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Question 1521

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
What is the most important factor in determining recovery after surgical repair of a complete laceration of a nerve at the wrist?
. Timing of repair
. Technique of repair
. Patient’s age
. Use of a fibrin tissue sealant
. Use of a nerve conduit

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patient’s age


Explanation

DISCUSSION: All other factors being equal, a patient’s age is the most important factor in determining outcome after peripheral nerve injury. Repair of a nerve laceration within the first 2 weeks is generally considered appropriate. Fascicular repair may be of benefit in larger proximal nerves to reapproximate appropriate nerve bundles; distally perineural or epineural repair is sufficient. Use of a fibrin tissue sealant for nerve repair does not result in improved outcomes over suture repair. Nerve conduits have shown promise in digital nerves but do not have proven benefit in larger caliber nerves.

Question 1522

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
The arrows in the axial T1-weighted MRI scan shown in Figure 25 show which of the following structures?
. Ulnar artery and accompanying vein
. Deep and superficial branches of the ulnar nerve
. Radial and ulnar digital nerves to the little finger
. Palmar cutaneous and thenar motor branch of the median nerve
. Dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve and common digital artery to the fourth web

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep and superficial branches of the ulnar nerve


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The arrows in the figure show the deep branch of the ulnar nerve (more radial) and the superficial branch of the ulnar nerve within Guyon’s canal. Guyon’s canal is approximately 4 cm long beginning at the proximal extent of the transverse carpal ligament and ends at the aponeurotic arch of the hypothenar muscles. Many structures comprise the boundaries of Guyon’s canal. The floor, for example, consists of the transverse carpal ligament, the pisohamate and pisometacarpal ligaments, and the opponens digiti minimi. Within Guyon’s canal, the ulnar nerve bifurcates into the superficial and deep branches. The ulnar artery is immediately adjacent and radial to the ulnar nerve. The median nerve is visualized within the carpal tunnel, and the palmar cutaneous branch is more radial to Guyon’s canal and volar to the carpal tunnel. The radial and ulnar digital nerves to the little finger are branches off of the superficial branch of the ulnar nerve distal to its emergence from Guyon’s canal. The ulnar artery is the round structure located radial to the branches of the ulnar nerve within Guyon’s canal. Adjacent to the ulnar artery are two small veins. The dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve branches from the ulnar nerve in the distal forearm, well proximal to Guyon’s canal. The common digital artery to the fourth web branches from the superficial palmar arch distal to Guyon’s canal. The hook of the hamate is clearly seen in the figure, orienting the observer to the ulnar side of the wrist. REFERENCES: Gross MS, Gelberman RH: The anatomy of the distal ulnar tunnel. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1985;196:238-247. Denman EE: The anatomy of the space of Guyon. The Hand 1978;10:69-76.

Question 1523

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which of the following extensor tendons commonly have multiple slips?
. Extensor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis longus
. Extensor digiti minimi and abductor pollicis longus
. Extensor digiti minimi and extensor carpi radialis brevis
. Extensor indicis proprius and extensor pollicis longus
. Extensor indicis proprius and extensor carpi radialis brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor digiti minimi and abductor pollicis longus


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The extensor digiti minimi is most typically a tendon with two slips. The abductor pollicis longus has multiple slips that insert in order of frequency on the base of the first metacarpal, trapezium, and thenar muscles. The extensor pollicis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, and extensor indicis proprius consistently have only one slip. REFERENCES: von Schroeder HP, Botte MJ: Anatomy of the extensor tendons of the fingers: Variations and multiplicity. J Hand Surg Am 1995;20:27-34. Bouchlis G, Bhatia A, Asfazadourian H, et al: Distal insertions of abductor pollicis longus muscle and arthritis of the first carpometacarpal joint in 104 dissections. Ann Chir Main Memb Super 1997;16:326-338.

Question 1524

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 58-year-old man underwent distal radius ORIF with a volar locking plate yesterday. Preoperatively, he reported some mild sensory disturbances in the volar thumb and index finger, but had 2-point discrimination of 6mm in each finger. Now, he complains of worsening hand pain and sensory disturbances in his volar thumb and index finger. Two-point discrimination is now >10mm in these fingers. Radiographs show a well-fixed fracture in good alignment. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
. Strict elevation
. Removal of hardware
. Immediate carpal tunnel release
. Carpal tunnel release if no resolution at 6-12 weeks
. Trial of night splinting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate carpal tunnel release


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This patient had mild median paresthesias preoperatively that have significantly worsened postoperatively. Immediate carpal tunnel release is the most appropriate next step in treatment. Patients with acute carpal tunnel syndrome (ACTS) who undergo carpal tunnel release early have significantly better outcomes than those with delayed treatment.

