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Question 161

Topic: Forefoot

A 52-year-old woman presents with severe bunion pain. Clinical examination demonstrates gross sagittal plane hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Radiographs show a hallux valgus angle of 42 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 18 degrees. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to minimize recurrence?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Akin osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy
. First TMT joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)
. First metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First TMT joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)


Explanation

A first TMT joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) is indicated for severe hallux valgus (IMA > 15 degrees) in the presence of first ray hypermobility. This procedure corrects the intermetatarsal angle while simultaneously stabilizing the hypermobile first TMT joint, preventing deformity recurrence.

Question 162

Topic: Forefoot

A trauma surgeon is performing a transolecranon approach for the open reduction and internal fixation of an intercondylar distal humerus fracture (AO type 13-C3). To optimize healing and joint stability, what is the preferred osteotomy shape and orientation?

. Chevron osteotomy with the apex directed distally
. Chevron osteotomy with the apex directed proximally
. Transverse osteotomy exactly at the bare area
. Oblique osteotomy from medial to lateral
. Oblique osteotomy from lateral to medial

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chevron osteotomy with the apex directed distally


Explanation

A chevron-shaped osteotomy with the apex directed distally is preferred. This shape maximizes the surface area for healing and provides intrinsic rotational stability to the osteotomy site upon repair.

Question 163

Topic: Forefoot

A 60-year-old male complains of progressive dorsal foot pain and stiffness of his great toe. Radiographs show severe joint space narrowing, dorsal osteophytes, and subchondral sclerosis at the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. Clinical exam demonstrates less than 10 degrees of dorsiflexion. What is the most reliable surgical treatment for long-term pain relief in this patient?

. Cheilectomy
. Moberg osteotomy
. First MTP joint arthrodesis
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Silicone implant arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First MTP joint arthrodesis


Explanation

This patient has severe (Coughlin Grade 3 or 4) hallux rigidus. First MTP joint arthrodesis is the gold standard and most reliable surgical treatment for end-stage hallux rigidus, providing predictable pain relief and functional restoration.

Question 164

Topic: Forefoot

A 40-year-old female presents with a painful bunion. Clinical examination and weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 28 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 11 degrees. The first tarsometatarsal joint shows no hypermobility. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate?

. Lapidus procedure (First TMT arthrodesis)
. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy
. Keller arthroplasty
. Akin osteotomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

A distal chevron osteotomy is indicated for mild-to-moderate hallux valgus deformities (HVA < 30-40 degrees, IMA < 13 degrees) without first ray hypermobility. More severe deformities or those with hypermobility typically require proximal procedures or a Lapidus fusion.

Question 165

Topic: Forefoot

A 35-year-old woman complains of burning pain in the plantar aspect of her forefoot that radiates into her third and fourth toes. Symptoms worsen with tight shoes and improve when barefoot. A Mulder's click is present. Which of the following best describes the underlying histologic pathology of her condition?

. Proliferation of atypical Schwann cells
. Malignant degeneration of a peripheral nerve sheath
. Perineural fibrosis and nerve degeneration
. Granulomatous inflammation of the plantar fascia
. Crystal deposition within the flexor tendon sheath

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perineural fibrosis and nerve degeneration


Explanation

The patient has a Morton's neuroma, most commonly occurring in the third webspace. Histologically, it is not a true neoplasm but rather a compressive neuropathy characterized by perineural fibrosis, local vascular changes, and degeneration of the nerve fibers.

Question 166

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman presents with a symptomatic hallux valgus deformity. Radiographs show a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 26 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 11 degrees. Clinical examination reveals hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal joint. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy
. Lapidus procedure (first tarsometatarsal arthrodesis)
. Akin osteotomy alone
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lapidus procedure (first tarsometatarsal arthrodesis)


Explanation

While a distal chevron osteotomy is suitable for mild deformities, the presence of first ray hypermobility necessitates a Lapidus procedure (first TMT arthrodesis) to prevent recurrence and fully correct the deformity.

