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Question 1981

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
A 20-year-old man sustains the injury shown in Figures 1a and 1b in a motorcycle accident. In addition to a prompt closed reduction, his outcome might be optimized by
. a subtalar arthrodesis.
. screw fixation of the talar neck.
. repair of the medial subtalar capsule.
. temporary transarticular pin fixation.
. evaluation for and excision or fixation of osteochondral fractures.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. evaluation for and excision or fixation of osteochondral fractures.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Lateral subtalar dislocations, which are less common than medial subtalar dislocations, are high-energy injuries that are frequently associated with small osteochondral fractures. It is generally recommended that large fragments be internally fixed, and small fragments entrapped within the joint be excised. Although arthrosis frequently occurs after this injury and is the most common long-term complication, primary subtalar arthrodesis is not indicated. A talar neck fracture is not evident on the radiographs, and lateral subtalar dislocation usually does not lead to instability. REFERENCE: Saltzman C, Marsh JL: Hindfoot dislocations: When are they not benign? J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:192-198.

Question 1982

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figures 43a and 43b show the clinical photographs of a 4-month-old child with bilateral popliteal pterygium. The fixed knee contractures measure 100 degrees bilaterally. What future treatment is most likely to successfully correct this deformity?
. Serial casting of both knees weekly
. Physiotherapy and dynamic splinting
. Soft-tissue releases of the knees, including Z-plasties of skin, excision of fibrotic bands, hamstring lengthenings, and posterior knee capsulotomies
. Femoral shortening osteotomies combined with soft-tissue releases of the knees (Z-plasties of skin, excision of fibrotic bands, hamstring lengthenings, and posterior knee capsulotomies)
. Gradual correction with a circular external fixator without soft-tissue release

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral shortening osteotomies combined with soft-tissue releases of the knees (Z-plasties of skin, excision of fibrotic bands, hamstring lengthenings, and posterior knee capsulotomies)


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Congenital popliteal webbing with contractures of 60 degrees is a difficult deformity to correct. The anatomy of the web is of considerable importance. MRI can delineate the extent of the posterior fibrous band that often stretches from the ischium to the calcaneus. The sciatic nerve, usually shortened, most often runs just anterior to this fibrous band. For mild contractures of less than 20 degrees, nonsurgical management is usually adequate. Hamstring lengthening and postoperative splinting are usually sufficient for contractures of 20 degrees to 40 degrees. Moderate contractures of up to 60 degrees usually require Z-plasties in the popliteal fossa and postoperative serial casting to avoid undue tension on neurovascular structures. Contractures of more than 60 degrees require a femoral shortening osteotomy or gradual correction with an external fixator. However, rapid recurrence following fixator removal is common if formal soft-tissue procedures and postoperative splinting are not performed. REFERENCES: Parikh SN, Crawford AH, Do TT, et al: Popliteal pterygium syndrome: Implications for orthopaedic management. J Pediatr Orthop B 2004;13:197-201. Brunner R, Hefti F, Tgetgel JD: Arthrogrypotic joint contracture at the knee and foot: Correction with a circular frame. J Pediatr Orthop B 1997;6:192-197.

Question 1983

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Which of the following statements best describes the location of the nerve that is at risk in a direct posterior approach to the Achilles tendon?
. The tibial nerve crosses the Achilles tendon 10 cm above its insertion.
. The sural nerve crosses the Achilles tendon 5 cm above its insertion.
. The sural nerve crosses the Achilles tendon 10 cm above its insertion.
. The superficial peroneal nerve crosses the Achilles tendon 5 cm above its insertion.
. The superficial peroneal nerve crosses the Achilles tendon 10 cm above its insertion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The sural nerve crosses the Achilles tendon 10 cm above its insertion.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The sural nerve lies lateral to the Achilles tendon at the level of the foot but follows an oblique course proximally to lie directly over the tendon as it heads to the popliteal fossa. It is at risk with any proximal dissection from a direct posterior approach and in particular with procedures done at the musculotendinous junction. The nerve crosses over the lateral border of the Achilles tendon at an average of 9.8 cm above its insertion.

