This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1541
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 40-year-old aquarium enthusiast presents with a chronic, nodular, non-healing ulcer on the dorsum of his hand.
He recalls a minor scrape on coral while cleaning his fish tank several weeks prior. If cultures are to be sent for the suspected organism, what special instruction must be given to the microbiology lab?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Incubate the culture on Sabouraud dextrose agar at 25°C
Explanation
The patient's history is classic for 'fish tank granuloma' caused by Mycobacterium marinum, an atypical mycobacterium. M. marinum grows optimally at lower temperatures (30°C to 32°C). Standard bacterial or mycobacterial cultures incubated at normal body temperature (37°C) often yield false-negative results.
Question 1542
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 35-year-old mechanic presents with an acutely swollen, painful ring finger 2 days after a puncture wound.
You suspect pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis. Which of the following physical examination findings is NOT one of Kanavel's four cardinal signs?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The affected digit is held in a resting posture of slight flexion
Explanation
Kanavel's four cardinal signs of flexor tenosynovitis are: 1) fusiform swelling of the digit, 2) finger held in resting slight flexion, 3) tenderness along the flexor tendon sheath, and 4) pain on passive extension. Pain with active flexion is not a Kanavel sign; patients generally refuse to actively move the digit.
Question 1543
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 22-year-old male presents 3 days after striking an opponent in the mouth during a fistfight. He has a 1 cm laceration over the 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint with surrounding erythema and purulence. During formal surgical I&D, which of the following systemic antibiotic regimens is most appropriate to empirically cover the classic pathogen associated with this specific mechanism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intravenous ampicillin-sulbactam
Explanation
This is a 'fight bite' (clenched fist injury against human teeth). The classic associated pathogen is Eikenella corrodens, alongside other mixed flora. Ampicillin-sulbactam (IV) or amoxicillin-clavulanate (PO) are the empiric treatments of choice.
Question 1544
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 35-year-old aquarium worker sustains a puncture wound to the hand. Six weeks later, he presents with a chronic, granulomatous nodule and flexor tenosynovitis. Cultures are sent. What is the most likely causative organism and its optimal laboratory growth temperature?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Mycobacterium marinum; grows optimally at 30°C
Explanation
Mycobacterium marinum is an atypical mycobacterium associated with aquatic environments (fish tanks, non-chlorinated pools). It requires a cooler incubation temperature of roughly 28-32°C (optimally 30°C) for successful culture growth.
Question 1545
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
What is the most common complication requiring reoperation after dorsal plating for a distal radius fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor tenosynovitis
Explanation
The most common complication of dorsal plating is extensor tenosynovitis, which often causes pain and is a frequent reason for hardware removal. Other less frequent complications include loss of reduction and extensor tendon ruptures, with flexor tendon ruptures occurring to an even lesser degree.
Question 1546
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
What sign or symptom may occur with cubital tunnel syndrome that does not occur with Guyon neuropathy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Abnormal sensation of the dorsal ulnar hand
Explanation
Ulnar neuropathy at the elbow is termed cubital tunnel syndrome, whereas ulnar nerve compression at the wrist is considered Guyon neuropathy. Patients with cubital tunnel syndrome have numbness on the dorsal ulnar aspect of the hand due to involvement of the dorsal ulnar sensory nerve branch (DUSN). Ulnar neuropathy at both the elbow and the wrist may manifest with abnormal sensation about the volar ring and small fingers and with weakness of the interosseous muscles, which can lead to a positive Froment sign. The Froment sign is considered positive when flexion of the thumb interphalangeal joint occurs to compensate for a lack of adductor function. Patients with a Guyon neuropathy do not have symptoms of numbness in the dorsal ulnar distribution, because the DUSN branch arises more proximally in the forearm and is not compressed in the ulnar tunnel at the wrist.
