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Question 3041

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 52-year-old man presents with chronic numbness and tingling in his small and ring fingers. Physical examination reveals a positive Tinel's sign over the cubital tunnel and weak interosseous muscles. Nerve conduction studies confirm severe ulnar neuropathy at the elbow. During surgical decompression, the surgeon must evaluate all potential sites of ulnar nerve entrapment. From proximal to distal, which of the following represents the most proximal potential site of compression?

. Medial intermuscular septum
. Osborne's ligament
. Aponeurosis of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU)
. Arcade of Struthers
. Deep flexor pronator aponeurosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial intermuscular septum


Explanation

The ulnar nerve can be compressed at several distinct sites around the elbow. From proximal to distal, these potential sites are: the Arcade of Struthers (a fascial band extending from the medial head of the triceps to the medial intermuscular septum), the medial intermuscular septum, the medial epicondyle, the cubital tunnel proper (roofed by Osborne's ligament), and the deep aponeurosis of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU).

Question 3042

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 32-year-old manual laborer presents with an 8-month history of central dorsal wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate sclerosis and early fragmentation of the lunate, but the carpal height is maintained and there is no capitate migration. Radiographic measurements reveal a negative ulnar variance of 3 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Proximal row carpectomy
. Scaphoid-trapezium-trapezoid (STT) arthrodesis
. Radial shortening osteotomy
. Ulnar lengthening osteotomy
. Total wrist arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal row carpectomy


Explanation

The patient has Kienböck disease (avascular necrosis of the lunate) stage IIIA (fragmentation, but preserved carpal height without carpal collapse), with a negative ulnar variance. Joint-leveling procedures, such as a radial shortening osteotomy, are indicated in earlier stages of Kienböck disease (Stages I, II, IIIA) with negative ulnar variance. This procedure offloads the lunate by shifting mechanical compressive forces to the radiocarpal joint. Salvage procedures like proximal row carpectomy or limited carpal arthrodesis are reserved for more advanced stages with carpal collapse (Stage IIIB) or secondary osteoarthritis (Stage IV).

Question 3043

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 42-year-old male bodybuilder sustains an acute distal biceps tendon rupture and undergoes surgical repair using a dual-incision (modified Boyd-Anderson) technique. Postoperatively, he reports difficulty extending his fingers and thumb. Examination reveals absent digit extension at the metacarpophalangeal joints, but wrist extension is preserved albeit with radial deviation. Sensation over the dorsum of the hand and lateral forearm is completely intact. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the procedure?

. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Superficial radial nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior interosseous nerve


Explanation

The patient exhibits a posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) palsy, characterized by the inability to extend the digits at the metacarpophalangeal joints and the thumb, but with preserved wrist extension. Wrist extension is maintained because the extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL) is innervated by the radial nerve proximal to the branching of the PIN. However, the wrist deviates radially during extension because the extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU) is paralyzed. The PIN can be injured during distal biceps repair due to over-retraction on the lateral side or deep dissection around the radial tuberosity. The lack of sensory deficits distinguishes an isolated PIN injury from a more proximal radial nerve injury.

Question 3044

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 45-year-old man presents with chronic radial-sided wrist pain 10 years after a fall on his outstretched hand. Radiographs demonstrate a scaphoid waist fracture nonunion with sclerosis and cystic changes. There is joint space narrowing and osteophyte formation between the distal scaphoid fragment and the radial styloid. The radiolunate and midcarpal joints are well preserved. What is the diagnosis and the most appropriate surgical management?

. SNAC Stage I; Scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis
. SNAC Stage I; Radial styloidectomy and scaphoid fixation with bone grafting
. SNAC Stage II; Proximal row carpectomy
. SNAC Stage III; Total wrist arthrodesis
. SNAC Stage II; Scaphoid nonunion takedown and vascularized bone grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. SNAC Stage I; Scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis


Explanation

The patient has Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) Stage I, defined by osteoarthritis isolated to the articulation between the distal scaphoid fragment and the radial styloid. The proximal scaphoid fragment, tethered to the lunate, retains its normal cartilaginous articulation with the radius. Management for SNAC Stage I typically involves radial styloidectomy to address the arthritic portion of the joint, combined with scaphoid nonunion takedown, bone grafting, and internal fixation to heal the underlying fracture. SNAC Stage II involves the scaphocapitate joint, and SNAC Stage III involves the capitolunate joint, for which salvage procedures like proximal row carpectomy or four-corner fusion are indicated.

