This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 181
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 22-year-old male falls on an outstretched hand and presents with anatomic snuffbox tenderness. Radiographs show a displaced fracture of the proximal pole of the scaphoid. The high risk of avascular necrosis in this specific location is primarily due to the retrograde intraosseous blood supply from which of the following vessels?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery
Explanation
The scaphoid receives 70-80% of its blood supply in a retrograde fashion from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters the distal pole and waist. Proximal pole fractures disrupt this intraosseous supply, leading to a predictably high rate of avascular necrosis.
Question 182
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A newborn presents with short ribs, short stature, and postaxial polydactyly of the hands. An echocardiogram reveals a single atrium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Chondroectodermal dysplasia (Ellis-van Creveld)
Explanation
Ellis-van Creveld syndrome is a chondroectodermal dysplasia characterized by short-limb dwarfism, postaxial polydactyly, dysplastic nails, and congenital heart defects (most commonly an atrial septal defect or single atrium).
Question 183
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A child with diastrophic dysplasia presents with a classic "hitchhiker thumb" deformity. This deformity is primarily caused by which of the following anatomic abnormalities?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A shortened first metacarpal with a radial deviation at the trapeziometacarpal joint
Explanation
The "hitchhiker thumb" in diastrophic dysplasia is caused by a severely shortened, oval-shaped first metacarpal and radial subluxation at the trapeziometacarpal joint. It is a hallmark of this sulfate transporter defect.
Question 184
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
An infant is born with a distinctly narrowed, bell-shaped thorax, shortened limbs, and polydactyly. The neonatologist notes severe respiratory distress requiring intubation shortly after birth. Pelvic radiographs show a "trident" appearance of the acetabular roof. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Jeune syndrome (asphyxiating thoracic dystrophy) presents with a narrow, bell-shaped thorax leading to severe respiratory distress, shortened limbs, and occasionally polydactyly. Radiographs characteristically show a "trident" acetabulum with spurs on the sciatic notch.
Question 185
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
The neonatal hand:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Is proportionately different from the mature hand.
Explanation
The neonatal hand is proportionally different from the mature hand.
Question 186
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
In congenital lesions characterized by failure of formation of parts, the most functional, without treatment, is/are:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C entral deficiencies.
Explanation
C entral deficiencies allow a wide grasp, good release and pinch. These are also termed "cleft hand". The other conditions produce greater impairment.
Question 187
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 45-year-old laborer complains of numbness in his ring and small fingers and hand weakness. He demonstrates a positive Froment sign when asked to pinch a piece of paper. Which nerve is compressed, and which muscle is compensating?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ulnar nerve; flexor pollicis longus
Explanation
A positive Froment sign indicates ulnar nerve palsy, leading to weakness of the adductor pollicis. The patient compensates by hyperflexing the thumb interphalangeal joint, a motion powered by the median nerve-innervated flexor pollicis longus (FPL).
Question 188
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and presents with dorsal wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate a widened scapholunate interval of 5 mm on the AP view. What is the classic eponymous name for this radiographic sign?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Terry Thomas sign
Explanation
The Terry Thomas sign refers to an abnormally widened scapholunate interval (>3 mm) seen on AP radiographs, indicative of scapholunate ligament dissociation. The "spilled teacup" and "piece of pie" refer to lunate/perilunate dislocations.
Question 189
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old construction worker falls onto an outstretched hand and presents with severe volar wrist swelling. Radiographs reveal a volar displacement of the lunate, appearing as a 'spilled teacup' on the lateral view, while the capitate remains aligned with the radius. What is the sequence of carpal instability leading to this injury according to Mayfield's stages?
According to Mayfield's progressive perilunate instability, the sequence is Stage I (scapholunate), Stage II (capitolunate), Stage III (lunotriquetral), and Stage IV (failure of the dorsal radiocarpal ligament). This final stage allows the lunate to dislocate volarly into the carpal tunnel.
Question 190
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
The most common nerve injury in a Monteggia fracture and the type of Monteggia fracture with which it is most commonly found is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior interosseous nerve, type III
Explanation
The posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve is injured in 10%-20% of Monteggia fractures. Most cases occur at the time of fracture, but some occur later. Spontaneous resolution is the usual outcome. The posterior interosseous nerve is the most commonly injured, and type I and type III are the most common types affected.