Question 1525

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 17-year-old football player is unable to flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of his ring finger. He states that he injured the finger 6 weeks ago while attempting to tackle another player who pulled free from his grip, but he did not inform his coach at the time of the injury. Current radiographs show an observable fleck of bone volar to the base of the proximal phalanx. Treatment should consist of
. fusion of the DIP joint with no reconstruction of the tendon.
. advancement and repair of the tendon to the base of the distal phalanx.
. two-stage reconstruction of the profundus tendon.
. Z-plasty advancement of the profundus tendon.
. tenodesis of the distal tendon remnant with the flexor digitorum sublimis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. advancement and repair of the tendon to the base of the distal phalanx.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Flexor digitorum profundus ruptures are classified into three types. In type I, the tendon retracts into the palm. In type II, the tendon retracts to the level of the proximal phalanx, the vinculum remains intact, and the blood supply is preserved to the tendon. A small fleck of bony fragment observed at the A2 pulley is pathognomonic for a type II rupture. Successful primary repair of the type II rupture has been reported as late as 2 months after the injury.

Question 1526

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
What would be the most appropriate surgical indication for transferring fascicles of the ulnar nerve to the motor nerve of the biceps and fascicles of the median nerve to the motor nerve of the brachialis?
. C8 - T1 nerve root avulsion 3 months ago
. C5 - C6 nerve root avulsion 2 months ago
. Upper brachial plexus palsy 22 months ago
. Medial and posterior cord injury from gunshot wound 2 months ago
. C6 ASIA A spinal cord injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5 - C6 nerve root avulsion 2 months ago


Explanation

Transfer of fascicles from (1) ulnar nerve to the nerve to the biceps and (2) median nerve to the motor nerve of the brachialis would be appropriate in the treatment of an acute (<3-6 months) upper brachial plexus palsy. Upper trunk injury (C5, C6) often results from the avulsion of both the C5 and C6 nerve roots. Injuries of this nature usually result from a downward force on the shoulder with lateral bending of the cervical spine in the opposite direction. This results in what is commonly called an Erb-Duchenne palsy. Patients often present with a flail shoulder and loss of elbow flexion. Liverneaux et al. looked at short term results of this double nerve transfer technique in 15 patients with acute C5 - C6 nerve root avulsion injuries. Grade 4 elbow flexion was restored in each of the 10 patients. They concluded that this double nerve transfer technique will likely reduce the need for secondary procedures to augment elbow flexion.

Question 1527

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
What is the optimal biomechanical screw placement position to treat a waist-level scaphoid fracture?
. Dorsal one-third of the distal and proximal fragments
. Dorsal half of the distal and proximal fragments
. Central axis of the distal and proximal fragments
. Volar half of the distal and proximal fragments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central axis of the distal and proximal fragments


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Dodds and associates looked at short (compared to long) scaphoid screws placed down the central axis in cadavers. A long screw placed along the central axis was significantly more stable when tested in all planes of motion about the wrist. McCallister and associates examined central placement and eccentric placement in a cadaver model. Central positioning produced 43% more stiffness and 113% more load (P < .01). RECOMMENDED READINGS: Bedi A, Jebson PJ, Hayden RJ, Jacobson JA, Martus JE. Internal fixation of acute, nondisplaced scaphoid waist fractures via a limited dorsal approach: an assessment of radiographic and functional outcomes. J Hand Surg Am. 2007 Mar;32(3):326-33. Dodds SD, Panjabi MM, Slade JF 3rd. Screw fixation of scaphoid fractures: a biomechanical assessment of screw length and screw augmentation. J Hand Surg Am. 2006 Mar;31(3):405-13. McCallister WV, Knight J, Kaliappan R, Trumble TE. Central placement of the screw in simulated fractures of the scaphoid waist: a biomechanical study. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2003 Jan;85-A(1):72-7.

Question 1528

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 45-year-old mechanic presents with insidious onset of weakness in finger and thumb extension, without sensory deficits. Compression of the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is suspected. Which of the following represents the most common site of compression for this nerve?