Question 167

Topic: Forefoot

A 60-year-old man complains of severe pain and stiffness in his right great toe. Examination reveals less than 10 degrees of dorsiflexion with pain throughout the entire range of motion. Radiographs show joint space obliteration and large dorsal osteophytes of the first MTP joint. What is the most reliable surgical treatment for pain relief?

. Dorsal cheilectomy
. Moberg osteotomy
. First MTP joint arthrodesis
. Keller arthroplasty
. Silicone implant arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First MTP joint arthrodesis


Explanation

For advanced (Grade 3 or 4) hallux rigidus with pain throughout the range of motion and joint space obliteration, first MTP arthrodesis provides the most reliable, durable, and functional pain relief.

Question 168

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old female presents with a painful bunion. Radiographs reveal a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 45 degrees, an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 18 degrees, and obvious hypermobility at the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint on clinical exam. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy without fusion
. First TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) with distal soft tissue release
. First metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis
. Keller arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) with distal soft tissue release


Explanation

In the setting of a severe hallux valgus deformity (IMA greater than 15 degrees) complicated by first ray hypermobility, a first TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) provides optimal multiplanar correction and restores stability to the medial column.

Question 169

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old female presents with a painful bunion. Radiographs reveal a hallux valgus angle of 35 degrees, an intermetatarsal angle of 14 degrees, and an abnormally increased distal metatarsal articular angle (DMAA) of 25 degrees. To appropriately correct the deformity while restoring joint congruency, which of the following procedures is required?

. First tarsometatarsal arthrodesis
. Proximal opening wedge osteotomy
. Distal medial closing wedge osteotomy
. Lateral soft tissue release alone
. Proximal phalanx osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal medial closing wedge osteotomy


Explanation

A high DMAA indicates the articular surface is laterally deviated. A distal medial closing wedge osteotomy (such as a modified Chevron or Reverdin) is required to correct the articular orientation and achieve a congruent joint.

Question 170

Topic: Forefoot

A 40-year-old female presents with painful hallux valgus. Weight-bearing radiographs demonstrate a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 38 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 16 degrees. There is no hypermobility at the first tarsometatarsal joint. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to correct her deformity?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal metatarsal osteotomy (e.g., Ludloff or Crescentic)
. Akin osteotomy alone
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. First metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal metatarsal osteotomy (e.g., Ludloff or Crescentic)


Explanation

An intermetatarsal angle (IMA) > 13 degrees indicates moderate to severe hallux valgus. A proximal metatarsal osteotomy or scarf osteotomy is necessary to provide the magnitude of correction required, as distal osteotomies are insufficient for an IMA of 16 degrees.

Question 171

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman complains of painful bunions. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 38 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 16 degrees. There is no hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal joint. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Distal soft tissue realignment alone
. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal metatarsal osteotomy with distal soft tissue procedure
. Lapidus procedure (TMT arthrodesis)
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal metatarsal osteotomy with distal soft tissue procedure


Explanation

For severe hallux valgus (IMA >13 degrees, HVA >30 degrees), a proximal metatarsal osteotomy combined with a distal soft tissue procedure is indicated to achieve adequate correction. Lapidus is typically reserved for those with TMT hypermobility or first ray arthritis.

Question 172

Topic: Forefoot

A 60-year-old woman complains of severe pain and stiffness in her great toe that limits her walking. Examination reveals less than 10 degrees of dorsiflexion at the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint and mid-arc pain. Radiographs demonstrate severe joint space narrowing, a large dorsal osteophyte, and subchondral sclerosis. What is the gold standard operative treatment?

. Cheilectomy
. Moberg osteotomy
. First MTP joint arthrodesis
. First MTP joint arthroplasty
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First MTP joint arthrodesis


Explanation

First MTP joint arthrodesis is the gold standard for severe, high-grade hallux rigidus (Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 3 or 4). Cheilectomy is indicated for early-stage disease with preserved joint space and pain primarily at terminal dorsiflexion.

Question 173

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman presents with a symptomatic hallux valgus deformity. Radiographs demonstrate a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 38 degrees, an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 18 degrees, and hypermobility at the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. First MTP arthrodesis
. First TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) with distal soft tissue realignment
. Proximal phalanx closing wedge osteotomy (Akin procedure)
. Excision of the medial eminence (Silver procedure)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) with distal soft tissue realignment


Explanation

A first TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus) is indicated for severe hallux valgus (IMA > 15-20 degrees) and is especially preferred when there is clinical or radiographic hypermobility of the first ray to prevent recurrence.

