot. Unopposed peroneus brevis and incompetence of the posterior tibialis will lead to a flatfoot deformity. The etiology of a cavus foot is complex, but findings usually include a contracted plantar fascia and weakness of the tibialis anterior.

Question 2020

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
The use of posting (a wedge added to the medial or lateral side of an insole) is useful to balance forefoot or hindfoot malalignment. Assuming normal subtalar joint pronation, what is the maximum amount of recommended hindfoot posting?
. 0 degrees
. 1 degrees to 2 degrees
. Approximately 5 degrees
. Approximately 10 degrees
. 10 degrees to 15 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Approximately 5 degrees


Explanation

Generally, patients cannot tolerate more than 5 degrees of hindfoot posting.