This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 161
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 40-year-old female complains of burning pain, swelling, and color changes in her right hand 6 weeks after cast removal for a distal radius fracture. Radiographs reveal patchy osteopenia. What is the most effective initial intervention to prevent progression of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Aggressive physical therapy emphasizing active range of motion
Explanation
The patient is presenting with Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) Type I. Early recognition and aggressive physical therapy (emphasizing active range of motion and load-bearing exercises) are the most effective first-line treatments to maintain function and prevent progression.
Question 162
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with a severe cough and shortness of breath. She has been unwell for a few days with a cough and sore throat and now says she is coughing purulent sputum which is rust-coloured and blood-stained. She has a history of asthma which is usually managed with a Seretide inhaler. On examination, she is pyrexial (38.2 ยฐC) and has a blood pressure of 110/82 mmHg. Her pulse is 95 bpm and regular. She has a respiratory rate of 30/min and coarse inspiratory crackles to the mid-zone on the right-hand side. There are marked cold sores affecting her upper lip. Investigation: Hb 12.1 g/dl, WCC 14.3 x 10^9/l, PLT 202 x 10^9/l, Sodium 139 mmol/l, Potassium 4.5 mmol/l, Creatinine 179 ยตmol/l, CRP 170 mg/l, PO2 9.1 kPa, PCO2 4.3 kPa. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her underlying pneumonia?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation
The history is very typical of community-acquired pneumonia, the commonest cause of which is Streptococcus pneumoniae, and the clinical findings and investigations are also consistent with this. Herpes labialis is usually associated with Streptococcus pneumoniae infection.
Question 163
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 30-year-old woman presents with persistent radial-sided wrist pain two weeks after a FOOSH injury. Initial and repeat radiographs are entirely normal. Which magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) sequence is most sensitive for detecting early, radiographically occult bone marrow edema indicative of a scaphoid fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Short Tau Inversion Recovery (STIR) or T2 fat-suppressed
Explanation
STIR and T2 fat-suppressed MRI sequences suppress the high signal from normal marrow fat, making the bright signal of interstitial water (bone marrow edema) highly conspicuous and sensitive for occult fractures.
Question 164
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 60-year-old woman sustains a distal radius fracture treated with closed reduction and casting. Which of the following daily oral supplements has the highest level of evidence for reducing her risk of developing Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vitamin C
Explanation
Vitamin C (typically 500 mg daily for 50 days) has been shown in randomized trials to reduce the incidence of CRPS following distal radius fractures. It acts as an antioxidant mitigating the excessive inflammatory response.
Question 165
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 6-year-old boy who is treated for a type III supracondylar fracture has no neurovascular deficit on initial examination. His fracture is treated by anatomic closed reduction and percutaneous fixation with medial and lateral pins. A partial deficit in ulnar motor and sensory function is noted after surgery. The next step in treatment should be:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Make sure the elbow is flexed to no more than 90ยฐ and observe.
Explanation
The use of medial pins in treatment of supracondylar fractures of the humerus has been associated with a risk of ulnar nerve injury. However, in the largest reported series, 16 of 17 palsies resolved spontaneously and completely with observation after a mean of 18 weeks. There is no evidence that pin removal, exploration, or transposition is necessary at this stage. Hyperflexion in a splint may cause the nerve to be apposed to the pin and can be decreased.
Question 166
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
The primary blood supply to the proximal pole of the scaphoid is derived from which of the following vessels?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
Explanation
The dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery supplies the proximal 80% of the scaphoid via retrograde intraosseous blood flow. This retrograde supply makes the proximal pole highly susceptible to avascular necrosis following a fracture.
Question 167
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the thumb metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint primarily leads to instability when which of the following forces is applied?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Valgus stress
Explanation
The UCL of the thumb prevents excessive abduction at the MCP joint. Therefore, injury to this structure (commonly known as Gamekeeper's or Skier's thumb) results in instability and laxity when a valgus stress is applied.
Question 168
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A positive Finkelstein's test in a patient with De Quervain's tenosynovitis is caused by irritation of which of the following tendon groups as they pass through the first dorsal compartment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
Explanation
De Quervain's tenosynovitis involves stenosing inflammation of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. This compartment contains the tendons of the abductor pollicis longus (APL) and the extensor pollicis brevis (EPB).
Question 169
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 25-year-old rugby player sustains a flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) avulsion from the distal phalanx of the ring finger. Radiographs show a large bony fragment retracted to the level of the A4 pulley. What is the Leddy and Packer classification of this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type III
Explanation
Leddy and Packer Type III injuries involve a large bony avulsion that catches at the A4 pulley, preventing further proximal retraction of the tendon. Type I retracts into the palm, and Type II retracts to the PIP joint level (A3 pulley).
