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Question 181

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman presents with severe hallux valgus. Clinical examination reveals hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Radiographs show an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 19 degrees and a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 45 degrees. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Akin osteotomy alone
. First TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Proximal phalangeal hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

In patients with severe hallux valgus (IMA > 15 degrees) and first TMT hypermobility, a first TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) provides powerful correction and stabilizes the medial column.

Question 182

Topic: Forefoot

A 52-year-old woman presents with a painful bunion. Weight-bearing radiographs show a hallux valgus angle of 45 degrees, an intermetatarsal angle of 18 degrees, and hypermobility at the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy
. Modified Lapidus procedure (first TMT arthrodesis)
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Akin osteotomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

A modified Lapidus procedure (first TMT arthrodesis) is indicated for severe hallux valgus (IMA > 15 degrees) especially when accompanied by first TMT joint hypermobility. A distal chevron osteotomy would be inadequate for this severe deformity.

Question 183

Topic: Forefoot

A 40-year-old female presents with a painful bunion. Clinical examination reveals hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Radiographs show a hallux valgus angle of 38 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 18 degrees. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Akin osteotomy alone
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy
. First tarsometatarsal joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

A Lapidus procedure (1st TMT arthrodesis) is indicated for moderate-to-severe hallux valgus (IMA > 15 degrees) combined with first ray hypermobility. It corrects the deformity at the apex and stabilizes the medial column.

Question 184

Topic: Forefoot

A 50-year-old female presents with dorsal midfoot pain localized to the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. Radiographs show mild to moderate joint space narrowing with a large dorsal osteophyte, consistent with Grade 2 hallux rigidus. She has failed conservative management. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Dorsal cheilectomy
. First MTP joint arthrodesis
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Total first MTP joint arthroplasty
. Lapidus procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal cheilectomy


Explanation

For early to moderate hallux rigidus (Coughlin and Shurnas Grades 1 and 2) with dorsal impingement and preserved plantar cartilage, dorsal cheilectomy is the surgical treatment of choice and preserves joint motion.

Question 185

Topic: Forefoot

A 55-year-old male complains of progressive right big toe pain. Examination reveals a rigid first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint with less than 10 degrees of dorsiflexion and severe pain in the midrange of motion. Radiographs show joint space obliteration and large dorsal osteophytes (Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 3). What is the most reliable surgical option for long-term pain relief?

. Cheilectomy
. Proximal phalanx extension osteotomy (Moberg)
. First MTP arthrodesis
. Silastic unipolar implant arthroplasty
. Keller resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cheilectomy


Explanation

First MTP arthrodesis is the gold standard for advanced hallux rigidus (Grade 3 and 4) presenting with pain in the midrange of motion. Cheilectomy is indicated for early stages where pain is primarily at terminal dorsiflexion.

Question 186

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman complains of medial eminence pain. Radiographs demonstrate a hallux valgus angle of 45 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle of 18 degrees.

Clinical examination reveals hypermobility at the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Which procedure is most appropriate?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Akin osteotomy
. First TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)
. First MTP arthrodesis
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

A first TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) is indicated for patients with a severe hallux valgus deformity (IMA > 15 degrees) combined with first ray hypermobility. It definitively corrects the deformity while stabilizing the incompetent medial column.

Question 187

Topic: Forefoot

A 50-year-old man presents with pain and stiffness in the great toe. Radiographs show dorsal joint space narrowing and a prominent dorsal osteophyte (Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 2 hallux rigidus). The plantar joint space is relatively preserved. What is the preferred surgical option after failing conservative care?

. First MTP arthrodesis
. Cheilectomy
. Silastic implant arthroplasty
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Lapidus procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First MTP arthrodesis


Explanation

Cheilectomy, which entails excision of the dorsal osteophyte and the dorsal 30% of the metatarsal head, is the gold standard surgical treatment for early-to-moderate hallux rigidus (Grades 1 and 2). Arthrodesis is reserved for end-stage diffuse joint space loss (Grades 3 and 4).