Question 191
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A physeal fracture-separation of the distal humerus is seen in an 18-month- old boy. When the parents ask about the prognosis after this injury, you tell them that the most common complication is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C ubitus varus
Explanation
Cubitus varus occurred in seven out of twelve physeal fracture separations of the distal humerus in one series. This most likely occurred due to malalignment or avascular necrosis of the trochlea. Median nerve injury, ulnar nerve injury, and brachial artery injury are extremely uncommon after this injury because the surfaces of the metaphysis and the physis are relatively smooth in comparison to supracondylar fractures. Also, these injuries are relatively low-energy. Growth plate damage causing undergrowth is rare after this fracture.
Question 192
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A patient presents with a swollen, painful index finger. Which of the following is NOT one of Kanavel's four cardinal signs of acute suppurative flexor tenosynovitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Erythema extending proximal to the wrist crease
Explanation
Kanavel's signs include fusiform swelling, tenderness along the sheath, pain on passive extension, and a flexed resting posture. Erythema extending proximal to the wrist is not a cardinal sign and may suggest a more widespread cellulitis or proximal spread.
Question 193
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
In a child with an extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture presenting with significant posteromedial displacement of the distal fragment, which nerve is most commonly at risk of injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial nerve
Explanation
In a posteromedially displaced supracondylar humerus fracture, the proximal fragment displaces anterolaterally, putting the radial nerve at the highest risk of injury. Posterolateral displacement primarily endangers the median nerve and AIN.
Question 194
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
Which of the following is NOT one of Kanavel's cardinal signs for flexor tenosynovitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pain with passive extension of the digit
Explanation
Kanavel's four cardinal signs are: flexed posture of the digit, fusiform swelling, tenderness along the flexor sheath, and severe pain with passive (not active) extension. Pain with active motion is less specific.
Question 195
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which of the following structures is the most volar structure within the carpal tunnel?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Median nerve
Explanation
The median nerve is the most volar (superficial) structure within the carpal tunnel, lying immediately deep to the transverse carpal ligament. The FDS tendons to the middle and ring fingers are immediately dorsal to the nerve.
Question 196
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
The splint for early active motion flexor tendon rehabilitation protocols includes:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A hinge at the wrist to allow a tenodesis effect
Explanation
A hinge at the wrist, which provides a tenodesis effect, allows the patient to passively extend the wrist and flex the fingers in preparation for gentle muscle contraction of the fingers.
Question 197
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
What deformity can develop in a mistreated volar PIP joint dislocation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Boutonniere deformity
Explanation
With volar PIP joint dislocations, there is almost always a disruption of the central slip of the extensor tendon. Because the central slip is involved, the PIP joint will hold a flexed position, and the lateral bands will fall volar to the axis of rotation of the PIP joint. The lateral bands will then exacerbate the flexion at the PIP joint, and due to their pull on the terminal tendon at the insertion on the distal phalanx, the DIP joint will hyperextend. This results in a boutonniere deformity.
Question 198
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which structures are disrupted in a lateral PIP joint dislocation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Volar plate and both collateral ligaments
Explanation
When a lateral PIP joint dislocation occurs, failure probably begins with disruption of the collateral ligament either from its origin on the head of the proximal phalanx or its insertion on the base of the middle phalanx. The injury then proceeds through the accessory collateral ligaments and terminates with disruption of the insertion of the volar plate on the middle phalangeal base.
Question 199
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
The nerve most commonly injured at the time of a supracondylar fracture is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
The anterior interosseous nerve is the most commonly injured nerve. The anterior interosseous nerve can be tested by asking the patient to make an "O" with the thumb and index fingers, and watching for active flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints. The radial nerve is the second most commonly injured, after the anterior interosseous nerve. The ulnar nerve is not the most commonly injured at time of fracture but is the most commonly injured at time of treatment. The posterior interosseous nerve is rarely injured.
Question 200
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 28-year-old carpenter suffers a laceration over the dorsal aspect of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint, resulting in a Zone III extensor tendon disruption. If left untreated, this injury will classically lead to which of the following deformities?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Boutonniere deformity
Explanation
A Zone III extensor tendon injury disrupts the central slip attachment at the base of the middle phalanx. This leads to volar subluxation of the lateral bands, causing PIP flexion and DIP hyperextension, known as a Boutonniere deformity.
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