Question 170
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 35-year-old carpenter sustains a puncture wound to his index finger. He presents 48 hours later with severe pain and swelling. Which of the following Kanavel signs is generally considered the most reliable and earliest indicator of acute suppurative flexor tenosynovitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pain with passive extension of the digit
Explanation
Kanavel's four cardinal signs of flexor tenosynovitis include flexed resting posture, fusiform swelling, tenderness along the flexor tendon sheath, and pain with passive extension. Exquisite pain with passive extension is typically the earliest and most sensitive clinical indicator of this surgical emergency.
Question 171
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 22-year-old man presents with anatomic snuffbox tenderness after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Initial radiographs are negative. An MRI obtained 1 week later confirms an undisplaced fracture of the proximal pole of the scaphoid. What is the blood supply most relevant to the high nonunion risk of this fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
Explanation
The scaphoid receives its primary blood supply from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters distally and flows retrograde. This delicate retrograde flow makes proximal pole fractures highly susceptible to avascular necrosis and nonunion.
Question 172
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old man presents with chronic wrist pain. Radiographs show a scaphoid waist nonunion with a "humpback" deformity and dorsal intercalated segment instability (DISI). What is the recommended surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Volar wedge bone grafting and screw fixation
Explanation
A humpback deformity in a scaphoid nonunion indicates volar bone loss resulting in carpal collapse. A volar structural wedge bone graft with internal fixation is required to restore scaphoid length and correct the DISI alignment.
Question 173
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 30-year-old carpenter lacerates the volar aspect of his index finger between the distal palmar crease and the proximal interphalangeal joint, transecting the FDS and FDP tendons. This injury is located in which flexor tendon zone?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Zone II
Explanation
Flexor tendon Zone II, historically known as "no man's land," extends from the A1 pulley at the distal palmar crease to the FDS insertion on the middle phalanx. Injuries here involve both flexor tendons within the tight fibro-osseous sheath.
Question 174
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
In the rehabilitation following a primary Zone II flexor tendon repair, which of the following postoperative protocols has been shown to result in the strongest tendon healing and the fewest adhesions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Early active mobilization with synergistic wrist motion
Explanation
Early active mobilization protocols place controlled stress on the healing tendon, which promotes intrinsic healing, increases tensile strength, and reduces the formation of restrictive peritendinous adhesions.
Question 175
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with advanced Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) stage III wrist arthritis. The radiocarpal and midcarpal joints are arthritic, but the radiolunate articulation is spared. Which salvage procedure is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion
Explanation
In SNAC stage III, the capitate is involved in the arthritic process, making a proximal row carpectomy (PRC) contraindicated. Scaphoid excision and a four-corner fusion spares the preserved radiolunate joint and maintains partial wrist motion.
Question 176
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old male sustains a proximal pole scaphoid fracture. Eight weeks later, radiographs demonstrate a lack of healing and nonunion. The high rate of nonunion in proximal pole scaphoid fractures is primarily due to the retrograde blood supply. Which vessel provides the primary blood supply to the proximal pole of the scaphoid?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
Explanation
The primary blood supply to the scaphoid enters the distal half of the bone via the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. The blood then flows retrogradely to the proximal pole, making proximal fractures highly susceptible to avascular necrosis and nonunion.
Question 177
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 40-year-old female complains of sudden loss of active thumb interphalangeal joint flexion 6 months after open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture with a volar locking plate. Radiographs show the plate is positioned distally, crossing the watershed line. Which tendon is most likely ruptured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor pollicis longus
Explanation
The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon lies directly over the volar aspect of the distal radius. Volar plates placed distal to the watershed line can cause attritional wear and eventual rupture of the FPL tendon.
Question 178
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
During surgical repair of a zone II flexor tendon laceration, a surgeon must carefully manage the flexor tendon sheath to prevent bowstringing of the repaired tendons. Preservation of which two annular pulleys is most critical for maintaining the biomechanical integrity of the digit?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A2 and A4
Explanation
The A2 (located over the proximal phalanx) and A4 (located over the middle phalanx) are the major annular pulleys. Their preservation or reconstruction is absolutely critical to prevent flexor tendon bowstringing and ensure efficient digital flexion.
Question 179
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 22-year-old man sustains a proximal pole scaphoid fracture. The high rate of avascular necrosis associated with this specific fracture pattern is primarily due to the retrograde blood supply originating from which of the following arteries?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
Explanation
The primary blood supply to the scaphoid is retrograde, entering the distal pole via branches of the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. Fractures of the proximal pole disrupt this supply, significantly increasing the risk of avascular necrosis and nonunion.
Question 180
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient sustains a laceration to the volar aspect of the hand, severing the flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus tendons in the region historically known as "no man's land." This anatomic area (Zone II) is defined by which of the following boundaries?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. From the proximal aspect of the A1 pulley to the insertion of the FDS
Explanation
Flexor tendon Zone II extends from the proximal edge of the A1 pulley to the insertion of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) on the middle phalanx. Both FDS and FDP travel together in the tight fibro-osseous sheath here, making repairs technically demanding.
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