This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1241
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 35-year-old construction worker sustains a 'fight bite' over the dorsal aspect of his right 3rd metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. He presents 48 hours later with significant erythema, swelling, and purulent drainage. Which of the following organisms is a fastidious Gram-negative rod uniquely associated with this specific injury mechanism, and what is the optimal empiric oral antibiotic therapy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Eikenella corrodens; Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Explanation
Eikenella corrodens is a fastidious Gram-negative rod uniquely associated with human bite wounds ('fight bites'). Amoxicillin-clavulanate is the empiric oral antibiotic of choice because Eikenella is characteristically resistant to first-generation cephalosporins and clindamycin.
Question 1242
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 24-year-old male sustains a closed fracture of the base of the first metacarpal with an intra-articular extension that separates a small volar-ulnar fragment from the remaining metacarpal shaft. Which of the following ligaments remains attached to the volar-ulnar fragment, preventing its displacement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior oblique ligament
Explanation
In a Bennett fracture, the strong anterior oblique ligament (AOL) maintains the anatomic position of the small volar-ulnar fragment. The abductor pollicis longus (APL) pulls the main metacarpal shaft proximally, dorsally, and radially.
Question 1243
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
Which of the following clinical signs is considered the most sensitive and earliest indicator of acute pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pain with passive extension of the digit
Explanation
Of the four Kanavel signs, pain with passive extension is considered the earliest and most sensitive clinical indicator of acute pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis. It typically presents before the full development of fusiform swelling and resting flexion.
Question 1244
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 22-year-old male punches a wall and sustains a closed, isolated fracture of the 5th metacarpal neck (Boxer's fracture).
What is the maximum acceptable volar angulation for this fracture before reduction or surgical intervention is definitively indicated to prevent functional deficit?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 40 to 50 degrees
Explanation
The 5th carpometacarpal (CMC) joint has significant compensatory sagittal plane mobility (up to 20-30 degrees). Therefore, up to 40-50 degrees of volar angulation at the 5th metacarpal neck is generally well tolerated without functional impairment or pseudo-clawing.
Question 1245
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
When evaluating a closed metacarpal shaft fracture for rotational deformity, which of the following statements accurately describes the clinical consequence of malrotation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 5 degrees of metacarpal malrotation leads to 1.5 cm of digital overlap in flexion
Explanation
Rotational deformity is amplified at the fingertip. Approximately 5 degrees of rotational deformity at the metacarpal level results in about 1.5 cm of digital overlap at the fingertips during full flexion. Normal digits should point toward the scaphoid tubercle when flexed individually.
Question 1246
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old male sustains a base of the 5th metacarpal fracture with dorsal and proximal displacement of the metacarpal shaft. This 'reverse Bennett' fracture pattern is primarily driven by the deforming pull of which muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU)
Explanation
In a reverse Bennett fracture (fracture of the base of the 5th metacarpal), the extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU) tendon inserts on the base of the 5th metacarpal and pulls the fractured shaft proximally and dorsally.
Question 1247
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 30-year-old carpenter presents with a severe felon of the left index finger requiring incision and drainage. To minimize the risk of painful scarring and sensory loss on the primary pinch surfaces, what is the recommended location for a mid-axial longitudinal incision?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The ulnar aspect of the index finger
Explanation
For felons, a mid-axial incision should avoid the primary pinch surfaces. The pinch surfaces are the ulnar side of the thumb, and the radial sides of the index, long, and ring fingers. Therefore, the ulnar aspect of the index finger is the correct approach.
Question 1248
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient presents with swelling and extreme tenderness localized to the central palm. The palm has lost its normal concavity and appears bulging, but there is no significant swelling of the thenar eminence. Which of the following boundaries accurately defines the involved deep palmar space?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial to the flexor tendons and deep to the palmar aponeurosis
Explanation
The clinical picture describes a midpalmar space infection (loss of palmar concavity). The midpalmar space is bordered dorsally (deep) by the volar interosseous fascia and metacarpals, and volarly (superficial) by the flexor tendons of the 3rd, 4th, and 5th digits.
Question 1249
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which of the following fracture patterns of the 1st metacarpal base is associated with the highest rate of post-traumatic arthrosis, although functional outcomes are often surprisingly well-tolerated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rolando fracture
Explanation
The Rolando fracture is a comminuted, intra-articular fracture of the 1st metacarpal base (typically Y- or T-shaped). Due to articular comminution, it carries a higher risk of post-traumatic arthrosis than a Bennett fracture, though many patients maintain acceptable clinical function.
Question 1250
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A patient presents with a deep space infection of the hand characterized by a significantly swollen web space between the thumb and index finger, and the thumb is held in a resting posture of flexion and abduction. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thenar space infection
Explanation
A thenar space infection presents with massive swelling of the thenar eminence and the thumb-index web space, forcing the thumb into a classic flexed and abducted resting posture to minimize pressure within the space.
Question 1251
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Which of the following radiographic views is most sensitive for detecting a subtle intra-articular fracture of the metacarpal head or collateral ligament avulsion fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Brewerton view
Explanation
The Brewerton view is specifically designed to evaluate the metacarpal heads and collateral ligament avulsion injuries. It is taken with the MCP joints flexed to 65 degrees and the X-ray beam angled 15 degrees ulnar to radial.