Question 3045

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 55-year-old woman is seen in the clinic 6 weeks after sustaining a nondisplaced distal radius fracture treated conservatively in a short arm cast. The cast is removed, and radiographs show early healing with maintained alignment. Two weeks later, she returns reporting a sudden inability to actively extend her thumb at the interphalangeal joint. She denies any new trauma. What is the most appropriate management for this complication?

. Primary end-to-end repair of the extensor pollicis longus tendon
. Extensor indicis proprius to extensor pollicis longus tendon transfer
. Palmaris longus to extensor pollicis longus tendon transfer
. Splinting in thumb extension for an additional 6 weeks
. Corticosteroid injection into the third dorsal compartment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Primary end-to-end repair of the extensor pollicis longus tendon


Explanation

The patient has sustained a delayed spontaneous rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, a classic complication occurring weeks after a nondisplaced or minimally displaced distal radius fracture. The rupture is typically ischemic in nature, secondary to hematoma and swelling within the tight third dorsal compartment, or due to attrition over fracture callus. Because the tendon ends are usually degenerated, frayed, and retracted, a primary end-to-end repair is rarely feasible. The standard and most reliable surgical treatment is a tendon transfer, with the extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to EPL transfer being the procedure of choice as it provides similar vector, excursion, and expendability without significant donor-site morbidity.

Question 3046

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 28-year-old mechanic presents with chronic wrist pain 2 years after falling onto an outstretched hand. Radiographs demonstrate a scaphoid waist nonunion with advanced osteoarthritis of the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints. The radiolunate joint is well preserved. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis
. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC)
. Vascularized bone grafting of the scaphoid
. Total wrist arthrodesis
. Radial styloidectomy and bone grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis


Explanation

This patient has Stage III scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (SNAC). SNAC III is characterized by arthritis involving the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints, while the radiolunate joint is typically spared. A proximal row carpectomy (PRC) is contraindicated in SNAC III because it relies on a pristine head of the capitate articulating with the lunate fossa; advanced capitolunate arthritis precludes this. Therefore, a four-corner fusion (capitate, hamate, lunate, triquetrum) with scaphoid excision is the preferred motion-preserving salvage procedure.

Question 3047

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A 60-year-old woman undergoes volar locked plating for a comminuted distal radius fracture. Six months postoperatively, she presents to the clinic with an inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Which of the following technical errors during the index procedure is most likely responsible for this complication?

. Penetration of the dorsal cortex with a distal locking screw
. Placement of the plate distal to the watershed line
. Over-reduction of the normal volar tilt
. Failure to repair the pronator quadratus
. Use of a non-locking screw in the most proximal hole

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Penetration of the dorsal cortex with a distal locking screw


Explanation

The patient has sustained an iatrogenic rupture of the Flexor Pollicis Longus (FPL) tendon, which is the most common flexor tendon complication following volar plating of the distal radius. This typically occurs due to placement of the plate distal to the watershed line of the distal radius, leading to prominence of the plate edge and attritional wear of the tendon. Penetration of the dorsal cortex would put the extensor tendons at risk.

Question 3048

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 25-year-old man presents with chronic dorsal wrist pain. Radiographs reveal sclerosis and fragmentation of the lunate without fixed scaphoid rotation or carpal height collapse. Ulnar variance is measured at negative 3 mm. What is the most appropriate initial surgical management?

. Radial shortening osteotomy
. Proximal row carpectomy
. Total wrist arthrodesis
. Ulnar shortening osteotomy
. Scaphocapitate fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial shortening osteotomy


Explanation

The patient has Kienbock's disease (avascular necrosis of the lunate) classified as Lichtman Stage IIIA (fragmentation/collapse of the lunate but normal carpal alignment/height). Because the patient has ulnar negative variance, a joint-leveling procedure such as a radial shortening osteotomy is indicated to decompress the radiolunate joint and redistribute loads across the wrist. PRC or total wrist fusion are salvage procedures reserved for more advanced stages (Stage IV) with diffuse carpal arthritis.

