This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 7. Hand and Wrist. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3021
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 55-year-old woman returns to the clinic 1 year after volar locking plate fixation of a distal radius fracture. She reports suddenly losing the ability to flex the interphalangeal (IP) joint of her thumb while lifting a moderately heavy pan. Radiographs demonstrate a well-healed distal radius fracture with the volar plate positioned palmar to the watershed line. Assuming the distal segment of the ruptured tendon is not amenable to primary repair, which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?
Attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is a well-recognized complication of volar distal radius plates placed distal to the watershed line (the prominent distal palmar rim of the radius). Due to chronic attrition and tendon retraction, primary repair is usually impossible. The standard of care for restoring FPL function in this setting is a tendon transfer using the ring or middle finger flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendon or an interposition tendon graft. EIP is traditionally used for extensor pollicis longus (EPL) ruptures.
Question 3022
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 35-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic, progressive, dorsal wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate significant sclerosis and early fragmentation of the lunate, confirming Kienbock's disease. Measurements reveal a negative ulnar variance of 3 mm. There is no fixed scaphoid rotary subluxation and no evidence of radiocarpal or midcarpal arthritis (Lichtman Stage IIIA). Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal row carpectomy
Explanation
For Lichtman Stage IIIA Kienbock's disease (lunate sclerosis and fragmentation, but normal carpal alignment without fixed scaphoid rotation) in a patient with negative ulnar variance, a joint-leveling procedure such as a radial shortening osteotomy is the treatment of choice. This unloads the lunate and redistributes forces across the radiocarpal joint. Salvage procedures like proximal row carpectomy or arthrodesis are reserved for more advanced stages (IIIB and IV) where carpal collapse or arthritis has ensued.
Question 3023
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 52-year-old man presents with chronic, progressive wrist pain and stiffness. He sustained a fall onto his outstretched hand 15 years ago but never sought medical treatment. Current radiographs reveal a chronic scaphoid waist nonunion with advanced degenerative changes involving both the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints. The radiolunate articulation is entirely spared. What stage of Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) does this represent, and what is the preferred surgical salvage procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. SNAC Stage II; Proximal row carpectomy
Explanation
SNAC wrist progression occurs predictably: Stage I involves the radial styloid; Stage II involves the entire radioscaphoid joint; Stage III involves the capitolunate joint; and Stage IV involves the entire carpus (often sparing the radiolunate joint initially). Because the capitolunate joint is arthritic (Stage III), a proximal row carpectomy (PRC) is contraindicated, as PRC relies on a pristine capitate head articulating with the lunate fossa. Therefore, scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis is the preferred motion-preserving salvage procedure for SNAC Stage III.
Question 3024
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 24-year-old man presents with chronic wrist pain after a fall 2 years ago. He is diagnosed with a scaphoid nonunion. Radiographs reveal a humpback deformity with a radiolunate angle of 20 degrees. MRI shows avascular necrosis of the proximal pole without radioscaphoid arthritis. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Non-vascularized iliac crest bone grafting and screw fixation
Explanation
In the presence of a scaphoid nonunion with a humpback deformity and an avascular proximal pole, a structurally sound vascularized bone graft is indicated. The medial femoral condyle (MFC) free vascularized bone graft provides both structural support to correct the humpback deformity and robust vascularity to heal the avascular proximal pole. Distal radius vascularized grafts (e.g., 1,2-ICSRA) typically lack the structural integrity to correct a significant humpback deformity. Proximal row carpectomy and four-corner fusion are salvage procedures reserved for advanced cases with radiocarpal arthritis (SNAC wrist).
Question 3025
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 55-year-old woman is seen 8 weeks after a nondisplaced distal radius fracture treated with cast immobilization. She reports a sudden inability to extend her thumb at the interphalangeal joint, which occurred while lifting a light pan. Examination reveals full passive extension of the thumb IP joint but a complete lack of active extension. Radiographs show a healed distal radius fracture. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary end-to-end repair of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon
Explanation
The patient has experienced a spontaneous rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, a well-known complication of nondisplaced or minimally displaced distal radius fractures. The rupture is thought to be secondary to ischemia and attrition within the third dorsal compartment. Because the tendon ends typically retract and degenerate, primary repair is usually not feasible. The standard treatment of choice is a tendon transfer utilizing the extensor indicis proprius (EIP) to the EPL, which provides an in-phase transfer with predictable and excellent functional results.