Question 1984

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
After the patient's wound has healed, which intervention is critical to prevent future ulceration?
. A well-fitted prosthesis on the left
. Making sure he wears large shoes to decrease pressure on his feet
. A bilateral ankle-foot orthoses fitting
. Custom-molded soft shoe inserts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Custom-molded soft shoe inserts


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most common etiology for plantar ulcers in patients with diabetes is neuropathy; 80% of these patients have adequate vascularity. The pathobiology is increased pressure applied on skin that lacks protective sensation. Once healed, the key to preventing recurrent ulceration is the use of orthopaedic shoes with custom-molded soft inserts that accommodate the contours of the feet. This is particularly true when surgery has removed a portion of the foot; the foot otherwise will shift in a shoe that does not include a custom-molded insert incorporating a filler that occupies the space left by the surgical resection.

Question 1985

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 62-year-old runner injured his right ankle 8 weeks ago. He has ongoing lateral ankle pain and swelling that did not improve with 4 weeks of immobilization and 4 weeks of physical therapy. MR images demonstrate a longitudinal tear of the peroneus brevis tendon. Treatment should involve
. peroneus brevis tendon repair.
. peroneus longus to peroneus brevis tenodesis.
. 6 weeks in short-leg cast.
. platelet-rich plasma injection.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. peroneus brevis tendon repair.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Additional nonsurgical treatment is not beneficial for peroneal tendon tears. Early repair of longitudinal tears reduces risk for progression to a full-thickness tear that would necessitate peroneus brevis to peroneus longus tenodesis. Platelet-rich plasma has no role in peroneal tendon tears. RECOMMENDED READINGS: Arbab D, Tingart M, Frank D, Abbara-Czardybon M, Waizy H, Wingenfeld C. Treatment of isolated peroneus longus tears and a review of the literature. Foot Ankle Spec. 2014 Apr;7(2):113-8. Coughlin MJ, Schon LC. Disorders of tendons. In: Coughlin MJ, Saltzman CL, Anderson RB, eds. Mann's Surgery of the Foot and Ankle. 9th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier-Saunders; 2014: 1188-1291.

Question 1986

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 47-year-old woman has a right bunion that has been symptomatic despite modifications in shoe wear. She requests surgical correction. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 37. Treatment should consist of
. distal chevron bunionectomy.
. osteotomy of the proximal first metatarsal with distal soft-tissue realignment.
. a Keller bunionectomy.
. arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint.
. double osteotomy of the first metatarsal with distal soft-tissue realignment.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. osteotomy of the proximal first metatarsal with distal soft-tissue realignment.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Because the radiograph reveals an intermetatarsal angle of greater than 15 degrees and an incongruent metatarsophalangeal joint, the treatment of choice is a proximal first metatarsal osteotomy with distal soft-tissue realignment. A distal chevron procedure would not correct this degree of deformity. A Keller procedure is reserved for a less active elderly individual. Arthrodesis is appropriate for a patient with advanced arthritis of the metatarsophalangeal joint. The double osteotomy is reserved for the congruent metatarsophalangeal joint with hallux valgus. REFERENCES: Coughlin MJ, Carlson RE: Treatment of hallux valgus with an increased distal metatarsal articular angle: Evaluation of double and triple first ray osteotomies. Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:762-770. Coughlin MJ: Hallux valgus. Instr Course Lect 1997;46:357-391.

Question 1987

Topic: Midfoot & Hindfoot
Which of the following patients who sustained a calcaneal fracture will most likely undergo an eventual subtalar fusion?
. Male worker's compensation patient who participates in heavy labor work with an initial Böhler angle less than 0 degrees
. Female worker's compensation patient who participates in heavy labor work with an initial Böhler angle >15 degrees
. Male non-worker's compensation patient who participates in heavy labor work with an initial Böhler angle less than 0 degrees
. Male worker's compensation patient who participates in heavy labor work with an initial Böhler angle >15 degrees
. Female non-worker's compensation patient who participates in heavy labor work with an initial Böhler less than 0 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Male worker's compensation patient who participates in heavy labor work with an initial Böhler angle less than 0 degrees


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The Level 2 study by Czisy et al is a review of a randomized trial database that analyzed the prospective clinical outcome of 45 patients who failed closed or open treatment of a displaced intraarticular calcaneal fracture. The cohort underwent a subtalar fusion by distraction bone-block arthrodesis for subtalar arthritis. They found that male worker's compensation patients who participate in heavy labor work with a fracture pattern with Böhler angle less than 0 degrees were the most likely to undergo a subtalar fusion. The meta-analysis by Randle et al reviewed 6 clinical studies comparing the results of operative vs. conservative management of calcaneal fracture studies. They found a trend for nonoperatively treated patients to have a higher risk of experiencing severe foot pain than did operatively treated patients, however they could not draw any definitive conclusions guiding treatment.