. Between the two heads of the pronator teres
. Deep to the lacertus fibrosus
. At the Arcade of Struthers
. At the Arcade of Frohse between the superficial and deep heads of the supinator
. Within the cubital tunnel

Correct Answer & Explanation

. At the Arcade of Frohse between the superficial and deep heads of the supinator


Explanation

The Arcade of Frohse is a fibrous band at the proximal edge of the superficial head of the supinator muscle and is the most common site of compression for the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN). PIN compression presents with motor weakness of the wrist and finger extensors (often sparing the ECRL, leading to radial deviation on wrist extension) without sensory deficits.

Question 1529

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 28-year-old weightlifter undergoes repair of an acute distal biceps rupture via a single-incision anterior approach. Postoperatively, he reports numbness over the radial aspect of his forearm. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABC)
. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve (AIN)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABC)


Explanation

The LABC nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during a single-incision anterior distal biceps repair due to lateral retraction. The PIN is classically at risk during a two-incision approach if the forearm is not fully supinated during the deep dissection.

Question 1530

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old man has a painful nodule on the plantar aspect of his foot in the midarch. Use of a soft orthosis has failed to provide relief. Examination reveals that the mass is approximately 2.5 cm in diameter, firm, and tender to palpation. An MRI scan confirms the presence of a plantar fibroma. Management should now consist of
. local resection of the fibroma.
. resection of the entire plantar fascia.
. local radiation therapy.
. resection and adjuvant chemotherapy.
. Syme amputation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. resection of the entire plantar fascia.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Plantar fibromas have an extremely high recurrence rate (approximately 60%) with local excision only. Resection of the entire plantar fascia is effective at eradicating the lesion. There is no role for chemotherapy or amputation with plantar fibromatosis. Radiation therapy may be helpful in combination with resection of the plantar fascia.

Question 1531

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
An infant was born with complex syndactyly involving all 4 fingers of both hands, short and deformed thumbs, and similar syndactyly involving both feet. In addition, an altered facial appearance was noted with protruding eyes, a towered cranium, and midface hypoplasia. This appearance is characteristic of which syndrome?
. Apert
. Poland
. Holt-Oram
. VACTERRL
. Thrombocytopenia-absent radius (TAR)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Apert


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Apert syndrome is characterized by craniosynostosis (towered cranium), midface hypoplasia, and complex syndactyly of the hands and feet.

Question 1532

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 12-year-old boy sustained a both-bone forearm fracture 10 weeks ago and underwent closed reduction and casting. Examination now reveals that the injury is healed, but he is unable to extend his little and ring fingers of the injured hand with his wrist extended. Full extension is possible with the wrist flexed. A radiograph and clinical photograph are shown in Figures 15a and 15b. The remainder of his hand and wrist examination and neurologic evaluation in the hand are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Unrecognized laceration of the extensor tendon to the ring and little fingers
. Unrecognized compartment syndrome
. Entrapment of the flexor digitorum profundus to the ring and little fingers
. Triggering at the A1 pulleys
. Ulnar nerve injury below the elbow

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Entrapment of the flexor digitorum profundus to the ring and little fingers


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In this patient, examination reveals an inability to extend the fingers with the wrist extended, but full extension is possible with wrist flexion. These findings demonstrate isolated tenodesis of the flexor digitorum to the ring and little fingers. These findings are not consistent with compartment syndrome or nerve injury. Scarring or entrapment of tendons in forearm fractures can occur. REFERENCES: Watson PA, Blair W: Entrapment of the index flexor digitorum profundus tendon after fracture of both forearm bones in a child. Iowa Orthop J 1999;19:127-128. Shaw BA, Murphy KM: Flexor tendon entrapment in ulnar shaft fractures. Clin Orthop 1996;330:181-184. Kolkman KA, van Niekerk JL, Rieu PN, et al: A complicated forearm greenstick fracture: Case report. J Trauma 1992;32:116-117. Hendel D, Aner A: Entrapment of the flexor digitorum profundus of the ring finger at the site of an ulnar fracture: A case report. Ital J Orthop Traumatol 1992;18:417-419.

Question 1533

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

Which of the following fluoroscopic views is used to assess intra-articular screw penetration during volar fixation of a distal radius fracture?

