This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1221
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
During the open reduction and internal fixation of the multiple metacarpal fractures, a single dorsal longitudinal incision was utilized to expose the 2nd, 4th, and 5th metacarpal shafts. Meticulous care was taken to identify and protect specific anatomical structures. Which of the following structures is MOST at risk of iatrogenic injury during this dorsal approach, particularly when retracting soft tissues to expose the metacarpals?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal sensory branches of the radial and ulnar nerves
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case specifically mentions, 'Meticulous care was taken to identify and protect the dorsal sensory nerves (branches of the radial and ulnar nerves) and extensor tendons.' These superficial sensory nerves are located dorsally and are highly susceptible to injury during dorsal approaches to the metacarpals due to their proximity to the incision and retraction. The median nerve (Option A), ulnar artery (Option B), deep palmar arch (Option D), and flexor digitorum profundus tendons (Option E) are all located on the volar aspect of the hand or deeper within the palm and are not typically at direct risk during a dorsal metacarpal approach.
Question 1222
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
Immediately following open reduction and internal fixation, the patient's right hand was placed in a well-padded bulky dressing incorporating a dorsal protective plaster splint. The splint maintained the wrist in 20-30 degrees of extension, MCP joints in 70-90 degrees of flexion, and IP joints in full extension. What is the primary rationale for positioning the MCP joints in 70-90 degrees of flexion (the "position of safety")?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To prevent shortening of the MCP collateral ligaments and subsequent stiffness.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case states: 'A well-padded bulky dressing incorporating a dorsal protective plaster splint... maintaining the wrist in 20-30 degrees of extension, MCP joints in 70-90 degrees of flexion, and IP joints in full extension (the "position of safety"). This position protects the repair while preventing MCP collateral ligament shortening.' When the MCP joints are extended, the collateral ligaments are lax and can shorten, leading to stiffness in extension. Flexing the MCP joints tightens these ligaments, maintaining their length and preventing contracture, thus preserving MCP joint mobility. Options A, B, D, and E are incorrect rationales for this specific splinting position.
Question 1223
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
The patient undergoes post-operative radiographic assessment following open reduction and internal fixation of his multiple metacarpal fractures.
Based on the provided post-operative PA radiograph, which of the following statements is the MOST accurate assessment of the surgical outcome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. All three metacarpal fractures are anatomically reduced and stably fixed with appropriate low-profile locking plates and screws.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case describes the post-operative radiograph as 'Post-operative PA radiograph demonstrating anatomical reduction and stable internal fixation of the 2nd, 4th, and 5th metacarpal fractures with low-profile locking plates and screws.' Visually, the image confirms that the metacarpals are well-aligned, their lengths are restored, and the plates and screws are appropriately placed and intact. There is no evidence of persistent angulation (A), significant shortening (B), hardware failure (D), or intra-articular extension (E) on this PA view. The surgical goal of anatomical reduction and stable fixation appears to have been achieved.
Question 1224
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 22-year-old male punches a wall and sustains a closed 5th metacarpal neck fracture. What is the maximum acceptable volar angulation for nonoperative management of this fracture without resulting in a significant functional deficit, such as pseudoclawing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 70 degrees
Explanation
For metacarpal neck fractures, acceptable volar angulation varies by digit due to carpometacarpal joint mobility. The index and long fingers tolerate only 10-15 degrees, while the highly mobile 5th metacarpal can tolerate up to 70 degrees of volar angulation before requiring surgical reduction.
Question 1225
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 45-year-old mechanic presents with an acutely swollen and painful index finger 3 days after a puncture wound. Which of the following is NOT one of Kanavel's four cardinal signs of pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Erythema extending to the palm
Explanation
Kanavel's four cardinal signs of pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis are fusiform swelling, resting flexed posture, tenderness along the flexor sheath, and severe pain with passive extension. Erythema extending to the palm is not a cardinal sign, though cellulitis may be present concurrently.
Question 1226
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
In a Bennett fracture-dislocation of the thumb, the palmar ulnar beak fragment remains anatomically attached to the trapezium. Which of the following structures is responsible for this stabilization?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior oblique ligament
Explanation
The anterior oblique ligament (AOL) maintains the palmar ulnar fragment in its anatomic position attached to the trapezium. The main metacarpal shaft is displaced proximally, dorsally, and radially by the pull of the abductor pollicis longus (APL).
Question 1227
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 35-year-old woman is evaluated for a rapidly spreading, painful, erythematous infection on her hand 12 hours after sustaining a bite from a stray cat. Which organism is the most likely culprit and what is its characteristic feature?
Pasteurella multocida is the most common pathogen isolated from cat bites, characteristically causing a rapid-onset, aggressive cellulitis within 24 hours. It is a Gram-negative coccobacillus that is highly susceptible to penicillin or amoxicillin-clavulanate.
Question 1228
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 29-year-old laborer sustains a transverse fracture of the 3rd metacarpal shaft. On physical examination, the fingers are crossed over one another during active digital flexion. This finding indicates which of the following uncorrected deformities?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rotational malalignment
Explanation
Finger crossover or "scissoring" during active digital flexion indicates rotational malalignment of the metacarpal or phalangeal fracture. Even minor rotational deformities (e.g., 5 degrees) can cause symptomatic finger overlap and usually warrant operative reduction.
Question 1229
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 31-year-old mechanic presents with an abscess located in the palmar web space between the index and middle fingers. The swelling extends to the dorsal web space. This "collar button" abscess typically communicates between the volar and dorsal hand via which of the following anatomical structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deep transverse metacarpal ligament
Explanation
A collar button abscess forms an hourglass-shaped collection that communicates between the volar and dorsal aspects of the web space. This communication typically occurs directly through or around the deep transverse metacarpal ligament.