Question 1988

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 13 shows the radiographs of a 20-year-old intercollegiate basketball player who was injured 6 weeks prior to the start of the season. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Intramedullary screw fixation
. Immobilizing orthotic/boot
. Walking cast
. Physical therapy
. Rest for 2 weeks and return to play

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intramedullary screw fixation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A Jones fracture occurs at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal. It is often an acute fracture in conjunction with a chronic stress-related injury. It requires either a short leg cast with strict non-weight-bearing or surgical fixation. In the high performance athlete, the need for rapid return to sport activity usually requires surgical intervention, most commonly with an intramedullary screw.

Question 1989

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 93 is the radiograph of a 3½-year-old girl who was evaluated for a progressive increase in tibia vara and complains that her feet are turning in. What is the most appropriate course of action?
. Bilateral tibia and fibular osteotomies
. Valgus positioning knee-ankle-foot orthosis (KAFO)
. Use of a Denis-Browne bar
. Schedule a return visit in 4 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bilateral tibia and fibular osteotomies


Explanation

The radiograph shows advanced changes in the medial tibial growth plates. The metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle is more than 20 degrees. With these advanced changes, an osteotomy is indicated. Waiting will allow the problem to increase. Bracing (KAFO or night bar) has not been shown effective in advanced Blount disease.

Question 1990

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
In the treatment of all magnitudes of bunionette deformities, what is the most common complication associated with lateral condylectomy of the fifth metatarsal head?
. Metatarsophalangeal arthrosis
. Transfer metatarsalgia
. Recurrent deformity
. Overcorrection of the deformity
. Dislocation of the metatarsophalangeal joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recurrent deformity


Explanation

DISCUSSION: When a lateral condylectomy alone is performed for all bunionette deformities, a high recurrence rate is expected. Lateral condylectomy should be used alone when the primary deformity is an enlarged lateral condyle of the fifth metatarsal head. In cases with significant divergence of the fifth metatarsal shaft in relationship to the fourth metatarsal shaft or with lateral bowing of the distal fifth metatarsal shaft, the lateral fifth metatarsal prominence will not be effectively reduced and recurrent symptoms and deformity are expected.

Question 1991

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A patient who has recalcitrant medial plantar heel pain and pain directly over the medial side of the heel undergoes open release of the plantar fascia. After releasing a portion of the plantar fascia, the deep fascia of the abductor hallucis muscle is released to relieve pressure on which of the following structures?
. Lateral plantar artery
. Tibial nerve
. First branch of the lateral plantar nerve
. Sural nerve
. Flexor hallucis brevis muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First branch of the lateral plantar nerve


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The deep fascia of the abductor hallucis muscle is released to relieve pressure on the first branch of the lateral plantar nerve. The tibial nerve lies more proximal to this area. The medial plantar nerve has already passed dorsally and medially, while the sural nerve lies on the lateral side of the foot. The flexor hallucis brevis muscle lies deep to the plantar fascia, not the abductor fascia.

Question 1992

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Following ankle arthroscopy performed through a posterolateral portal, a patient notes numbness on the lateral half of the heel pad of the foot. What is the most likely injured structure?
. Sural nerve
. Lateral plantar nerve
. Lateral calcaneal nerve
. First branch of the lateral plantar nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral calcaneal nerve


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The lateral calcaneal nerve is a branch of the sural nerve that runs along the lateral border of the Achilles tendon to innervate the lateral heel pad. Ankle arthroscopy involves posterior portals that hug the Achilles tendon to avoid the main trunks of the sural nerve and tibial nerve; however, the lateral calcaneal branch remains potentially vulnerable. The first branch of the lateral plantar nerve is actually a medial structure that partially innervates the plantar fascia and the abductor digiti quinti. The deep peroneal nerve is anterior to the ankle.