Question 3026
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 48-year-old carpenter complains of numbness and tingling in his small and ring fingers of the right hand. He also notes weakness in grip strength. Examination reveals a positive Froment's sign and intrinsic muscle wasting. Electrodiagnostic studies confirm severe ulnar neuropathy at the elbow. Which of the following clinical or anatomic findings is an absolute indication for an anterior transposition of the ulnar nerve rather than a simple in situ decompression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Positive Tinel's sign at the cubital tunnel
Explanation
In situ decompression and anterior transposition of the ulnar nerve have shown similar overall clinical outcomes for idiopathic cubital tunnel syndrome. However, specific absolute indications exist for anterior transposition. These include a significant valgus deformity of the elbow (which increases tension on the nerve), a history of prior failed in situ decompression (revision surgery), a subluxating ulnar nerve (either preoperatively or post-decompression), and the presence of a space-occupying lesion. Intrinsic muscle wasting indicates severe disease but does not anatomically mandate a transposition over an in situ decompression.
Question 3027
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old carpenter presents with an 8-month history of dorsal wrist pain and decreased grip strength. Radiographs show sclerosis and early collapse of the lunate with a negative ulnar variance of 3 mm. There is no evidence of radiocarpal osteoarthritis. MRI confirms avascular necrosis of the lunate. Based on the Lichtman classification (Stage IIIA), what is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal row carpectomy
Explanation
This patient has Lichtman Stage IIIA Kienböck disease (lunate collapse without scaphoid rotation or secondary arthritis) combined with a negative ulnar variance. Joint-leveling procedures are indicated in this setting to mechanically unload the lunate and shift compressive forces to the radioscaphoid joint. A radial shortening osteotomy is the most reliable and commonly performed joint-leveling procedure. Ulnar lengthening osteotomies have a significantly higher rate of nonunion and hardware complications. Proximal row carpectomy and four-corner fusions are salvage procedures reserved for later stages (Stage IV) with established radiocarpal arthritis.
Question 3028
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 60-year-old man of Northern European descent presents with progressive flexion contractures of his ring and small fingers. He is diagnosed with Dupuytren's disease. Which of the following normal anatomic fascial structures is the primary precursor to the pseudo-cord responsible for contracture at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pretendinous band
Explanation
In Dupuytren's disease, normal fascial bands hypertrophy and become pathological cords. The proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint contracture is most commonly caused by the spiral cord. The spiral cord originates from the pathological involvement of four normal structures: the pretendinous band, spiral band, lateral digital sheet, and Grayson's ligament. The pretendinous band primarily causes metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint contractures. Cleland's ligament is located dorsal to the neurovascular bundle and is typically spared in Dupuytren's disease. The natatory ligament is responsible for web space contractures.
Question 3029
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 38-year-old male manual laborer complains of right wrist pain 5 years after a fall. Radiographs demonstrate a scaphoid nonunion with radioscaphoid joint space narrowing and capitolunate arthritis. The radiolunate joint space is preserved. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial styloidectomy
Explanation
The patient has a Stage III Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) wrist, characterized by radioscaphoid and capitolunate arthritis with sparing of the radiolunate joint. Because the proximal pole of the capitate is arthritic, a Proximal Row Carpectomy (PRC) is contraindicated. A scaphoid excision combined with a four-corner (capitate, lunate, hamate, triquetrum) arthrodesis is the treatment of choice to provide pain relief while preserving functional wrist motion.