Question 3049

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 45-year-old male undergoes a single-incision anterior repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture. Postoperatively, he is noted to have profound weakness in finger and thumb extension, but his wrist extension is preserved with radial deviation. Sensation over the hand and forearm is entirely intact. Which nerve was most likely injured, and what is its anatomic path near the surgical site?

. Posterior interosseous nerve; courses between the superficial and deep heads of the supinator
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve; courses lateral to the biceps tendon
. Anterior interosseous nerve; courses deep to the pronator teres
. Median nerve; passes between the two heads of the pronator teres
. Superficial radial nerve; courses deep to the brachioradialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior interosseous nerve; courses between the superficial and deep heads of the supinator


Explanation

The patient presents with an isolated motor deficit of the extensor digitorum communis (EDC), extensor pollicis longus (EPL), and other digital extensors, with preserved ECRL (radial nerve innervated before the PIN branches) causing radial deviation during wrist extension. This is the classic presentation of a Posterior Interosseous Nerve (PIN) injury. The PIN wraps around the radial neck and passes through the arcade of Frohse between the two heads of the supinator muscle. It is at particular risk during anterior single-incision distal biceps repair due to lateral retraction.

Question 3050

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 55-year-old male undergoes surgery for severe cubital tunnel syndrome. During the planned in situ decompression, the ulnar nerve is observed to subluxate completely anterior to the medial epicondyle during passive elbow flexion. What is the most appropriate next step in surgical management?

. Proceed with closure as in situ decompression alone is sufficient
. Perform an anterior transposition of the ulnar nerve
. Perform a medial epicondylectomy without mobilizing the nerve
. Resect the Osborne ligament and leave the nerve unstable
. Wrap the nerve in a vein conduit and leave in situ

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proceed with closure as in situ decompression alone is sufficient


Explanation

While an in situ ulnar nerve decompression is a highly successful treatment for standard cubital tunnel syndrome, intraoperative nerve instability (subluxation anterior to the medial epicondyle during flexion) is a primary indication for anterior transposition (subcutaneous, intramuscular, or submuscular). Leaving a subluxating nerve in situ after decompression can lead to chronic friction neuritis and 'snapping triceps/nerve' symptoms, leading to failure of the procedure.

Question 3051

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 55-year-old woman is seen 6 weeks after sustaining a non-displaced distal radius fracture treated conservatively in a cast. The cast was removed 2 weeks ago, and she began physical therapy. She now reports a sudden, painless inability to actively extend her thumb interphalangeal joint. On examination, she has full passive thumb extension, but cannot actively lift the thumb off the table when the hand is placed flat. Radiographs show a healed distal radius fracture. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient's new deficit?

. Direct primary repair of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon
. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to EPL tendon transfer
. Flexor carpi radialis (FCR) to EPL tendon transfer
. Extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL) to EPL tendon transfer
. Palmaris longus interposition grafting of the EPL tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Direct primary repair of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon


Explanation

The patient has sustained a delayed rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, a well-known complication following distal radius fractures, particularly those that are non-displaced. The rupture is secondary to ischemia and mechanical attrition at the level of Lister's tubercle. Because of tendon retraction and substance loss, direct primary repair is typically impossible. The gold standard treatment for chronic or attritional EPL ruptures is a tendon transfer utilizing the extensor indicis proprius (EIP). The EIP provides a synergistic transfer with appropriate excursion, leaving the extensor digitorum communis to the index finger intact to maintain independent index finger extension.

Question 3052

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 40-year-old male bodybuilder undergoes a single-incision anterior approach for repairing an acute distal biceps tendon rupture using cortical button fixation. Six weeks postoperatively, he complains of weakness in his hand and difficulty extending his fingers. On physical examination, he demonstrates a lack of active metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint extension of all four fingers and thumb extension. Wrist extension is preserved but occurs with radial deviation. Sensation over the hand and forearm is normal. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the surgical procedure?

. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Radial nerve (proper)
. Posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous (LABC) nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Median nerve


Explanation

The patient presents with classic signs of a posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) palsy. The PIN (the deep motor branch of the radial nerve) innervates the extensors of the fingers and thumb, as well as the extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU). Injury results in a loss of active MCP joint and thumb extension. Wrist extension is preserved (due to the intact ECRL innervated by the radial nerve proximal to the PIN bifurcation) but occurs with radial deviation because of the paralyzed ECU. Sensation remains normal since the PIN is a purely motor nerve. The PIN is at risk during the single-incision anterior approach to the distal biceps, particularly if retractors are placed aggressively on the lateral side of the radius (supinator muscle) or if the forearm is inadvertently pronated during drilling.

Question 3053

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

A 42-year-old avid cyclist presents with intrinsic muscle weakness and numbness in the small and ring fingers of his right hand. Examination shows clawing of the ring and small fingers, a positive Froment sign, and normal sensation over the dorsal ulnar aspect of the hand. Where is the most likely location of ulnar nerve compression?

. Arcade of Struthers
. Cubital tunnel
. Guyon's canal (Zone 1)
. Guyon's canal (Zone 2)
. Guyon's canal (Zone 3)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arcade of Struthers


Explanation

The presentation of combined motor deficits (intrinsic weakness, positive Froment sign, clawing) and palmar sensory deficits (numbness in the small and ring fingers) with normal dorsal ulnar sensation localizes the lesion to Guyon's canal. Guyon's canal Zone 1 is proximal to the bifurcation of the ulnar nerve into deep motor and superficial sensory branches; thus, compression here causes both motor and sensory symptoms. The dorsal ulnar cutaneous nerve branches off approximately 5 cm proximal to the wrist, sparing dorsal sensation in Guyon's canal entrapments.

Question 3054

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

During surgical decompression of the cubital tunnel for ulnar nerve entrapment, the surgeon must be aware of potential anatomical variations. Which structure is considered the primary static constraint forming the roof of the cubital tunnel?

. Arcade of Struthers
. Medial intermuscular septum
. Osborne's ligament (flexor carpi ulnaris aponeurosis)
. Medial epicondyle
. Olecranon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arcade of Struthers


Explanation

The cubital tunnel is formed by the medial epicondyle, olecranon, and the connecting aponeurosis of the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU), also known as Osborne's ligament or the cubital tunnel retinaculum. This ligament is the primary static constraint forming the roof of the cubital tunnel, through which the ulnar nerve passes. The Arcade of Struthers is a fibrous band more proximally in the arm, not within the cubital tunnel itself. The medial intermuscular septum is also more proximal. The medial epicondyle and olecranon form the floor and walls, not the roof.

Question 3055

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A 30-year-old male presents with acute pain and swelling over the dorsal aspect of his wrist following a fall onto an outstretched hand. Radiographs confirm a scaphoid fracture. Which of the following carpal bones has the most consistent and predominant dorsal blood supply, making it susceptible to avascular necrosis when fractured at its waist?

. Trapezoid
. Lunate
. Scaphoid
. Capitate
. Triquetrum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trapezoid


Explanation

The scaphoid has a unique blood supply, primarily from dorsal carpal branches of the radial artery, which enter the distal pole and waist, then travel proximally. The proximal pole receives little to no direct blood supply and relies on retrograde flow. This makes it highly susceptible to avascular necrosis (AVN) following fractures, particularly those through the waist or proximal pole, as the blood supply to the proximal fragment can be compromised. Other carpal bones generally have more diffuse blood supplies.

Question 3056

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A surgeon is decompressing the deep palmar space of the hand due to a severe infection. Which of the following anatomical structures forms the primary boundary between the thenar space and the midpalmar space?