Question 1547
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 72-year-old male with pre-existing cervical spondylosis presents after a hyperextension injury sustained in a rear-end motor vehicle collision. He exhibits severe bilateral upper extremity weakness, profound loss of hand dexterity, and localized numbness. His lower extremity strength and gait are relatively preserved. MRI reveals intramedullary signal changes at C4-C5 but no fracture. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Central cord syndrome
Explanation
Central cord syndrome is classically seen in older patients with cervical spondylosis who suffer a hyperextension injury. The mechanical pinch of the spinal cord leads to central gray and medial white matter damage, disproportionately affecting the upper extremities (especially hand dexterity) more than the lower extremities, as the cervical tracts are located more centrally.
Question 1548
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 65-year-old female presents with the sudden inability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint 6 weeks after nonoperative treatment of a nondisplaced distal radius fracture. Radiographs show a healing fracture. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon transfer
Explanation
The patient has experienced a spontaneous rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, a known complication of nondisplaced distal radius fractures due to ischemia or mechanical attrition at Lister's tubercle. Because the tendon ends typically retract and undergo degeneration, primary repair is rarely possible. An EIP to EPL tendon transfer is the standard of care.
Question 1549
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
According to Mayfield's stages of progressive perilunate instability, what structural disruption defines Stage III of the cascade?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Disruption of the lunotriquetral interosseous ligament
Explanation
The Mayfield classification describes the progressive perilunate instability cascade resulting from wrist hyperextension, ulnar deviation, and intercarpal supination. Stage I: Scapholunate interosseous ligament disruption. Stage II: Disruption of the capitolunate articulation. Stage III: Disruption of the lunotriquetral interosseous ligament (resulting in a perilunate dislocation). Stage IV: Failure of the dorsal radiocarpal ligament allowing the lunate to dislocate completely (usually volarly).
Question 1550
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 24-year-old male sustains an isolated distal-third radial shaft fracture (Galeazzi variant) and undergoes open reduction and internal fixation with a rigid compression plate. Intraoperatively, after anatomic fixation of the radius, the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) is tested. It remains grossly unstable in neutral and full pronation, but reliably reduces and remains perfectly stable in full supination. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open repair of the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) through a dorsal approach
Explanation
A Galeazzi fracture involves a distal radius shaft fracture with disruption of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). The primary treatment is rigid anatomic internal fixation of the radius. If the DRUJ is unstable post-fixation, its stability should be assessed in supination. Supination functionally closes the DRUJ by tightening the palmar radioulnar ligaments and reducing the ulna dorsally into the sigmoid notch. If the DRUJ is stable in full supination, the standard of care is nonoperative management of the DRUJ using a long-arm cast or splint in supination for 4-6 weeks. Operative intervention (pinning or TFCC repair) is reserved for DRUJ instability that persists even in full supination.
Question 1551
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
The vascularity of the digital flexor tendons is significantly richer in what cross-sectional region?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal one half
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The vascularity of the dorsal portion of the digital flexor tendons is considerably richer than the volar portion. The other regions are not preferentially more vascular. REFERENCES: Hunter JM, Scheider LH, Makin EJ (eds): Tendon Surgery in the Hand. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1987, pp 91-99. Gelberman RH, Khabie V, Cahill CJ: The revascularization on healing flexor tendons in the digital sheath: A vascular injection study in dogs. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:868-881.
Question 1552
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
When performing a flexor tendon repair of a digit other than the thumb, what structures of the flexor tendon sheath should be preserved?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A2 and A4 pulleys
Explanation
The A2 and A4 pulleys are considered the most important parts of the pulley system. If these two structures are preserved, 80% of finger flexion can be maintained. If the pulley system is not left intact or is not reconstructed, bow-stringing of the flexor tendons occurs with loss of full flexion. The A2 pulley is over the proximal phalanx and the A4 pulley is over the middle phalanx.
Question 1553
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A professional football player sustains an extreme hyperextension injury to the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint, resulting in a Grade 3 'turf toe' injury with frank dorsal dislocation of the proximal phalanx. Which of the following anatomic structures is consistently completely ruptured in a true Grade 3 turf toe injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor hallucis longus tendon
Explanation
Turf toe is a severe sprain of the first MTP joint caused by an axial load on a dorsiflexed toe. A Grade 3 injury involves a complete tear of the plantar plate and the sesamoid complex (often disrupting the sesamoid phalangeal ligaments), leading to frank instability or dislocation. Surgical repair is often indicated for Grade 3 injuries, especially in elite athletes.