Question 1993

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Figure 12 shows the radiograph of a 15-year-old boy with cerebral palsy who has pain at the first metatarsophalangeal joints. He is a community ambulator. Management consisting of accommodative shoes has failed to provide relief. What is the treatment of choice?
. Custom-molded night orthotics
. Double osteotomy of the first metatarsals
. Crescentic osteotomy of the first metatarsals
. Distal realignment (modified McBride)
. First metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: While other surgeries have provided some success, first metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis has the highest overall success rate compared to other surgeries in ambulatory and nonambulatory children with cerebral palsy. The recurrence rate is unacceptably high with the other procedures listed above. In contrast, neurologically normal children are amenable to osteotomies and soft-tissue procedures.

Question 1994

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 35-year-old man is seen for evaluation of his left ankle following multiple previous ankle sprains and frequent episodes of the ankle giving way. Examination reveals marked laxity about the lateral ankle with associated tenderness along the peroneal tendons. Physical therapy, anti-inflammatory drugs, and supportive bracing have failed to provide relief. An MRI scan shows peroneal tenosynovitis and a possible tear. He elects to undergo a peroneal tendon repair and lateral ligament reconstruction. Which of the following best describes the structure labeled “A” in Figure 45?
. Longitudinal split tear in the peroneus longus
. Longitudinal split tear in the peroneus brevis
. Plantaris
. Peroneus accessorius
. Peroneus quartus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneus quartus


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The structure labeled “A” is a peroneus quartus, a supernumerary muscle arising most commonly from the peroneus brevis. The presence of peroneus quartus is not uncommon, with an incidence of up to 21%, and is associated with lateral ankle pain and peroneal tendon symptoms, theoretically as a result of mass effect within the peroneal tendon sheath.

Question 1995

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 12-year-old girl who has a history of frequent tripping and falling also has bilateral symmetric hand weakness, high arched feet, absent patellar and Achilles tendon reflexes, and excessive wear on the lateral border of her shoes. She reports that she has multiple paternal family members with similar deformities. She most likely has a defect of what protein?
. Peripheral myelin protein-22
. Dystrophin
. Type I collagen
. Alpha-L-iduronidase
. Cartilage oligomeric matrix protein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peripheral myelin protein-22


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The girl shows clinical features of hereditary motor sensory neuropathy type 1, Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. The most common type of this autosomal-dominant disease is due to an underlying defect in the gene coding for peripheral myelin protein-22 on chromosome 17. Many other less common mutations have been identified in this family of neuropathies. Dystrophin is a protein that is abnormal in Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy, which affects males and is diagnosed earlier. Type I collagen is defective in osteogenesis imperfecta. Alpha-L-iduronidase is defective in mucopolysaccharidosis type I, Hurler’s syndrome. Defective cartilage oligomeric matrix protein is associated with some forms of multiple epiphyseal dysplasia.

Question 1996

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 60-year-old man with diabetes mellitus is referred for evaluation of nonhealing ulcers of his left foot. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief, and a below-the-knee amputation is being considered. Which of the following studies best predicts successful amputation wound healing?
. Hemoglobin A1c of 8.2
. Serum albumin of 2.5 g/dL
. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
. Ankle-brachial index of 1.0
. Transcutaneous partial pressure of O2 (TcPO2) of 50 mm Hg

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transcutaneous partial pressure of O2 (TcPO2) of 50 mm Hg


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The TcPO2 measures the O2 delivering capacity of the local vasculature. Values above 40 mm Hg have been shown to correlate with positive healing potential. The hemoglobin A1c is a good indicator of long-term glucose levels; however, it has no direct correlation with wound healing potential. Serum albumin is an indirect measure of nutritional status, and deficiencies in nutrition must be addressed before any surgery. Adequate hemoglobin levels are also necessary to promote adequate oxygenation to the amputation site. The ankle-brachial index may be falsely elevated as a result of calcified vessels in patients with diabetes mellitus. REFERENCES: Wyss CR, Harrington RM, Burgess EM, et al: Transcutaneous oxygen tension as a predictor of success after amputation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:203-207. Dwars BJ, van den Broek TA, Rauwerda JA, et al: Criteria for reliable selection of the lowest level of amputation in peripheral vascular disease. J Vasc Surg 1992;15:536-542.