Question 174

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old male construction worker complains of dorsal big toe pain with push-off. Radiographs show moderate dorsal osteophytes at the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint, but the plantar joint space remains well preserved. He has failed shoe modifications and NSAIDs. What is the most appropriate surgical option?

. First MTP arthrodesis
. First MTP total joint arthroplasty
. Cheilectomy
. Proximal phalanx osteotomy (Akin)
. First tarsometatarsal arthrodesis (Lapidus)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First MTP arthrodesis


Explanation

For early to moderate hallux rigidus (Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 1 or 2) with preserved plantar cartilage and pain primarily with dorsiflexion, a cheilectomy (removal of the dorsal osteophyte and dorsal third of the metatarsal head) is the procedure of choice.

Question 175

Topic: Forefoot

A 60-year-old man presents with severe pain and stiffness in his first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. Radiographs show joint space obliteration, a large dorsal osteophyte, and subchondral sclerosis. He has pain throughout the entire arc of motion. What is the most reliable surgical treatment for long-term pain relief?

. Cheilectomy
. Moberg osteotomy
. First MTP joint arthrodesis
. Synthetic cartilage implant
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cheilectomy


Explanation

The patient has advanced (Grade 3/4) hallux rigidus with pain through the entire range of motion. Arthrodesis of the first MTP joint is the gold standard, providing the most reliable long-term pain relief and functional improvement.

Question 176

Topic: Forefoot

A 50-year-old man presents with pain in his right big toe that is worse during the toe-off phase of gait. Examination shows a palpable dorsal prominence and limited, painful dorsiflexion. Radiographs reveal dorsal osteophytes with preservation of the plantar joint space. What is the most appropriate initial surgical treatment if orthotics fail?

. First MTP arthrodesis
. Dorsal cheilectomy
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Silicone implant arthroplasty
. Metatarsal osteotomy (Weil)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First MTP arthrodesis


Explanation

This describes Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 2 hallux rigidus. Symptomatic Grade 1 and 2 hallux rigidus with preserved plantar articular cartilage is appropriately treated with dorsal cheilectomy to remove impinging bone and improve dorsiflexion.

Question 177

Topic: Forefoot

A 40-year-old woman has a symptomatic bunion. Radiographs reveal a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 45 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 18 degrees. There is no hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal joint. What is the most appropriate surgical approach?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal first metatarsal osteotomy with distal soft tissue procedure
. First metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis
. Lapidus procedure
. Akin osteotomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

For a severe hallux valgus deformity (HVA > 40 degrees, IMA > 15 degrees) without hypermobility or arthritis, a proximal first metatarsal osteotomy combined with a distal soft-tissue release provides the necessary correction power.

Question 178

Topic: Forefoot

A 55-year-old woman complains of painful bunions. Examination reveals a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 45 degrees, an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 18 degrees, and hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Akin osteotomy alone
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy
. First TMT joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

A Lapidus procedure (first TMT arthrodesis) is indicated for severe hallux valgus (HVA >40, IMA >15) associated with first TMT joint hypermobility.

Question 179

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman presents with painful bilateral bunions. Examination reveals significant hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Weight-bearing radiographs show a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 38 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 16 degrees. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Lapidus procedure
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy alone
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. First metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

The Lapidus procedure (arthrodesis of the first TMT joint) is the procedure of choice for moderate to severe hallux valgus deformities associated with clinical hypermobility of the first ray.

Question 180

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman presents with a symptomatic hallux valgus deformity. Clinical examination reveals profound hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to address both the deformity and the underlying pathomechanics?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy
. Akin osteotomy
. First tarsometatarsal arthrodesis (Modified Lapidus procedure)
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

The modified Lapidus procedure (first TMT arthrodesis) is the procedure of choice for moderate to severe hallux valgus associated with first ray hypermobility. It stabilizes the medial column and effectively corrects the intermetatarsal angle.