Question 1230
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 40-year-old carpenter develops severe, throbbing pain and fluctuant swelling of his thumb pulp after a splinter injury, diagnosed as a felon. The infection is compartmentalized within the distal pulp by which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fibrous septa extending from the distal phalanx to the dermis
Explanation
A felon is an infection of the distal pulp space, which is uniquely compartmentalized by multiple vertical fibrous septa extending from the periosteum of the distal phalanx to the palmar dermis. These septa must be surgically divided during incision and drainage to fully decompress the infection.
Question 1231
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a painful, swollen right index finger 3 days after a puncture wound to the volar crease. On examination, the finger is held in slight flexion, there is fusiform swelling, and tenderness is exquisite along the volar aspect of the digit. Which of the following is considered the earliest and most sensitive clinical sign for this patient's suspected diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Severe pain with passive extension of the digit
Explanation
The patient has purulent flexor tenosynovitis, characterized by Kanavel's four cardinal signs. Pain with passive extension is considered the earliest and most sensitive clinical sign.
Question 1232
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 24-year-old male sustains a laceration over the dorsal aspect of his right 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint after striking another individual in the mouth. He presents 48 hours later with profound erythema, swelling, and purulent drainage. Which of the following organisms is the most characteristic pathogen in this specific injury mechanism and requires targeted antibiotic coverage?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Eikenella corrodens
Explanation
A 'fight bite' (human bite wound) over the MCP joint is classically associated with Eikenella corrodens, a Gram-negative facultative anaerobe. Initial empiric treatment requires antibiotics such as amoxicillin-clavulanate that cover this pathogen along with common skin flora.
Question 1233
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 28-year-old laborer sustains a closed fracture of the 3rd metacarpal shaft. Clinical examination reveals a rotational deformity. In the context of a metacarpal fracture, a 5-degree malrotation at the fracture site will typically lead to approximately how much digital overlap at the fingertips during composite flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1.5 cm
Explanation
For metacarpal shaft fractures, 1 degree of malrotation translates to approximately 5 degrees of rotational deformity at the fingertip. This generally results in about 1.5 cm of digital overlap during full composite flexion.
Question 1234
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 25-year-old male sustains a closed, isolated neck fracture of the index (second) metacarpal after a fall. Neurologic and vascular exams are normal, and there is no rotational malalignment. What is the maximum acceptable apex dorsal angulation for nonoperative management of this specific fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10 to 15 degrees
Explanation
The 2nd and 3rd carpometacarpal joints are highly rigid, offering minimal compensatory motion. Therefore, the maximum acceptable angulation for the 2nd and 3rd metacarpal necks is strictly 10-15 degrees.
Question 1235
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 50-year-old diabetic patient develops a severe infection originating in the right thumb flexor tendon sheath. The infection rapidly tracks proximally, leading to massive swelling of the wrist and simultaneous involvement of the little finger flexor tendon sheath. This specific pattern of spread (a 'horseshoe abscess') communicates through which of the following anatomic structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Parona's space
Explanation
Parona's space is a potential space in the distal forearm deep to the flexor tendons and superficial to the pronator quadratus. It allows direct communication between the radial bursa (thumb) and ulnar bursa (little finger), facilitating a horseshoe abscess.
Question 1236
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old woman presents with rapid onset of severe hand cellulitis and a localized abscess 12 hours after sustaining a deep bite from a stray cat. What is the primary causative organism, and what is the preferred first-line oral antibiotic therapy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pasteurella multocida; Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Explanation
Pasteurella multocida is the most common and rapid-acting pathogen in cat bite infections. Amoxicillin-clavulanate is the first-line empiric treatment as it provides excellent coverage for Pasteurella, anaerobes, and standard skin flora.
Question 1237
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 55-year-old male with a history of chronic joint pain presents for hand evaluation. Radiographs demonstrate well-defined periarticular erosions with sclerotic margins and 'overhanging edges' (rat-bite appearance) primarily affecting the distal interphalangeal joints, with preserved joint spaces until late in the disease.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gout
Explanation
The classic radiographic features of chronic tophaceous gout include 'punched-out' periarticular erosions with overhanging edges (Martel sign or rat-bite erosions) and relative preservation of the joint space until late stages.
Question 1238
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 22-year-old athlete sustains an intra-articular fracture-dislocation of the base of the thumb metacarpal (Bennett fracture). The major metacarpal shaft fragment is displaced proximally, radially, and dorsally. The smaller volar-ulnar beak fragment remains anatomically aligned with the trapezium due to the strong stabilizing pull of which ligament?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior oblique ligament
Explanation
In a Bennett fracture, the volar-ulnar beak fragment is held in place anatomically to the trapezium by the strong anterior oblique ligament (AOL).
Question 1239
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 40-year-old carpenter undergoes incision and drainage of a felon on his right index finger. The surgeon utilizes a longitudinal volar incision. If the incision is mistakenly extended too far proximally past the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint flexion crease, which of the following complications is most likely to occur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Introduction of infection into the flexor tendon sheath
Explanation
Extending a volar incision for a felon too far proximally risks violating the distal extent of the flexor tendon sheath. This iatrogenic error can introduce the superficial infection into the sheath, causing purulent flexor tenosynovitis.
Question 1240
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 26-year-old manual laborer presents with severe hand pain. Examination reveals a swollen palmar web space between the middle and ring fingers, with the adjacent digits resting in an abducted position. There is marked dorsal swelling. What is the most likely anatomic pathway for the dorsal spread of this 'collar button' abscess?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Around the distal edge of the superficial transverse metacarpal ligament
Explanation
A collar button abscess initially forms in the palmar web space but rapidly tracks dorsally where the tissue is more compliant. It typically spreads through the anatomic defect at the distal edge of the superficial transverse metacarpal ligament.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.