. Dorsal skyline view
. AP wrist view
. PA wrist view
. 23° elevated lateral view
. 45° oblique lateral view

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal skyline view


Explanation

Due to radial inclination, a true lateral view of the wrist will not show whether screws from a volar plate are intra-articular; a 23° elevated lateral view is needed to adequately assess this.The amount of elevation will depend on the degree to which the surgeon restores radial inclination; for example, if the surgeon only restores 15° of radial inclination, then the surgeon would only have to elevate the wrist 15° from a true lateral in order to have the radiographic beam point down the joint line. Failure to diagnose intra-articular screws intraoperatively can lead to degenerative changes.Tweet et al. performed a survey of orthopedic surgeons regarding their preferred method of visualizing screw placement during wrist fixation. The majority of surgeons reported that they obtain multiple views, including AP/PA wrist views, a 23° lateral inclination view, and a true lateral view. They also performed a cadaveric study looking at different x-ray views and screw penetration. They reported that live rotational fluoroscopy provided the highest sensitivity (93%) and specificity (96%) for the detection of intra-articular screw penetration.Patel et al. evaluated the ability of surgeons at different levels to critically assess distal radius fixation and screw placement. They found that supplementation with a 23° lateral view increased accuracy and confidence in all position, specialty, and experience groups. Confidence scores were significantly higher following the evaluation of three views versus two views. Residents exhibited the greatest improvements in accuracy and confidence. For first-phase (standard view) assessments, accuracy scores were significantly better for attendings with less than 10 years of post-fellowship experience than those with more.Illustration A is a non-elevated lateral of the wrist, while illustration B is a 23° elevated lateral radiograph. Illustration C is an example of a skyline view, which assesses for screws penetrating the dorsal cortex.Incorrect Answers:check for long distal screws.OrthoCash 2020

Question 1534

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 66-year-old woman with known poorly controlled rheumatoid arthritis reports that for the past 4 weeks she has been unable to extend the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints of her right hand index, middle, ring and little fingers. She cannot hyperextend the thumb interphalangeal joint. Active wrist extension is possible, but shows radial deviation. Examination reveals mild synovitis at the wrist and MCP joints of the affected hand. There is no ulnar deviation at the MCP joints with normal alignment. When the MCP joints are passively extended, the patient is unable to maintain them in this position. There is no piano key sign at the distal ulna. Passive wrist motion shows a normal tenodesis effect. Which of the following would most likely confirm your diagnosis? Review Topic

. Radiographs of the hand
. Radiographs of the cervical spine
. Electrodiagnostic studies of the affected upper extremity
. Surgical exploration of the extensor tendon ruptures
. MRI of the elbow

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radiographs of the hand


Explanation

There are many causes of inability to extend the MCP joints in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis. The most common cause is rupture of the extensor tendons. An intact tenodesis test suggests that the extensor tendons are intact, thus surgical exploration is not indicated and would not confirm the diagnosis. The patient has normal alignment of the fingers without ulnar deviation, suggesting that there are no MCP dislocations to account for the inability to extend the MCP joints; therefore, radiographs would not confirm the diagnosis. The most likely cause of inability to extend the fingers in this patient is posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) palsy. Electrodiagnostic studies would confirm the presence of PIN palsy. An MRI of the elbow may show synovitis at the radiocapitellar joint, which can cause the PIN palsy. This finding however, is nonspecific and many patients without PIN palsy would also demonstrate synovitis at the radiocapitellar joint. Therefore, although an MRI would be helpful in localizing a potential cause of PIN compression, it would not in itself confirm the diagnosis.

Question 1535

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Examination of a carpenter who hit his thumb with a hammer reveals that the nail plate is broken but in place, and there is a 100% subungual hematoma that covers 100% of the area under the nail plate. Radiographs reveal a comminuted distal phalangeal tuft fracture. Management should consist of
. oral antibiotics and a fingertip splint.
. nail plate removal, nail bed repair, oral antibiotics, and a fingertip splint.
. Kirschner pin stabilization, IV antibiotics, and a fingertip splint.
. IV antibiotics and a fingertip splint.
. a short arm cast, followed by hydrotherapy and topical antibiotics.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. nail plate removal, nail bed repair, oral antibiotics, and a fingertip splint.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This is a classic situation for a distal phalanx tuft fracture with associated nail bed injury and subungual hematoma. In general, when the subungual hematoma is greater than 50% of the surface area under the nail plate, treatment should consist of nail plate removal, nail bed repair, oral antibiotics, and a fingertip splint. Oral antibiotics and fingertip splinting alone do not address the nail bed laceration, which will most likely lead to nail plate deformity if not repaired. Kirschner pin stabilization is not indicated because these fractures are nondisplaced and usually are inherently stable after nail bed repair. The use of IV antibiotics alone does not address the nail bed laceration surgically. Casting, followed by hydrotherapy and topical antibiotics, is not indicated because it does not address the nail bed laceration. Further, a nondisplaced distal phalangeal tuft fracture does not require cast immobilization. REFERENCES: Stern PJ: Fractures of the metacarpals and phalanges, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Green’s Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, 1999, pp 711-771. Zook EG, Guy RJ, Russell RC: A study of nail bed injuries: Causes, treatment, and prognosis. J Hand Surg Am 1984;9:247-252.