Question 188

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman presents with a symptomatic hallux valgus deformity. Radiographs show a hallux valgus angle of 35 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle of 18 degrees. The first tarsometatarsal joint is hypermobile. Which procedure is most appropriate?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy
. Lapidus procedure
. Keller arthroplasty
. Akin osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

The Lapidus procedure (first TMT arthrodesis) is indicated for severe hallux valgus with a large intermetatarsal angle (>15 degrees) and clinical first ray hypermobility.

Question 189

Topic: Forefoot

A 65-year-old male presents with dorsal foot pain and limited hallux dorsiflexion. Radiographs reveal dorsal osteophytes at the first MTP joint with preserved joint space on the plantar aspect. What is the most appropriate initial surgical option after failed conservative care?

. First MTP arthrodesis
. Cheilectomy
. Keller arthroplasty
. Silastic joint replacement
. Weil osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First MTP arthrodesis


Explanation

For mild-to-moderate hallux rigidus (Coughlin and Shurnas Grade 1 or 2) with dorsal impingement and preserved plantar joint space, a cheilectomy provides excellent pain relief and restores dorsiflexion.

Question 190

Topic: Forefoot

A football player presents with severe pain and swelling at the plantar aspect of the first MTP joint after a forced hyperextension injury. MRI confirms a complete rupture of the plantar plate with retraction of the sesamoids. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Taping and immediate return to play
. Stiff-soled shoe for 2 weeks
. Surgical repair of the plantar plate
. Cheilectomy
. First MTP arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Taping and immediate return to play


Explanation

A Grade 3 turf toe injury with a complete rupture of the plantar plate and sesamoid retraction in a competitive athlete often requires surgical repair to restore push-off strength and prevent hallux rigidus.

Question 191

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old female presents with a painful bunion. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal a Hallux Valgus Angle (HVA) of 45 degrees and an Intermetatarsal Angle (IMA) of 18 degrees. There is no hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal joint. Which surgical procedure is most indicated?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal metatarsal osteotomy with distal soft tissue realignment
. Akin osteotomy alone
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. First MTP joint arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

For severe hallux valgus with an IMA greater than 13 to 15 degrees, a proximal metatarsal osteotomy or Lapidus procedure is necessary to achieve adequate correction. A distal chevron osteotomy cannot provide sufficient translation.

Question 192

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman presents with a painful bunion. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 16 degrees and a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 38 degrees. Clinical examination demonstrates significant hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Scarf osteotomy
. Lapidus procedure (First TMT arthrodesis)
. Proximal phalanx osteotomy (Akin) alone
. First metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

A Lapidus procedure (first TMT arthrodesis) is indicated for moderate-to-severe hallux valgus (IMA > 15 degrees) accompanied by first TMT joint hypermobility. It effectively restores stability to the medial column.

Question 193

Topic: Forefoot

A 55-year-old man reports chronic dorsal midfoot pain at the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint, worst during toe-off. Radiographs display moderate dorsal osteophytes but preservation of the plantar joint space (Coughlin/Shurnas Grade 2). Conservative measures have failed. Which surgical option is most indicated?

. First MTP arthrodesis
. Cheilectomy
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Total joint arthroplasty
. Lapidus procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. First MTP arthrodesis


Explanation

Cheilectomy (excision of the dorsal osteophytes and the dorsal third of the metatarsal head) is highly effective for Grade 1 and 2 hallux rigidus where plantar cartilage is preserved. Arthrodesis is generally reserved for end-stage (Grade 3 or 4) disease.

Question 194

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman presents with severe bunion pain. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 45 degrees, an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 18 degrees, and clinical examination demonstrates gross hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy with distal soft tissue release
. First tarsometatarsal joint arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)
. First metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis
. Akin osteotomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

First tarsometatarsal (TMT) arthrodesis, or the Lapidus procedure, is indicated for moderate to severe hallux valgus (IMA > 15 degrees) associated with first ray hypermobility. Distal osteotomies are insufficient for high intermetatarsal angles and do not address the TMT instability.