Question 1997

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 68-year-old woman stepped on a needle while walking barefoot 10 days ago. She is not certain but thinks it is imbedded in her foot, and she notes local tenderness at the puncture site and drainage. Her primary care physician has been treating her with oral antibiotics. A plain radiograph is shown in Figure 38. What is the best course of action?
. IV antibiotics
. Continued oral antibiotics
. Removal of the foreign body in the surgical suite with fluoroscopy
. Removal of the foreign body in the office under local anesthesia
. CT to localize the foreign body

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Removal of the foreign body in the surgical suite with fluoroscopy


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Based on the radiographic findings, the patient has a metallic foreign body in her foot that is consistent with a needle. She has local infection secondary to the continued presence of the foreign body. CT is not necessary to localize the foreign body as it is adequately visualized on the plain radiographs. The infection cannot be adequately treated until the foreign body is removed. Attempted removal of foreign bodies without proper anesthesia and fluoroscopy frequently results in frustration because of the inability to localize the foreign body. Removal in a surgical suite with proper anesthesia and fluoroscopy is the preferred option. Once the foreign body is removed, the local infection will resolve rapidly. REFERENCES: Combs AH, Kernek CB, Heck DA: Orthopedic grand rounds: Retained wooden foreign body in the foot detected by computed tomography. Orthopedics 1986;9:1434-1435. Markiewitz AD, Karns DJ, Brooks PJ: Late infections of the foot due to incomplete removal of foreign bodies: A report of two cases. Foot Ankle Int 1994;15:52-55.

Question 1998

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
A 34-year-old man has had a 13-month history of an equinovarus deformity of the foot and ankle after a motorcycle accident. His foot and ankle are flexible, but bracing has become uncomfortable. Active dorsiflexion and eversion are absent. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Ankle arthrodesis
. Subtalar arthrodesis
. Pantalar arthrodesis
. Posterior tibialis tendon transfer to the lateral midfoot with Achilles tendon lengthening
. Split anterior tibialis tendon transfer to the lateral midfoot with Achilles tendon lengthening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Split anterior tibialis tendon transfer to the lateral midfoot with Achilles tendon lengthening


Explanation

Arthrodesis of any of the ankle or hindfoot joints should be reserved for fixed deformities or end-stage degenerative arthritis. Achilles tendon lengthening is necessary to correct the equinus and to improve dorsiflexion-plantar flexion balance. Similarly, transfer of the posterior tibialis tendon reduces both plantar flexion and inversion torque.

Question 1999

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
An 83-year-old woman with a long history of her foot slowly and progressively “turning out” now reports significant ankle pain. History reveals that she has significant cardiac disease and exercise-induced angina. Examination reveals a deficiency in the posterior tibial tendon; however, the hindfoot remains moderately supple. Radiographs reveal a valgus tilt of the tibiotalar joint and early arthrosis. What is the most appropriate orthotic management?
. Total contact orthotic
. UCBL orthotic
. Molded articulated ankle-foot orthosis
. Molded ankle gauntlet (Arizona brace)
. Lateral heel flare

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Molded ankle gauntlet (Arizona brace)


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient will continue to have pain secondary to the ankle arthrosis with both the UCBL and the molded articulated ankle-foot orthosis. The total contact orthotic does not provide enough hindfoot control to support the progressive collapse of the ankle into valgus positioning. A molded leather gauntlet will not only control tibiotalar motion but also control hindfoot motion and allow support of the longitudinal arch. REFERENCE: Augustin JF, Lin SS, Berberian WS, et al: Nonoperative treatment of adult acquired flat foot with the Arizona brace. Foot Ankle Clin 2003;8:491-502.

Question 2000

Topic: 8. Foot and Ankle
Following a chevron bunionectomy performed through a dorsal approach, a patient has persistent numbness on the dorsal and medial aspect of the hallux. What nerve has most likely been injured?
. Lateral plantar nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Dural nerve
. Medial plantar nerve
. Dorsomedial cutaneous nerve of the hallux

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsomedial cutaneous nerve of the hallux


Explanation

The dorsomedial cutaneous nerve of the hallux, which is a distal branch of the superficial peroneal nerve, supplies sensation to the skin on the dorsal and medial half of the hallux and may be injured during a chevron bunionectomy.