Question 3030
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 40-year-old male felt a pop in his antecubital fossa while lifting a heavy box. An MRI confirms a complete avulsion of the distal biceps tendon from the radial tuberosity. He elects to undergo surgical repair using a single-incision anterior approach. Which of the following neurological complications is most frequently encountered with this specific surgical approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial nerve palsy
Explanation
The single-incision anterior approach for distal biceps repair carries a higher risk of injury to the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABC) due to its proximity to the superficial surgical interval, often resulting in temporary neurapraxia. The two-incision approach classically has a higher risk of heterotopic ossification and radioulnar synostosis, while minimizing LABC injury but introducing a potential risk to the posterior interosseous nerve if retractors are poorly placed dorsally.
Question 3031
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 58-year-old female sustains a nondisplaced distal radius fracture treated with cast immobilization. Six weeks later, the cast is removed, and radiographs confirm a healed fracture. Two weeks following cast removal, she reports a sudden inability to actively extend the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. She is unable to lift her thumb off the table when the hand is placed flat. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary end-to-end repair of the ruptured tendon
Explanation
The patient has sustained a delayed spontaneous rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, a known complication following both displaced and nondisplaced distal radius fractures due to vascular watershed ischemia or mechanical attrition within the third extensor compartment. Primary repair is generally not possible due to tendon retraction and poor tissue quality. An EIP to EPL tendon transfer is the gold standard for restoring thumb extension.
Question 3032
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 62-year-old woman undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a distal radius fracture with a volar locking plate. Four months postoperatively, she presents with volar wrist pain and a new-onset inability to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of her thumb. Radiographs demonstrate fracture union, but the volar plate is positioned distal to the watershed line. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of her condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iatrogenic laceration of the flexor pollicis longus tendon during surgery
Explanation
Placement of a volar locking plate distal to the watershed line of the distal radius places the flexor tendons, particularly the flexor pollicis longus (FPL), at high risk for mechanical irritation and eventual rupture. The delayed inability to actively flex the IP joint of the thumb strongly points to FPL tendon rupture due to attrition against the prominent distal hardware.
Question 3033
Topic: Nerve & Tendon
A 50-year-old male carpenter presents with a 6-month history of numbness and tingling in his ring and small fingers, accompanied by grip weakness. Nerve conduction studies confirm compression of the ulnar nerve across the elbow. During a surgical in situ decompression, the nerve is traced from proximal to distal. Which of the following structures is the most common site of ulnar nerve compression in this region?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ligament of Struthers
Explanation
Cubital tunnel syndrome is the second most common compression neuropathy in the upper extremity. The most common site of ulnar nerve compression at the elbow is beneath Osborne's ligament (the cubital tunnel retinaculum), which spans between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon. The Arcade of Struthers is a less common, more proximal site. The Ligament of Struthers is associated with median nerve compression, and the Arcade of Frohse with PIN compression.
Question 3034
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 55-year-old female presents with persistent numbness, tingling, and pain in her thumb, index, and long fingers, waking her up at night. She underwent an open carpal tunnel release 6 months ago by an outside surgeon. Nerve conduction studies confirm severe median neuropathy across the carpal tunnel. Exploration of the carpal tunnel is performed. What is the most common intraoperative finding responsible for recurrent or persistent carpal tunnel syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. An anomalous median artery
Explanation
The most common cause of persistent carpal tunnel syndrome after a primary surgical release is the incomplete transection of the transverse carpal ligament (flexor retinaculum), particularly its distal portion. While other factors like perineural scarring, anomalous structures, or severe tenosynovitis can cause recurrence, incomplete release is the most frequently identified technical error leading to failed primary surgery.
Question 3035
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 55-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic right wrist pain. Radiographs demonstrate advanced joint space narrowing of the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints, while the radiolunate joint is well preserved. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal row carpectomy
Explanation
This patient presents with Stage III scapholunate advanced collapse (SLAC) wrist, which is characterized by degenerative changes extending to the capitolunate joint while sparing the radiolunate joint. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC) relies on an intact proximal capitate articular surface to articulate with the lunate fossa; therefore, it is contraindicated in Stage III SLAC due to capitate wear. The gold standard surgical management for Stage III SLAC wrist is a scaphoid excision and four-corner (capitate, lunate, triquetrum, hamate) arthrodesis.