Question 1252
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 30-year-old nurse presents with painful, grouped vesicles on an erythematous base near the eponychium of her right index finger. She describes a burning and tingling prodrome before the vesicles appeared. A Tzanck smear is positive for multinucleated giant cells. Which of the following treatments is strictly contraindicated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Incision and drainage
Explanation
The patient has Herpetic Whitlow, caused by HSV. Incision and drainage is strictly contraindicated as it can lead to viral dissemination, bacterial superinfection, and failure to heal. Treatment is largely symptomatic with dry dressings; antivirals may be used if started early or in immunocompromised hosts.
Question 1253
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 60-year-old man presents with chronic, enlarging, nodular masses on the digits of both hands. He has a history of poor medical compliance.
Radiographs demonstrate well-defined periarticular erosions with sclerotic overhanging margins ('Martel sign') and preserved joint spaces. What is the most likely composition of these soft tissue masses?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Monosodium urate
Explanation
The radiographic description of 'punched-out' periarticular erosions with overhanging edges (Martel sign) and preserved joint spaces is the hallmark of chronic tophaceous gout. The tophi are composed of monosodium urate crystals.
Question 1254
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 45-year-old diabetic male develops pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis in his left thumb following a minor penetrating injury. If left untreated, the infection is most likely to spread to the flexor sheath of the small finger to form a 'horseshoe abscess' through which of the following anatomic structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Parona's space
Explanation
Infections in the radial bursa (thumb flexor sheath) can communicate with the ulnar bursa (small finger flexor sheath) via Parona's space in approximately 80% of patients. Parona's space is a potential space located in the distal volar forearm between the pronator quadratus and the flexor digitorum profundus tendons.
Question 1255
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 22-year-old male presents with a 3-mm puncture wound over his right 3rd metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint after striking another person in the mouth. He exhibits pain with passive motion and localized swelling. Radiographs show no fracture. In addition to surgical irrigation and debridement, empiric antibiotic therapy MUST cover which of the following organisms characteristic of this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Eikenella corrodens
Explanation
This patient sustained a 'clenched fist injury' (fight bite), which inoculates the joint with human oral flora. Empiric antibiotics, such as amoxicillin-clavulanate, must specifically cover Eikenella corrodens, a gram-negative rod common in these infections.
Question 1256
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 25-year-old laborer sustains a transverse fracture of the third metacarpal shaft. On lateral radiograph, the fracture demonstrates apex dorsal angulation. Which of the following muscle groups is primarily responsible for generating this characteristic deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Interossei
Explanation
Metacarpal shaft fractures typically angulate with an apex dorsal deformity. This is primarily driven by the volar-directed deforming force of the interosseous muscles pulling on the distal fracture fragment.
Question 1257
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 19-year-old male punches a wall and sustains a closed fifth metacarpal neck fracture (Boxer's fracture) without extensor lag or digit malrotation. Based on the compensatory mobility of the carpometacarpal (CMC) joints, what is the maximum acceptable volar angulation for this fracture to be managed nonoperatively?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 70 degrees
Explanation
The 5th metacarpal CMC joint is highly mobile (allowing 20-30 degrees of motion), which allows it to compensate for significant volar angulation. Up to 70 degrees of volar angulation is widely accepted for nonoperative management, provided there is no rotational deformity or clinically significant extensor lag.
Question 1258
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 34-year-old agricultural worker presents with a severely painful, swollen right hand. Examination reveals marked swelling of the first web space, forcing the thumb into an abducted and flexed posture. There is extreme tenderness over the palmar aspect of the thenar eminence. Which of the following best describes the anatomic boundaries of the involved deep fascial space?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Volar to the adductor pollicis and dorsal to the flexor tendons of the index finger
Explanation
The patient has a thenar space abscess. The thenar space is anatomically defined as lying volar to the adductor pollicis muscle and dorsal to the flexor tendons of the index finger.
Question 1259
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old professional boxer sustains a fracture-dislocation of the base of the fifth metacarpal ('Baby Bennett' fracture). Radiographs reveal dorsal and proximal migration of the metacarpal shaft. Which of the following muscles is the primary deforming force responsible for this displacement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor carpi ulnaris
Explanation
In a fracture of the 5th metacarpal base, the extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU) tendon, which inserts at the base of the 5th metacarpal, pulls the metacarpal shaft proximally and dorsally. The flexor carpi ulnaris stabilizes the unciform process of the hamate.
Question 1260
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 32-year-old carpenter presents with progressive difficulty making a full fist with his right ring finger, particularly when attempting to grasp small objects. He reports a history of a 'Jersey finger' injury to the same digit 6 months prior, which was surgically repaired. On examination, when he attempts to actively flex his ring finger, his metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint flexes, but his proximal interphalangeal (PIP) and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints paradoxically extend. Passive range of motion of the PIP and DIP joints is full. Based on the epidemiology and pathophysiology described in the case, which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism for this patient's current deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal retraction of the avulsed FDP tendon, causing the lumbrical to become functionally unopposed distally.
Explanation
The patient's presentation of a 'Jersey finger' injury (avulsion of the FDP insertion) followed by paradoxical IP extension during attempted active flexion is a classic description of a lumbrical plus deformity. Avulsion of the FDP insertion is a common scenario where the lumbrical muscle, which originates from the FDP, becomes functionally unopposed distally. Attempted FDP activation then primarily pulls on the lumbrical, leading to its paradoxical action.
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