Question 1554
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A collegiate football lineman hyperextends his great toe on artificial turf. He presents with severe pain, ecchymosis, and an inability to push off. MRI reveals a complete rupture of the plantar plate and capsular ligamentous complex from the proximal phalanx. According to the Anderson classification, what grade is this injury, and what is the typical recommendation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Grade 1; conservative treatment
Explanation
Turf toe is a sprain or tear of the first MTP joint plantar plate. The Anderson Classification grades them as: Grade 1 (stretch), Grade 2 (partial tear), and Grade 3 (complete tear with loss of continuity of the plantar plate). Grade 3 injuries in competitive athletes—especially those with MTP instability, gross deformity, or sesamoid retraction—often require surgical repair to restore push-off strength and prevent chronic instability.
Question 1555
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 68-year-old man with known cervical spondylosis slips on ice, striking his forehead and forcing his neck into sudden hyperextension. He presents to the ED with burning pain in his upper extremities and severe weakness in his hands and arms. His leg strength is 4/5 bilaterally, and he is able to ambulate with assistance. Perianal sensation is intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Central cord syndrome
Explanation
Central cord syndrome typically occurs in older patients with pre-existing cervical spondylosis who sustain a hyperextension injury. The classical presentation is motor weakness that is more severe in the upper extremities than in the lower extremities, often accompanied by burning dysesthesias in the hands. The centrally located cervical tracts for the upper extremities are preferentially injured.
Question 1556
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 42-year-old man complains of radiating right arm pain. Examination shows weakness in wrist flexion and triceps extension, decreased sensation over the middle finger, and an absent triceps reflex. Which cervical nerve root is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C5
Explanation
The C7 nerve root supplies the triceps, wrist flexors, and finger extensors. It provides sensation to the middle finger and mediates the triceps reflex.
Question 1557
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A newborn is noted to have a congenital hemivertebra at T8 causing early scoliotic deformity. Which of the following screening tests is most critical in the initial workup of this patient to rule out associated anomalies?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Renal ultrasound
Explanation
Congenital scoliosis is frequently associated with VACTERL sequence anomalies. Renal ultrasound and echocardiography are critical early screening tests to rule out associated genitourinary and cardiac defects.
Question 1558
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old anesthesia resident has aching pain in his dominant right forearm after injuring it while playing basketball 1 week ago. He reports that he is unable to perform regional anesthesia that requires manipulation of a needle. Examination reveals that he is unable to flex the interphalangeal joint of the thumb, and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is weak. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. splinting followed by observation; surgical decompression of the anterior interosseous nerve may be required if no improvement is seen in 6 months.
Explanation
The patient has anterior interosseous nerve palsy. Initial management should consist of splinting followed by observation; surgical decompression may be required if there is no improvement in the functional deficit in 6 months. Anterior interosseous nerve palsy is classically described as an inability to flex the interphalangeal joint of the thumb because of flexor pollicis longus paralysis and a weakness or inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger because of weakness and/or paralysis of the flexor digitorum profundus to the index finger. Recent recommendations have been to extend the period of observation from 3 to 6 months before surgical decompression, as most cases will resolve within 6 months.
Question 1559
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
The most common mechanism of injury to the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) involves
Correct Answer & Explanation
. wrist extension and forearm pronation.
Explanation
TFCC tears are common in athletes. As the athlete braces for a fall, the wrist is most commonly in an extended position and the forearm is pronated.
Question 1560
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 62-year-old woman presents with sudden inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her right thumb 8 months after undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture with a volar locking plate. What is the most likely cause of her current presentation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) attrition due to dorsal screw prominence
Explanation
Attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is a classic and severe complication of volar locking plates used for distal radius fractures. It most commonly occurs when the plate is positioned too far distally, crossing the 'watershed line' of the distal radius, which exposes the tendon to repetitive friction against the prominent distal edge of the plate.
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