Question 1536

Topic: Nerve & Tendon
Figure 1 shows an injury sustained by a 60-year-old man 4 weeks ago. Since that time he has had substantial pain and catching of his finger during attempts at range of motion. What is the most appropriate treatment at this point?
. Tendon debridement
. Release of the A2 pulley
. Tendon repair with core sutures
. Tendon repair with epitendinous sutures

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tendon repair with epitendinous sutures


Explanation

Explanation: Approximately 70% laceration of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon with active locking is best treated with epitendinous sutures. Performing this procedure under local anesthetic allows for better assessment of whether the triggering has been resolved. Cyclic loading has been shown to increase with high-grade partial lacerations. Use of core sutures adds little strength to a partial laceration. Debridement alone is reserved for injuries involving less than 60% of the tendon diameter. Release of the A2 would compromise pulley function.

Question 1537

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Ganglion cysts about the wrist most commonly arise from what structure?
. First carpometacarpal joint
. Second carpometacarpal joint
. Scapholunate interosseous ligament
. Radioscaphocapitate ligament
. Capitohamate interosseous ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scapholunate interosseous ligament


Explanation

Discussion: Ganglion cysts are the most common mass or mass-like lesions seen in the hand and wrist. They arise in a variety of locations, including synovial joints or tendon sheaths. The most common location is the dorsal/radial wrist arising from the dorsal scapholunate interosseous ligament.

Question 1538

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
What is the best approach to reduce and stabilize a displaced volar lunate facet fracture of the wrist?
. Extended carpal tunnel incision
. Dorsal midline
. Interval between the flexor carpi radialis and radial artery
. Just radial to the ulnar artery
. Dorsal approach between the ulna and radius over the sigmoid notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extended carpal tunnel incision


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A volar lunate fragment of a distal radial fracture is considered a critical component to overall joint stability and function. Obtaining a reduction is difficult through a standard volar approach to the radius between the flexor carpi radialis and radial artery. Visualization and reduction of the ulnar volar facet is not possible from this approach. An extended carpal tunnel incision provides access to the entire articular surface, except for the distal radial styloid component.

Question 1539

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
What structure is most often injured in a volar proximal interphalangeal joint dislocation?
. Sagittal bands
. Central slip
. Lumbrical
. Juncturae tendinum
. Terminal extensor tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central slip


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Closed ruptures of the central slip of the extensor tendon may occur with volar proximal interphalangeal joint dislocation, forced flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint, or blunt trauma to the dorsum of the proximal interphalangeal joint. The other structures are not typically injured in proximal interphalangeal joint dislocations. Treatment typically requires static splinting of the proximal interphalangeal joint. In the more common dorsal proximal interphalangeal joint dislocation, the volar plate is injured, and early range of motion may be started after reduction.

Question 1540

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 28-year-old veterinary technician presents with a painful, swollen, and erythematous right index finger 24 hours after sustaining a deep cat bite to the proximal phalanx. Which of the following pairs correctly matches the most likely causative pathogen with the appropriate empiric oral antibiotic of choice?

. Pasteurella multocida; Amoxicillin-clavulanate
. Eikenella corrodens; Amoxicillin-clavulanate
. Capnocytophaga canimorsus; Clindamycin
. Staphylococcus aureus; Cephalexin
. Bartonella henselae; Azithromycin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pasteurella multocida; Amoxicillin-clavulanate


Explanation

Pasteurella multocida is the most common and rapidly presenting pathogen following a cat bite (often presenting within 24 hours). The prophylactic and empiric treatment of choice is Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin). Eikenella is associated with human bites, and Capnocytophaga with dog bites.