Question 3036
Topic: Wrist & Carpus
A 62-year-old woman is 6 months status post volar locked plating of a comminuted distal radius fracture. She reports a sudden inability to flex her thumb interphalangeal joint. Radiographs show a well-healed fracture, but the distal margin of the plate is positioned directly on the watershed line. Which tendon is most likely ruptured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor pollicis longus
Explanation
Volar plates placed at or distal to the watershed line of the distal radius are associated with a high risk of flexor tendon irritation and subsequent attrition rupture. The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is most commonly affected due to its intimate anatomical proximity to the prominent volar hardware near the watershed line. The extensor pollicis longus (EPL) is at risk from prominent dorsal screws, not volar plate positioning.
Question 3037
Topic: Hand Trauma & Infection
A 30-year-old mechanic presents with a swollen, painful index finger 3 days after sustaining a minor puncture wound. Which of the following is NOT one of Kanavel's cardinal signs of pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fusiform swelling of the digit
Explanation
Kanavel's four cardinal signs of pyogenic flexor tenosynovitis are: 1) fusiform (sausage-like) swelling of the entire digit, 2) resting flexed posture of the digit, 3) exquisite tenderness along the course of the flexor tendon sheath, and 4) excruciating pain with passive extension of the digit. Erythema extending proximally to the wrist is not a cardinal sign and may instead indicate spreading cellulitis or a proximal space infection.
Question 3038
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old avid cyclist presents with a 3-month history of numbness and tingling in his right ring and small fingers. He also notes weakness in spreading his fingers apart. Tinel's sign is positive over the ulnar aspect of the wrist, but negative at the elbow. Sensation over the dorsoulnar aspect of the hand is completely normal. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cubital tunnel
Explanation
The patient has ulnar neuropathy at the wrist (Guyon's canal), as evidenced by normal sensation to the dorsoulnar hand (supplied by the dorsal ulnar sensory branch, which branches off proximal to the wrist). Guyon's canal is divided into three zones. Zone I is proximal to the bifurcation of the ulnar nerve; compression here yields mixed motor and volar sensory deficits. Zone II encompasses the deep branch and yields isolated motor deficits. Zone III encompasses the superficial branch and yields isolated sensory deficits. Because this patient has both motor (weakness in finger abduction) and volar sensory (numbness in ring/small fingers) deficits, the compression must be in Zone I.
Question 3039
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 45-year-old man presents with chronic, progressive wrist pain and limited range of motion. He recalls falling on his outstretched hand several years ago but did not seek medical attention at the time. Radiographs reveal a scaphoid nonunion with advanced arthritic changes at the radioscaphoid and capitolunate joints, while the radiolunate joint is entirely preserved. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC)
Explanation
This patient has Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse (SNAC) stage III, characterized by radioscaphoid and capitolunate arthritis with a spared radiolunate joint. Proximal row carpectomy (PRC) is contraindicated because it relies on a pristine capitate proximal pole to articulate with the lunate fossa of the radius. Therefore, scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion (capitate, hamate, lunate, triquetrum) is the preferred treatment, as it eliminates the arthritic capitolunate joint while preserving some wrist motion through the pristine radiolunate joint.
Question 3040
Topic: 7. Hand and Wrist
A 32-year-old manual laborer presents with an insidious onset of dorsal wrist pain and weakened grip strength. Radiographs reveal sclerosis, cystic changes, and early fragmentation of the lunate, consistent with Lichtman Stage IIIA Kienböck disease. Wrist films also demonstrate a negative ulnar variance of 3 mm. There are no signs of carpal collapse or secondary osteoarthritis. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lunate excision and silastic arthroplasty
Explanation
In early to intermediate Kienböck disease (Lichtman Stage II or IIIA) in a patient with negative ulnar variance, joint-leveling procedures are indicated to mechanically unload the radiolunate joint and revascularize the lunate. A radial shortening osteotomy is the most common and reliable method. Salvage procedures like proximal row carpectomy or STT fusion are reserved for more advanced stages (Stage IIIB or IV) where carpal collapse or secondary osteoarthritis has occurred.
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