. Flexor retinaculum
. Fibrous septa extending from the palmar aponeurosis
. Adductor pollicis muscle
. Oblique head of adductor pollicis
. Metacarpal bones

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor retinaculum


Explanation

The deep palmar space is divided into the thenar space and the midpalmar space. The primary anatomical structure that separates these two spaces is the adductor pollicis muscle. The thenar space lies lateral to the adductor pollicis, deep to the flexor tendons to the index finger. The midpalmar space lies medial to the adductor pollicis. The fibrous septa extend from the palmar aponeurosis to the metacarpals, creating the individual digital compartments and contributing to the boundaries of the superficial palmar space, but the adductor pollicis is key for the deep spaces. The flexor retinaculum forms the roof of the carpal tunnel.

Question 3057

Topic: Wrist & Carpus

A patient presents with chronic wrist pain and instability following a fall. Imaging suggests disruption of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ). Which component of the Triangular Fibrocartilage Complex (TFCC) is the most critical stabilizer of the DRUJ?

. Articular disc (TFC proper)
. Meniscus homologue
. Dorsal radioulnar ligament
. Volar (palmar) radioulnar ligament
. Extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU) subsheath

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Articular disc (TFC proper)


Explanation

The Triangular Fibrocartilage Complex (TFCC) is a crucial stabilizer of the distal radioulnar joint (DRUJ) and wrist. It comprises several components, including the articular disc (TFC proper), dorsal and volar (palmar) radioulnar ligaments, meniscus homologue, and extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU) subsheath. While all components contribute, the volar (palmar) radioulnar ligament is considered the most critical stabilizer of the DRUJ, particularly against dorsal displacement of the ulna relative to the radius. The dorsal radioulnar ligament prevents volar displacement. The articular disc allows smooth articulation, and the ECU sheath provides support.

Question 3058

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

A patient develops a painful mass on the palmar aspect of the hand, particularly along the flexor tendon sheath of the ring finger. During surgical excision, the surgeon encounters a cyst arising from the synovial sheath of a flexor tendon within the fibro-osseous canal. Which type of ganglion cyst is most commonly found in this location, associated with the flexor tendon sheath?

. Dorsal wrist ganglion
. Volar wrist ganglion
. Mucous cyst
. Flexor tendon sheath ganglion (A1 pulley ganglion)
. Carpal boss

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal wrist ganglion


Explanation

A flexor tendon sheath ganglion, often called an A1 pulley ganglion or volar retinacular cyst, typically arises from the synovial sheath of a flexor tendon, most commonly at the level of the A1 pulley in the palm (proximal phalanx/MP joint region). These are distinct from dorsal or volar wrist ganglions, which arise from the wrist joint capsule, or mucous cysts, which arise from the DIP joint. A carpal boss is an osteophyte on the dorsum of the wrist. Therefore, the description perfectly matches a flexor tendon sheath ganglion.

Question 3059

Topic: Nerve & Tendon

During surgical exploration of the posteromedial elbow, the surgeon must identify the various components of the medial epicondyle's muscle attachment. Which muscle's tendon is the most posterior attachment to the medial epicondyle, making it vulnerable during posterior approaches?

. Pronator teres
. Flexor carpi radialis
. Palmaris longus
. Flexor carpi ulnaris
. Flexor digitorum superficialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronator teres


Explanation

The common flexor origin muscles attach to the medial epicondyle in a specific order. From anterior to posterior (or superior to inferior on the epicondyle): pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, and finally the flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU). The FCU has its humeral head originating from the medial epicondyle and its ulnar head from the olecranon/ulnar shaft, forming the cubital tunnel. Its attachment is the most posterior aspect of the common flexor origin, making it relevant for posteromedial approaches.

Question 3060

Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist

In the hand, which group of muscles contributes to both flexion at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints and extension at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints?

. Dorsal interossei
. Palmar interossei
. Lumbricals
. Thenar muscles
. Hypothenar muscles

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal interossei


Explanation

The lumbrical muscles are unique in their action. They originate from the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendons and insert into the extensor expansions (dorsal hood) of the digits. This allows them to flex the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints and extend the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. This combined action is crucial for fine motor control, often described as the 'writing position' or 'lumbrical grip.' The interossei muscles primarily abduct/adduct the fingers and assist with MCP flexion, but their role in IP extension is less direct than the lumbricals. Thenar and hypothenar muscles act on the thumb and little finger, respectively.