Question 195

Topic: Forefoot

A 50-year-old man presents with a painful, stiff great toe. Examination reveals 15 degrees of dorsiflexion with pain at the extremes of motion. Radiographs demonstrate a dorsal osteophyte but well-preserved plantar joint space (Coughlin Grade 2 hallux rigidus). Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Cheilectomy
. First metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint arthrodesis
. First MTP joint silicone arthroplasty
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. First tarsometatarsal (TMT) arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cheilectomy


Explanation

Cheilectomy, which involves removal of the dorsal osteophyte and the dorsal third of the metatarsal head, is indicated for early to moderate hallux rigidus (Grades 1 and 2) where the plantar cartilage is preserved. MTP arthrodesis is typically reserved for end-stage (Grade 3 or 4) arthritis.

Question 196

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old female presents with a severe bunion deformity. Examination reveals hypermobility of the 1st tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Radiographs show a Hallux Valgus Angle of 45 degrees and an Intermetatarsal Angle of 18 degrees.

What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy
. 1st TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus)
. 1st MTP arthrodesis
. Akin osteotomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

The Lapidus procedure (1st TMT arthrodesis) is indicated for severe hallux valgus with an IMA >15 degrees, especially in the presence of 1st TMT hypermobility. Distal osteotomies are insufficient for this degree of deformity.

Question 197

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old man presents with dorsal midfoot pain and limited dorsiflexion of his first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. Radiographs show a dorsal osteophyte and joint space narrowing isolated to the dorsal half of the 1st MTP joint. Which procedure is most appropriate?

. 1st MTP joint arthrodesis
. Cheilectomy
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Silastic implant arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1st MTP joint arthrodesis


Explanation

Coughlin Grade 2 hallux rigidus presents with dorsal osteophytes and preserved plantar joint cartilage. Cheilectomy removes the dorsal impingement, providing excellent pain relief and improved dorsiflexion.

Question 198

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old female presents with severe pain over the medial eminence of her left foot. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal a hallux valgus angle of 45 degrees, an intermetatarsal angle of 21 degrees, and marked hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal joint. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to achieve durable correction?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy with distal soft tissue release
. First tarsometatarsal arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)
. Keller resection arthroplasty
. Akin osteotomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

A first tarsometatarsal arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) is the procedure of choice for severe hallux valgus associated with first ray hypermobility or an intermetatarsal angle greater than 20 degrees. It addresses the apex of the deformity, stabilizes the medial column, and provides multiplanar correction.

Question 199

Topic: Forefoot

A 60-year-old woman presents with severe bunion pain. Radiographs reveal an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 22 degrees, a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 55 degrees, and clinical hypermobility of the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Akin osteotomy alone
. First TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) with distal soft tissue release
. Scarf osteotomy
. First metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

A first tarsometatarsal arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) is indicated for severe hallux valgus deformities (IMA > 20 degrees), especially when accompanied by first ray hypermobility or TMT arthritis.

Question 200

Topic: Forefoot

A 45-year-old woman presents with severe bunion pain. Weight-bearing radiographs reveal a hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 45 degrees and an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 20 degrees. Clinical examination reveals profound hypermobility at the first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate?

. Distal chevron osteotomy
. Proximal crescentic osteotomy
. First tarsometatarsal arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure)
. First metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis
. Akin osteotomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal chevron osteotomy


Explanation

The patient has a severe hallux valgus deformity (HVA > 40 degrees, IMA > 13-15 degrees) accompanied by first tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint hypermobility. A first TMT arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) is the surgical treatment of choice in this scenario. It provides powerful correction of the intermetatarsal angle and addresses the underlying hypermobility at the TMT joint, reducing the risk of recurrence. Distal osteotomies are insufficient for severe deformities with joint hypermobility.